English HKSI Paper 6 Topic 1
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 770
1. Question
1 pointsQID1:As an international financial Centre, which demands does Hong Kong aim to satisfy with the products and services it provides?
I. Meet demands for investment, capital and risk management.
II. Meet demands for employment
III. Provide an avenue for price discovery
IV. Provide liquidity of investmentsCorrect
The demands for employment is not a function satisfied solely by the financial market, thus it is not a primary function for the financial markets in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
The demands for employment is not a function satisfied solely by the financial market, thus it is not a primary function for the financial markets in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.1
-
Question 2 of 770
2. Question
1 pointsQID1498:The regulation of the asset management industry needs to cover
I. Products
II. Services
III. Intermediaries
IV. InvestorsCorrect
The regulation of the asset management industry needs to cover not only products and services but also intermediaries and investors.
Incorrect
The regulation of the asset management industry needs to cover not only products and services but also intermediaries and investors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.10
-
Question 3 of 770
3. Question
1 pointsQID625:Which of the following are examples of products of collective investment schemes?
I. Equity Funds
II. Sovereign Fund
III. Money Market Fund
IV. Index FundCorrect
A Sovereign Fund doesn’t meet the established criteria to be considered a CIS.
Incorrect
A Sovereign Fund doesn’t meet the established criteria to be considered a CIS.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.12
-
Question 4 of 770
4. Question
1 pointsQID2674:Which of the following activity is subject to supervision by the financial regulators?
Correct
Providing loans and collecting interest is money lending and is a regulated financial intermediary activity.
Incorrect
Providing loans and collecting interest is money lending and is a regulated financial intermediary activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.13
-
Question 5 of 770
5. Question
1 pointsQID1499:Which of the following are service providers of the Asset Management Industry in Hong Kong?
I. Fund houses
II. Auditors
III. Fund management companies
IV. StockbrokersCorrect
Typical service providers include:
(a) fund houses; (b) fund management companies; (c.) stockbrokersIncorrect
Typical service providers include:
(a) fund houses; (b) fund management companies; (c.) stockbrokersHint
Reference Chapter:1.1.13
-
Question 6 of 770
6. Question
1 pointsQID1500:Which of the following are service providers in the asset management industry?
I. Banks
II. Trustees
III. Custodians
IV. Financial PlannersCorrect
Typical service providers include:
(d) banks; (e.) trustees; (f) custodians; (g) financial plannersIncorrect
Typical service providers include:
(d) banks; (e.) trustees; (f) custodians; (g) financial plannersHint
Reference Chapter:1.1.13
-
Question 7 of 770
7. Question
1 pointsQID5:Which of the followings is not a financial service provider?
Correct
In financial markets, providers of financial products and services include principals and intermediaries. Fund managers, stockbrokers, and independent financial advisers are all intermediaries. Auditors are professionals supporting financial markets.
Incorrect
In financial markets, providers of financial products and services include principals and intermediaries. Fund managers, stockbrokers, and independent financial advisers are all intermediaries. Auditors are professionals supporting financial markets.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.13
-
Question 8 of 770
8. Question
1 pointsQID4:Which of the following activities is a financial service provided by a financial intermediary?
Correct
Financial intermediaries must be compensated to be classified as providers of financial transactions and services. Establishing a tutorial company offers educational services, not financial ones. Managing assets without compensation doesn’t fall under financial services. Therefore, signing a rental agreement for a bank, which is not a financial contract but a real estate contract, is not considered a financial intermediary service. However, loaning money to others and charging interest for the principal is a financial service that involves compensation for a financial transaction.
Incorrect
Financial intermediaries must be compensated to be classified as providers of financial transactions and services. Establishing a tutorial company offers educational services, not financial ones. Managing assets without compensation doesn’t fall under financial services. Therefore, signing a rental agreement for a bank, which is not a financial contract but a real estate contract, is not considered a financial intermediary service. However, loaning money to others and charging interest for the principal is a financial service that involves compensation for a financial transaction.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.14
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Question 9 of 770
9. Question
1 pointsQID1502:Which of the following are correct identification of Investors?
I. High Net Worth Investors
II. Retail Investors
III. Institutional investors
IV. Governmental InvestorsCorrect
Investors vary from individuals with limited wealth at their disposal to very large institutions handling over hundred millions of Hong Kong dollars, and include:
(a) private banking clients or high net worth individuals; (b) retail clients; and (c.) institutions.Incorrect
Investors vary from individuals with limited wealth at their disposal to very large institutions handling over hundred millions of Hong Kong dollars, and include:
(a) private banking clients or high net worth individuals; (b) retail clients; and (c.) institutions.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.15
-
Question 10 of 770
10. Question
1 pointsQID1501:Which of the following are classified as investors in the asset management industry?
I. Private Banking Clients
II. Retail Clients
III. Institutions
IV. Sovereign statesCorrect
Investors vary from individuals with limited wealth at their disposal to very large institutions handling over hundred millions of Hong Kong dollars, and include:
(a) private banking clients or high net worth individuals; (b) retail clients; and (c.) institutions.Incorrect
Investors vary from individuals with limited wealth at their disposal to very large institutions handling over hundred millions of Hong Kong dollars, and include:
(a) private banking clients or high net worth individuals; (b) retail clients; and (c.) institutions.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.15
-
Question 11 of 770
11. Question
1 pointsQID903:Which of the following are not common objectives of financial regulators in Hong Kong?
I. Promote intervention to enhance international and local market confidence.
II. Provide investment advice to retail investors
III. Encourage the installation of a sound technical infrastructure for the functioning of the financial markets
IV. Ensure that the legal framework of financial regulation is certain, adequate and fairly enforcedCorrect
Frequent Intervention is not an objective of financial regulators in Hong Kong. Providing Investment advice is not a job that regulators will do, it’s the job of intermediaries.
Incorrect
Frequent Intervention is not an objective of financial regulators in Hong Kong. Providing Investment advice is not a job that regulators will do, it’s the job of intermediaries.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.16
-
Question 12 of 770
12. Question
1 pointsQID6:Which of the following is a common objective of the Hong Kong financial regulators?
Correct
The common objectives of the Hong Kong financial regulators include:
i) Maintaining Hong Kong’s position as a leading financial center through necessary supervision;
ii) Applying financial regulations of an acceptable international standard;
iii) Striving to be market-friendly, open, and approachable, but also fair and effective;
iv) Ensuring that the legal framework of financial regulation is certain, adequate, and fairly enforced;
v) Encouraging the installation of a sound technical infrastructure interlinking with settlement and clearing systems globally;
vi) Promoting confidence in the financial markets, internationally and locally.
Facilitating innovation in financial products is a general responsibility of the Securities and Futures Commission.Incorrect
The common objectives of the Hong Kong financial regulators include:
i) Maintaining Hong Kong’s position as a leading financial center through necessary supervision;
ii) Applying financial regulations of an acceptable international standard;
iii) Striving to be market-friendly, open, and approachable, but also fair and effective;
iv) Ensuring that the legal framework of financial regulation is certain, adequate, and fairly enforced;
v) Encouraging the installation of a sound technical infrastructure interlinking with settlement and clearing systems globally;
vi) Promoting confidence in the financial markets, internationally and locally.
Facilitating innovation in financial products is a general responsibility of the Securities and Futures Commission.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.16
-
Question 13 of 770
13. Question
1 pointsQID908:Which of the following is one of the objectives of the SFO
Correct
SFO treats all investors fairly and equally. Regulators should be transparent to promote public’s understanding of the industry including its operation and functioning.
Incorrect
SFO treats all investors fairly and equally. Regulators should be transparent to promote public’s understanding of the industry including its operation and functioning.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.16
-
Question 14 of 770
14. Question
1 pointsQID1503:The SFC commonly face challenges when carrying out the regulatory mandate given to it by the SFO with regard to the Asset Management Business. What are the reasons?
I. The investors investing in investment Schemes are not in Hong Kong
II. Custodians and trustees in collective investment schemes are not in Hong Kong
III. The management of investment schemes is not located in Hong Kong
IV. The operation of the Investment Scheme is not in Hong KongCorrect
As the persons involved in the management, operation and holding of the assets under management are often not located in Hong Kong, this poses certain issues for the SFC in carrying out the regulatory mandate given to it by the SFO.
Incorrect
As the persons involved in the management, operation and holding of the assets under management are often not located in Hong Kong, this poses certain issues for the SFC in carrying out the regulatory mandate given to it by the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.17
-
Question 15 of 770
15. Question
1 pointsQID47:Which of the following are duties and functions of the Mandatory
Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) in MPF Schemes?
I. Registering MPF schemes
II. Approving Pooled Investment Funds
III. Approving trustees of MPF schemes
IV. Handling complaints related to MPF products and trustees, and referring them to the SFC and other regulators when necessaryCorrect
The MPFA is responsible for:
(a) registering mandatory provident fund schemes;
(b) approving pooled investment funds;
(c) approving trustees and overseeing the activities of such approved trustees;
(d) handling complaints related to MPF products and trustees, and referring them to the SFC and other regulators when necessary.Incorrect
The MPFA is responsible for:
(a) registering mandatory provident fund schemes;
(b) approving pooled investment funds;
(c) approving trustees and overseeing the activities of such approved trustees;
(d) handling complaints related to MPF products and trustees, and referring them to the SFC and other regulators when necessary.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.19
-
Question 16 of 770
16. Question
1 pointsQID782:The SFC is a/an _______ in Hong Kong.
Correct
The SFC was created by law under the Securities and Futures Commission Ordinance (now repealed and subsumed in the SFO). It is independent, meaning that it is not part of the
Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government as described in section 2 above. It is considered the securities and futures market prime regulator.Incorrect
The SFC was created by law under the Securities and Futures Commission Ordinance (now repealed and subsumed in the SFO). It is independent, meaning that it is not part of the
Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government as described in section 2 above. It is considered the securities and futures market prime regulator.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
-
Question 17 of 770
17. Question
1 pointsQID1181:What are the two regulatory authorities primarily involved in regulating the asset management industry
I. SFC
II. HKMA
III. SEHK
IV. HKEXCorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-RA.
Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-RA.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
-
Question 18 of 770
18. Question
1 pointsQID172:Which of the following is an accurate description of Hong Kong’s financial regulatory structure?
Correct
The broad points stated by the Securities Review Committee under Ian Hay Davison were
the need for:
(e) checks and balances on the system, with the exchanges being supervised by a
commission independent of the Government, with the Government only to intervene if
and when the Commission failed to regulate properlyIncorrect
The broad points stated by the Securities Review Committee under Ian Hay Davison were
the need for:
(e) checks and balances on the system, with the exchanges being supervised by a
commission independent of the Government, with the Government only to intervene if
and when the Commission failed to regulate properlyHint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
-
Question 19 of 770
19. Question
1 pointsQID781:The principal regulator of the securities industry in Hong Kong is the
Correct
The principal regulator of the securities industry in Hong Kong is the SFC, which assumes responsibility for front-line regulation and discipline of participants trading on the securities and futures exchanges and also of other securities intermediaries.
Incorrect
The principal regulator of the securities industry in Hong Kong is the SFC, which assumes responsibility for front-line regulation and discipline of participants trading on the securities and futures exchanges and also of other securities intermediaries.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
-
Question 20 of 770
20. Question
1 pointsQID788:Which of the following regulators in Hong Kong assumes responsibility for front-line regulation and discipline of participants of the securities and futures industry?
Correct
Except in relation to the management of business risk, and the enforcement of their own listing, trading, clearing and settlement rules, HKEX, the exchanges and the clearing houses are not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants, which is carried out by the SFC.
Incorrect
Except in relation to the management of business risk, and the enforcement of their own listing, trading, clearing and settlement rules, HKEX, the exchanges and the clearing houses are not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants, which is carried out by the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
-
Question 21 of 770
21. Question
1 pointsQID2832:Which of the following is not a financial regulator in Hong Kong?
Correct
The Securities Commission option is wrong, the correct name is Securities and Futures Commission.
Incorrect
The Securities Commission option is wrong, the correct name is Securities and Futures Commission.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
-
Question 22 of 770
22. Question
1 pointsQID785:The SFC regime adopts which of the following regulatory approaches?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 23 of 770
23. Question
1 pointsQID784:A risk-based regulatory system refers to a system in which:
Correct
The regulatory approach adopted by the SFC is a risk-based one, meaning that regulation is weighted towards the areas where the SFC perceives the highest risk to lie.
Incorrect
The regulatory approach adopted by the SFC is a risk-based one, meaning that regulation is weighted towards the areas where the SFC perceives the highest risk to lie.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 24 of 770
24. Question
1 pointsQID786:Which of the following regulatory approaches adopted by the SFC is given more regulatory attention towards the areas where the SFC perceives the highest risks to lie?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 25 of 770
25. Question
1 pointsQID62:The principal functions of the SFC include:
I. Supervise all activities conducted by Registered Institutions.
II. Ensure that persons engaged in regulated activities maintain proper conduct, competence, and quality.
III. Promote, encourage, and ensure that those engaged in regulated activities have appropriate internal control and risk management systems.
IV. Maintain market liquidity in the securities and futures markets.Correct
The principal functions of the SFC are to:
(a) Ensure fairness, efficiency, and transparency in the market.
(b) Oversee recognised exchange, clearing houses, exchange controllers and investor compensation companies or persons carrying on regulated activities, and registered institutions.
(C) Promote, encourage and enforce the proper conduct, competence and integrity of persons carrying on regulated activities;
(d) Maintain and promote confidence in the industry;
(e) Collaborate with other regulators;
(f) Secure appropriate degree of protection for the investing public;
(g) Promote, encourage and enforce internal control and risk management systems by persons carrying on regulated activities; and
(h) Suppress illegal, dishonourable and improper practices in the industry.
Therefore, II and III are correct.Incorrect
The principal functions of the SFC are to:
(a) Ensure fairness, efficiency, and transparency in the market.
(b) Oversee recognised exchange, clearing houses, exchange controllers and investor compensation companies or persons carrying on regulated activities, and registered institutions.
(C) Promote, encourage and enforce the proper conduct, competence and integrity of persons carrying on regulated activities;
(d) Maintain and promote confidence in the industry;
(e) Collaborate with other regulators;
(f) Secure appropriate degree of protection for the investing public;
(g) Promote, encourage and enforce internal control and risk management systems by persons carrying on regulated activities; and
(h) Suppress illegal, dishonourable and improper practices in the industry.
Therefore, II and III are correct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 26 of 770
26. Question
1 pointsQID57:The SFC:
I. Reports to the government
II. Was established under the Securities and Futures Ordinance
III. Is not responsible for licensing of intermediaries
IV. Is a part of the governmentCorrect
The SFC was established under the SFO. It is an independent body and is not part of the government machinery or the ministerial system. However, it reports to and is accountable to the Financial Secretary, who is part of the government. Therefore, options I and II are correct. The SFC is indeed responsible for the licensing of intermediaries, so option III is incorrect.
Incorrect
The SFC was established under the SFO. It is an independent body and is not part of the government machinery or the ministerial system. However, it reports to and is accountable to the Financial Secretary, who is part of the government. Therefore, options I and II are correct. The SFC is indeed responsible for the licensing of intermediaries, so option III is incorrect.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 27 of 770
27. Question
1 pointsQID58:Which of the following is a regulatory objective of the SFC?
I. Provide protection to the investing public
II. Reduce non-systematic risk in the industry
III. Assist the Financial Secretary in maintaining the financial stability of Hong Kong by taking appropriate steps in relation to the industry.
IV. Assist the HKMA in maintaining the stability of currency in
Hong KongCorrect
The regulatory objectives of the SFC are to:
a) maintain and promote the fairness, efficiency, competitiveness, transparency and orderliness of the market;
b) promote public’s understanding of the industry including its operation and functioning;
c) provide protection to the investing public;
d) minimise crime and misconduct in the market;
e) reduce systemic risks in the industry; and
f) assist the Financial Secretary in maintaining the financial stability of Hong Kong by taking appropriate steps in relation to the industry.
So I, III are correct.Incorrect
The regulatory objectives of the SFC are to:
a) maintain and promote the fairness, efficiency, competitiveness, transparency and orderliness of the market;
b) promote public’s understanding of the industry including its operation and functioning;
c) provide protection to the investing public;
d) minimise crime and misconduct in the market;
e) reduce systemic risks in the industry; and
f) assist the Financial Secretary in maintaining the financial stability of Hong Kong by taking appropriate steps in relation to the industry.
So I, III are correct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 28 of 770
28. Question
1 pointsQID59:Under the SFO, which of the following are regulatory objectives of the SFC?
I. Promote the public’s understanding of the operation and functioning of the industry
II. Ensure that regulatory standards are identical to international standards
III. Review and authorise new financial products and establishment ordinances
IV. Minimise crime and misconduct in the marketCorrect
The regulatory objectives of the SFC are to:
a) maintain and promote the fairness, efficiency, competitiveness, transparency, and orderliness of the market;
b) promote public understanding of the industry, including its operation and functioning;
c) provide protection to the investing public;
d) minimise crime and misconduct in the market;
e) reduce systemic risks in the industry; and
f) assist the Financial Secretary in maintaining the financial stability of Hong Kong by taking appropriate steps concerning the industry.
So I, IV are correct.Incorrect
The regulatory objectives of the SFC are to:
a) maintain and promote the fairness, efficiency, competitiveness, transparency, and orderliness of the market;
b) promote public understanding of the industry, including its operation and functioning;
c) provide protection to the investing public;
d) minimise crime and misconduct in the market;
e) reduce systemic risks in the industry; and
f) assist the Financial Secretary in maintaining the financial stability of Hong Kong by taking appropriate steps concerning the industry.
So I, IV are correct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 29 of 770
29. Question
1 pointsQID105:Which of the following organization is responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants?
Correct
Except in relation to the management of business risk, and the enforcement of their own listing, trading, clearing and settlement rules, HKEX, the exchanges and the clearing houses are not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants, which is carried out by the SFC.
Incorrect
Except in relation to the management of business risk, and the enforcement of their own listing, trading, clearing and settlement rules, HKEX, the exchanges and the clearing houses are not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants, which is carried out by the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 30 of 770
30. Question
1 pointsQID61:Which of the following is a regulatory objective of the SFC?
Correct
The regulatory objectives of the SFC are to:
a) maintain and promote the fairness, efficiency, competitiveness, transparency, and orderliness of the market;
b) promote public understanding of the industry;
c) provide protection to the investing public;
d) minimise crime and misconduct in the market;
e) reduce systemic risks in the industry; and
f) assist the Financial Secretary in maintaining the financial stability of Hong Kong.
So B is correct.Incorrect
The regulatory objectives of the SFC are to:
a) maintain and promote the fairness, efficiency, competitiveness, transparency, and orderliness of the market;
b) promote public understanding of the industry;
c) provide protection to the investing public;
d) minimise crime and misconduct in the market;
e) reduce systemic risks in the industry; and
f) assist the Financial Secretary in maintaining the financial stability of Hong Kong.
So B is correct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 31 of 770
31. Question
1 pointsQID802:Which of the following are powers that the SFC may NOT delegate to others?
I. Making subsidiary legislations.
II. Establishing committees.
III. Withdraw exchange companies
IV. Intervene in the business operation of registered institutions.Correct
The SFO provides that it may not delegate certain functions of the SFC to others.They are detailed in Schedule 2, Part 2, SFO. They include powers:
(a) to make subsidiary legislation;
(b) to establish committees under s. 8, SFO;
(c) to withdraw exchange companies;
(d) to appoint external investigators; and
(e) to institute proceedings in the MMT under s. 252(1) of the SFO.Incorrect
The SFO provides that it may not delegate certain functions of the SFC to others.They are detailed in Schedule 2, Part 2, SFO. They include powers:
(a) to make subsidiary legislation;
(b) to establish committees under s. 8, SFO;
(c) to withdraw exchange companies;
(d) to appoint external investigators; and
(e) to institute proceedings in the MMT under s. 252(1) of the SFO.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 32 of 770
32. Question
1 pointsQID63:Which of the following are functions and duties of the SFC?
I. Supervise the securities and futures markets in Hong Kong
II. Regulate the securities and futures industries
III. Provide professional assistance to the government
IV. Supervise all settlement banks in Hong KongCorrect
The principal functions of the SFC are to:
(a) Ensure fairness, efficiency, and transparency in the market.
(b) Oversee recognised exchange, clearing houses, exchange controllers and investor compensation companies or persons carrying on regulated activities, and registered institutions.
(C) Promote, encourage and enforce the proper conduct, competence and integrity of persons carrying on regulated activities;
(d) Maintain and promote confidence in the industry;
(e) Collaborate with other regulators;
(f) Secure appropriate degree of protection for the investing public;
(g) Promote, encourage and enforce internal control and risk management systems by persons carrying on regulated activities; and
(h) Suppress illegal, dishonourable and improper practices in the industry.
Therefore, I and II are correct.Incorrect
The principal functions of the SFC are to:
(a) Ensure fairness, efficiency, and transparency in the market.
(b) Oversee recognised exchange, clearing houses, exchange controllers and investor compensation companies or persons carrying on regulated activities, and registered institutions.
(C) Promote, encourage and enforce the proper conduct, competence and integrity of persons carrying on regulated activities;
(d) Maintain and promote confidence in the industry;
(e) Collaborate with other regulators;
(f) Secure appropriate degree of protection for the investing public;
(g) Promote, encourage and enforce internal control and risk management systems by persons carrying on regulated activities; and
(h) Suppress illegal, dishonourable and improper practices in the industry.
Therefore, I and II are correct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 33 of 770
33. Question
1 pointsQID999:Mr Liu has advertised himself in multiple newspapers in Hong Kong. He claimed to be a futures contracts expert and can assist clients in dealing with foreign futures contracts. As a matter of fact, Mr Liu was not licenced by or registered with the SFC. Had he done anything wrong?
Correct
To advertise oneself as operating a regulated activity is the same as operating a regulated activity. Conducting a regulated activity without licence or registration is against the SFO.
Incorrect
To advertise oneself as operating a regulated activity is the same as operating a regulated activity. Conducting a regulated activity without licence or registration is against the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 34 of 770
34. Question
1 pointsQID8:Which two of the following philosophies and systems of regulations are commonly used by financial regulators in Hong Kong?
I. Merit Based
II. Sanction Based
III. Disclosure Based
IV. Income BasedCorrect
Sanction-based regulations and Income-based regulations do not exist in Hong Kong.
Merit-based regulations are to screen out undesirable players and undesirable offerings. Investors cannot invest in these undesirable offerings, so their interests are protected.
Disclosure-based regulations require investment instruments to disclose their strengths and weaknesses maximally so that investors can make an informed decision.Incorrect
Sanction-based regulations and Income-based regulations do not exist in Hong Kong.
Merit-based regulations are to screen out undesirable players and undesirable offerings. Investors cannot invest in these undesirable offerings, so their interests are protected.
Disclosure-based regulations require investment instruments to disclose their strengths and weaknesses maximally so that investors can make an informed decision.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 35 of 770
35. Question
1 pointsQID783:What approach does the SFC take to regulate market intermediaries?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 36 of 770
36. Question
1 pointsQID1490:Which of the following is not regulated by the the SFC?
Correct
Except in relation to the management of business risk, and the enforcement of their own
listing, trading, clearing and settlement rules, HKEX, the exchanges and the clearing houses
are not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants,
which is carried out by the SFC.Incorrect
Except in relation to the management of business risk, and the enforcement of their own
listing, trading, clearing and settlement rules, HKEX, the exchanges and the clearing houses
are not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants,
which is carried out by the SFC.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 37 of 770
37. Question
1 pointsQID60:The regulatory objectives of the SFC include:
I. Consumer rights protection
II. Minimise crime and misconduct in the securities and futures industry
III. Promote public understanding of the securities and futures industry
IV. Provide advice on the enforcement of economic policies to the governmentCorrect
The regulatory objectives of the SFC are to:
a) maintain and promote the fairness, efficiency, competitiveness, transparency, and orderliness of the market;
b) promote public understanding of the industry, including its operation and functioning;
c) provide protection to the investing public;
d) minimise crime and misconduct in the market;
e) reduce systemic risks in the industry; and
f) assist the Financial Secretary in maintaining the financial stability of Hong Kong by taking appropriate steps concerning the industry.
So II, III are correct.Incorrect
The regulatory objectives of the SFC are to:
a) maintain and promote the fairness, efficiency, competitiveness, transparency, and orderliness of the market;
b) promote public understanding of the industry, including its operation and functioning;
c) provide protection to the investing public;
d) minimise crime and misconduct in the market;
e) reduce systemic risks in the industry; and
f) assist the Financial Secretary in maintaining the financial stability of Hong Kong by taking appropriate steps concerning the industry.
So II, III are correct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 38 of 770
38. Question
1 pointsQID2676:Whats the objective of SFC requiring the disclosure of rights?
Correct
Disclosure requiremetns are in place to enhance transperancy
Incorrect
Disclosure requiremetns are in place to enhance transperancy
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 39 of 770
39. Question
1 pointsQID2680:Which of the following description does not fit financial regulators in Hong Kong?
Correct
Decisions made by the regulators can be overturned or overruled.
Incorrect
Decisions made by the regulators can be overturned or overruled.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 40 of 770
40. Question
1 pointsQID10:Which approach to regulation is adopted by the SFC to regulate securities and futures markets?
Correct
The SFC adopts a“risk-based”approach towards regulations. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
The SFC adopts a“risk-based”approach towards regulations. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 41 of 770
41. Question
1 pointsQID787:Which of the following regulatory approach is adopted by the SFC?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 42 of 770
42. Question
1 pointsQID1492:“While the SFC has firm principles of regulation on which it operates, it seeks to maintain an open dialogue with the industry to achieve an appropriate degree of flexibility within the boundaries of those principles.” is describing which principle of the SFC?
Correct
The SFC seeks to work in partnership with the industry it regulates, encouraging a two-way dialogue that fosters a forum for an exchange of views and that encourages a strong regulator/regulate relationship.
Incorrect
The SFC seeks to work in partnership with the industry it regulates, encouraging a two-way dialogue that fosters a forum for an exchange of views and that encourages a strong regulator/regulate relationship.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 43 of 770
43. Question
1 pointsQID1494:What is the primary function of Registered Institution in the Asset Management Business?
Correct
Many AFIs participate in the fund management industry as distributors of CISs products. Accordingly, the HKMA, in its capacity as the banking regulatory authority, is concerned with the asset management industry insofar as it affects AFIs engaged in the regulated activity of asset management, i.e. registered institutions.
Incorrect
Many AFIs participate in the fund management industry as distributors of CISs products. Accordingly, the HKMA, in its capacity as the banking regulatory authority, is concerned with the asset management industry insofar as it affects AFIs engaged in the regulated activity of asset management, i.e. registered institutions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.4
-
Question 44 of 770
44. Question
1 pointsQID44:The Mandatory Provident Fund Authority (MPFA) was established under the
Correct
The MPFA is the primary regulator for the MPF system under the MPFSO, and is responsible for the overall management and administration of the MPF system, including the registration and regulation of the various schemes established under the ordinance.
Incorrect
The MPFA is the primary regulator for the MPF system under the MPFSO, and is responsible for the overall management and administration of the MPF system, including the registration and regulation of the various schemes established under the ordinance.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.5
-
Question 45 of 770
45. Question
1 pointsQID45:Which of the following are primary functions of the MPFA?
I. Approving fund managers of MPF products
II. Registering and overseeing MPF Schemes
III. Monitoring compliance with the Mandatory Provident Fund
Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO)
IV. Authorising MPF products and related marketing materialsCorrect
The MPFA is responsible for registering and overseeing MPF Schemes and monitoring compliance with the MPFSO. The SFC is responsible for approving the fund managers of MPF scheme investment products and authorising MPF products and related marketing materials.
Incorrect
The MPFA is responsible for registering and overseeing MPF Schemes and monitoring compliance with the MPFSO. The SFC is responsible for approving the fund managers of MPF scheme investment products and authorising MPF products and related marketing materials.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.5
-
Question 46 of 770
46. Question
1 pointsQID51:Which of the following matters is the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) responsible for relating to Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) products?
I. Authorisation of MPF products and related marketing materials
II. Approving investment managers engaged in the investment management of MPF products
III. Registering and overseeing MPF Schemes
IV. Registration of employer-sponsored MPF schemes for employersCorrect
Some responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the specific duties of the SFC, including:
(a) authorising MPF products and related marketing materials
(b) registering and approving investment managers engaged in the investment management of MPF products.However,The MPFA, not the SFC, handles the registration and oversight of MPF schemes.
Incorrect
Some responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the specific duties of the SFC, including:
(a) authorising MPF products and related marketing materials
(b) registering and approving investment managers engaged in the investment management of MPF products.However,The MPFA, not the SFC, handles the registration and oversight of MPF schemes.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.5
-
Question 47 of 770
47. Question
1 pointsQID48:Which of the following activities is Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (“MPFA”) responsible for ?
Correct
One of the responsibilities of the MPFA is to approve trustees and regulate the affairs and activities of such approved trustees.
Incorrect
One of the responsibilities of the MPFA is to approve trustees and regulate the affairs and activities of such approved trustees.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.5
-
Question 48 of 770
48. Question
1 pointsQID1495:The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) does NOT have which ONE of the following objectives?
Correct
It is not an obligation on the MPFA’s part to ensure that the schemes are operated to maximise the capital or income growth specified in the objectives of the schemes.
Incorrect
It is not an obligation on the MPFA’s part to ensure that the schemes are operated to maximise the capital or income growth specified in the objectives of the schemes.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.7
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Question 49 of 770
49. Question
1 pointsQID1497:Which of the following is not a general principles followed by the
MPFA?Correct
It is not an obligation on the MPFA’s part to ensure that the schemes are operated to maximise the capital or income growth specified in the objectives of the schemes, or to advise on, or ensure, the employers’ and scheme members’ choice of the best schemes/funds to achieve their objectives.
Incorrect
It is not an obligation on the MPFA’s part to ensure that the schemes are operated to maximise the capital or income growth specified in the objectives of the schemes, or to advise on, or ensure, the employers’ and scheme members’ choice of the best schemes/funds to achieve their objectives.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.7
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Question 50 of 770
50. Question
1 pointsQID1193:The Insurance Authority is responsible for prudential supervision of the insurance industry, it seeks to
I. ensure the financial stability of the industry
II. promote a high level efficiency in the administration of the industry
III. encourage the professionalism of the fund managers participating in insurance-related business, the insurance agents and brokers
IV. achieve the best balance between its overall supervision and the maximum effective self-regulation of the industry through
self-regulatory organizationsCorrect
The Insurance Authority has the following major duties and powers:
(a) the authorization and regulation of insurers;
(b) the regulation of insurance agents, who must be appointed by an insurer and registered with the Insurance Agents Registration Board, established by The Hong Kong Federation of Insurers. The agents are not directly authorised or supervised by the Insurance Authority. Supervision is by the appointing insurers, who are required to comply with the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents issued by The Hong Kong Federation of Insurers and approved by the Insurance Authority;
(c) the regulation of insurance brokers, who may obtain authorization from the Insurance Authority or from one of two bodies approved by the Insurance Authority, the Hong Kong
Confederation of Insurance Brokers and the Professional Insurance Brokers Association. These bodies are charged with the responsibility of ensuring that their members comply with the statutory requirements and that the interests of policy holders are properly protected; they also handle complaints; and
(d) the promotion of self-regulation by the industry and the maintenance of close contact with the industry through a consultative process.Incorrect
The Insurance Authority has the following major duties and powers:
(a) the authorization and regulation of insurers;
(b) the regulation of insurance agents, who must be appointed by an insurer and registered with the Insurance Agents Registration Board, established by The Hong Kong Federation of Insurers. The agents are not directly authorised or supervised by the Insurance Authority. Supervision is by the appointing insurers, who are required to comply with the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents issued by The Hong Kong Federation of Insurers and approved by the Insurance Authority;
(c) the regulation of insurance brokers, who may obtain authorization from the Insurance Authority or from one of two bodies approved by the Insurance Authority, the Hong Kong
Confederation of Insurance Brokers and the Professional Insurance Brokers Association. These bodies are charged with the responsibility of ensuring that their members comply with the statutory requirements and that the interests of policy holders are properly protected; they also handle complaints; and
(d) the promotion of self-regulation by the industry and the maintenance of close contact with the industry through a consultative process.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.8
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Question 51 of 770
51. Question
1 pointsQID1192:Insurance brokers should register with which of the following organizations?
Correct
Insurance Brokers should apply for a licence with the Insurance Authority.
Incorrect
Insurance Brokers should apply for a licence with the Insurance Authority.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.9
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Question 52 of 770
52. Question
1 pointsQID40:What is the most material difference between the Insurance Authority and other regulators?
Correct
The IA has powers in relation to the insurance industry similar to those possessed by other financial regulators in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
The IA has powers in relation to the insurance industry similar to those possessed by other financial regulators in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.9
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Question 53 of 770
53. Question
1 pointsQID1237:Which of the following descriptions about corporate governance are correct?
I. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders.
II. The governance issue is also concerned with the system by which companies are directed and controlled.
III. The activities of intermediaries frequently concern listed corporations. Accordingly, in addition to considering their own regulatory and corporate governance position, intermediaries need to be aware of the wider impact of corporate governance on their clients and the market.
IV. Markets which exhibit a higher degree of good corporate governance are regarded as more competitive in the international arena.Correct
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers). The governance issue is therefore also concerned with the system by which companies are directed and controlled.
The activities of intermediaries frequently concern listed corporations. Accordingly, in addition to considering their own regulatory and corporate governance position, intermediaries need to be aware of the wider impact of corporate governance on their clients and the market. It is now generally accepted that investors attach considerable importance to corporate governance when assessing the value of a stock, and that markets which exhibit a higher degree of good corporate governance are regarded as more competitive in the international arena.Incorrect
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers). The governance issue is therefore also concerned with the system by which companies are directed and controlled.
The activities of intermediaries frequently concern listed corporations. Accordingly, in addition to considering their own regulatory and corporate governance position, intermediaries need to be aware of the wider impact of corporate governance on their clients and the market. It is now generally accepted that investors attach considerable importance to corporate governance when assessing the value of a stock, and that markets which exhibit a higher degree of good corporate governance are regarded as more competitive in the international arena.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.
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Question 54 of 770
54. Question
1 pointsQID509:Corporate governance refers to the system of by which companies are directed and controlled and concerns which of the following groups of people?
I. Company management.
II. Board of Directors.
III. Shareholders.
IV. Stakeholders.Correct
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Incorrect
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.1
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Question 55 of 770
55. Question
1 pointsQID1684:Good Corporate governance are not required to be responsible for the interest of which of the following
Correct
A key objective of good governance in any company is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of thecompany.
Good Corporate governance are not required to be responsible for the interest of Former Employees.Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any company is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of thecompany.
Good Corporate governance are not required to be responsible for the interest of Former Employees.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.1
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Question 56 of 770
56. Question
1 pointsQID1239:Corporate governance describes which of the following relationship?
Correct
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Incorrect
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.1
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Question 57 of 770
57. Question
1 pointsQID2441:A good corporate-governance is not related to which of the following people?
Correct
A good corporate-governance is not related to former employees.
Incorrect
A good corporate-governance is not related to former employees.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.1
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Question 58 of 770
58. Question
1 pointsQID1508:The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) uses which of the following general principles in regulating asset management?
I. It recognises overseas jurisdictions with acceptable regimes as domiciles for authorised collective investment schemes (CIS).
II. It recognises supervision by specified inspection regimes overseas of management companies located in the respective jurisdictions as acceptable for its purposes.
III. It employs a consultative process involving the industry before making significant regulatory changes.
IV. It seeks to protect the interests of all investors in authorised CIS in Hong Kong and overseas.Correct
Certain jurisdictions are deemed to have rules governing the operations of CISs which are comparable with those in Hong Kong; schemes domiciled in such jurisdictions are RJSs.
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency, particularly among larger asset managers, to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the asset manager’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern.Incorrect
Certain jurisdictions are deemed to have rules governing the operations of CISs which are comparable with those in Hong Kong; schemes domiciled in such jurisdictions are RJSs.
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency, particularly among larger asset managers, to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the asset manager’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.10
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Question 59 of 770
59. Question
1 pointsQID1244:In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements in Hong Kong and overseas jurisdictions, which of the following measures can intermediaries take for better coordination?
I. Engage a dedicated compliance officer to oversee adherence to the compliance manual.
II. Appoint a director to serve as a Compliance Officer to oversee adherence to the compliance manual.
III. Maintain close contact with the regulators.
IV. Complement the manual with well defined operational procedures and practices.Correct
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the securities dealer’s or adviser’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern. In many cases, a dedicated compliance officer is engaged to oversee adherence to the manual, maintain close contact with the regulators and keep abreast of regulatory developments affecting the securities dealer’s or adviser’s business.
Incorrect
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the securities dealer’s or adviser’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern. In many cases, a dedicated compliance officer is engaged to oversee adherence to the manual, maintain close contact with the regulators and keep abreast of regulatory developments affecting the securities dealer’s or adviser’s business.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.10
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Question 60 of 770
60. Question
1 pointsQID1509:Asset management companies should carry which of the following functions to facilitate compliance with applicable laws and regulations?
I. Assign designated compliance officers
II. Prepare a set of written compliance procedures, operational procedures and manuals
III. Encourage the use of mobile phones and instant messaging system to enhance workplace communication efficiency
IV. Ban the use of paper-based instructions between departments to minimize human errorsCorrect
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency, particularly among larger asset managers, to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the asset manager’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern. In many cases, a dedicated compliance officer is appointed who oversees adherence to the manual and also maintains close contact with the regulators and keeps abreast of regulatory developments affecting the asset manager’s business.
Incorrect
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency, particularly among larger asset managers, to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the asset manager’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern. In many cases, a dedicated compliance officer is appointed who oversees adherence to the manual and also maintains close contact with the regulators and keeps abreast of regulatory developments affecting the asset manager’s business.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.10
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Question 61 of 770
61. Question
1 pointsQID1629:VitaSauce is a corporation planning to be listed on the SEHK. VitaSauce has been in losses in the past 3 years, and profited over one billion in the recent year. Yet, there was less than 10 million cash flow in these 3 years. Investment bankers estimated that if VitaSauce is listed, the market value will be over 6 billion. Which of the following quantitative tests is more likely to be applied on VitaSauce?
Correct
The issuer must satisfy at least one of the following quantitative tests: profit test; market capitalisation/revenue/cash flow test; market capitalisation/revenue test.
The issuer must have a market capitalisation of at least HK$4 billion at the time of listing, and revenue of at least HK$500 million for the most recent audited financial year.Incorrect
The issuer must satisfy at least one of the following quantitative tests: profit test; market capitalisation/revenue/cash flow test; market capitalisation/revenue test.
The issuer must have a market capitalisation of at least HK$4 billion at the time of listing, and revenue of at least HK$500 million for the most recent audited financial year.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.3
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Question 62 of 770
62. Question
1 pointsQID1241:The primary objective of good corporate governance is to:
Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company.
Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 63 of 770
63. Question
1 pointsQID1606:Do licensed corporations need to have an independent audit committee?
Correct
Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of Chairman and chief executive officer; appointment of independent non-executive directors; establishment of independent audit committees; setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management;Incorrect
Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of Chairman and chief executive officer; appointment of independent non-executive directors; establishment of independent audit committees; setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management;Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 64 of 770
64. Question
1 pointsQID1240:Which of the following is NOT a probable measure that can be taken to improve corporate governance?
Correct
It’s not required to protect the interests of the management.
Incorrect
It’s not required to protect the interests of the management.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 65 of 770
65. Question
1 pointsQID1238:To promote, encourage and enforce good compliance practices. Senior management of Licensed Corporations (LC)s and Registered Institutions (RI)s must establish:
I. Good line and reporting structures.
II. Well defined functions and responsibilities.
III. Effective communications channels.
IV. Appropriate transparency and disclosure practices.Correct
Senior management must provide the leadership and drive to promote, encourage and enforce, if necessary, good compliance practices. It must establish:
(a) good line and reporting structures;
(b) clearly defined functions and responsibilities;
(c.) effective communications;
(d) appropriate transparency and disclosure practices.Incorrect
Senior management must provide the leadership and drive to promote, encourage and enforce, if necessary, good compliance practices. It must establish:
(a) good line and reporting structures;
(b) clearly defined functions and responsibilities;
(c.) effective communications;
(d) appropriate transparency and disclosure practices.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 66 of 770
66. Question
1 pointsQID512:Good governance practices can include which of the following ways?
I. Installing appropriate checks and balances on the board of
directors and senior management.
II. Having sufficient transparency and disclosure of important facts and information to stakeholders.
III. Installing strong protective structures for majority shareholder.
IV. Identifying and penalizing corporate wrongdoing.Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.
(d) identifying and penalising corporate wrongdoing.Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.
(d) identifying and penalising corporate wrongdoing.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 67 of 770
67. Question
1 pointsQID511:Which of the following measures reflect effective corporate governance?
I. Installing appropriate checks and balances.
II. Increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders , stakeholders and the public.
III. Adopting international accounting and auditing standards.
IV. Installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) adopting international accounting and auditing standards;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) adopting international accounting and auditing standards;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 68 of 770
68. Question
1 pointsQID2757:Which of the following is a concept provided by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development that a company can improve the level of corporate governance?
I. Distinguish between the Chief Executive Officer and the Chairman of the Board
II. Enhance transparency disclosure to shareholders and stakeholders
III. Establish a compensation committee to monitor senior management compensation
IV. Establish a robust protection structure for minority shareholders, creditors or other stakeholdersCorrect
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development offers the concept that companies can improve the level of corporate governance by the following methods:
I. Distinguish between the Chief Executive Officer and the Chairman
II. Enhance transparency disclosure to shareholders and stakeholders
III. Establish a compensation committee to monitor senior management compensation
IV. Establish a strong protection structure for minority shareholders, creditors, or other stakeholders
V. Establish an independent audit committee
VI. Identify business misconduct
VII. Adopt international accounting and auditing standardsIncorrect
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development offers the concept that companies can improve the level of corporate governance by the following methods:
I. Distinguish between the Chief Executive Officer and the Chairman
II. Enhance transparency disclosure to shareholders and stakeholders
III. Establish a compensation committee to monitor senior management compensation
IV. Establish a strong protection structure for minority shareholders, creditors, or other stakeholders
V. Establish an independent audit committee
VI. Identify business misconduct
VII. Adopt international accounting and auditing standardsHint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 69 of 770
69. Question
1 pointsQID929:Which of the following are not examples of good corporate governance?
I. Set up remuneration committee to control the remuneration of management.
II. Assign the management to multiple roles to cut cost.
III. Offer high degree of discretionary powers to the management to allow them to enhance efficiency.
IV. Install check and balances to limited the power of the managementCorrect
The essence of corporate governance is to enhance transparency and check and balance. The powers of the management should be limited, therefore, installation of check and balances and limiting the management’s remuneration are good practices.
Incorrect
The essence of corporate governance is to enhance transparency and check and balance. The powers of the management should be limited, therefore, installation of check and balances and limiting the management’s remuneration are good practices.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 70 of 770
70. Question
1 pointsQID1242:A company may improve its corporate governance through the following means with the exception of:
Correct
Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of the chairman and chief executive officer, appointment of independent non-executive directors, establishment of independent audit committees, and setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management;
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c.) adopting international accounting and auditing standards;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.
(e) identifying and penalising corporate wrongdoing.Incorrect
Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of the chairman and chief executive officer, appointment of independent non-executive directors, establishment of independent audit committees, and setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management;
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c.) adopting international accounting and auditing standards;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.
(e) identifying and penalising corporate wrongdoing.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 71 of 770
71. Question
1 pointsQID971:Good corporate governance should separate the functions of
Correct
Good corporate governance should separate the functions of Chairman and CEO.
Incorrect
Good corporate governance should separate the functions of Chairman and CEO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 72 of 770
72. Question
1 pointsQID510:Good corporate governance includes which of the following features?
I. The recruitment of experienced executive directors who are realistically rewarded to ensure that the business is run
efficiently.
II. The installation of a well regulated structure incorporating close and detailed top managerial supervision of day-to-day
operations of the business.
III. The recruitment of experienced non-executive directors with the objective of ensuring a good balance between executive
and non-executive directors.
IV. Installation of audit and remuneration committees who will ensure independent audits and fair performance geared reward structures.Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of Chairman and CEO; appointment of independent non-executive directors; establishment of independent audit committees; setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management.Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of Chairman and CEO; appointment of independent non-executive directors; establishment of independent audit committees; setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 73 of 770
73. Question
1 pointsQID2718:Which of the following is not a common consequence of inadequate corporate governance standards?
Correct
Common consequences of deficit in corporate governance standards:
I. Insider trading and other forms of market misconduct
II. Misfeasance, fraud, and misconduct by directors, managers, and other staff causing losses to the company or shareholders
IV. The price of the connected transaction deviates from the market price, causing losses to the company and shareholdersIncorrect
Common consequences of deficit in corporate governance standards:
I. Insider trading and other forms of market misconduct
II. Misfeasance, fraud, and misconduct by directors, managers, and other staff causing losses to the company or shareholders
IV. The price of the connected transaction deviates from the market price, causing losses to the company and shareholdersHint
Reference Chapter:1.10.6
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Question 74 of 770
74. Question
1 pointsQID1243:In order to achieve the goal of supervising the industry, the SFC:
I. Regular inspections, including on-site inspections.
II. Unscheduled inspections, including on-site inspections.
III. Obtaining information from Licensed Corporations (LC)s.
IV. Obtaining information from the Registered Institutions (RI)s.Correct
In furtherance of these aims, the SFC conducts regular inspections of licensed corporations which may be conducted either on-site or via a request for information to be provided. The maintenance of proper documentation is critical in this regard.
Incorrect
In furtherance of these aims, the SFC conducts regular inspections of licensed corporations which may be conducted either on-site or via a request for information to be provided. The maintenance of proper documentation is critical in this regard.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.7
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Question 75 of 770
75. Question
1 pointsQID1511:Which of the following are some requirements imposed on a corporate trustee by the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA)?
I. It must have paid-up share capital of at least HKD100 million.
II. It must hold net assets of at least HKD150 million.
III. Its directors and Chief Executive must have at least 3 years relevant experience, and the Chief Executive must ordinarily reside in Hong Kong.
IV. Its day-to-day business must be conducted in Hong Kong and its records kept in Hong Kong.Correct
Only authorised financial institutions and registered trust companies that meet the specified
criteria are eligible to act as custodians, provided in each case they have a sufficient presence and control in Hong Kong. The specified criteria are primarily concerned with the financial standing of the entity, such as the amount of paid-up share capital and its net assets.Incorrect
Only authorised financial institutions and registered trust companies that meet the specified
criteria are eligible to act as custodians, provided in each case they have a sufficient presence and control in Hong Kong. The specified criteria are primarily concerned with the financial standing of the entity, such as the amount of paid-up share capital and its net assets.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.10
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Question 76 of 770
76. Question
1 pointsQID1510:Which of the following are requirements in the Code of Conduct for Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) Intermediaries regarding the manner in which an MPF intermediary should deal with clients?
I. It should discuss the calibre of investment managers using all
available information such as the past performance records of
SFC collective investment schemes (CIS) and MPF schemes
they have managed, as successful past records would assist in
predicting their future performance.
II. when selling MPF schemes to employers, self-employed persons or preserved account holders, take all reasonable steps to establish the true and full identity of the client.
III. When advising a client on the selection of constituent funds, it
should consider, where practicable, the client’s interests, financial situation, risk preference, investment knowledge, experience and objectives.
IV. The intermediary should not receive any cash payments for or on behalf of clients and should ensure that all client payments
are made payable to the management company of the scheme.Correct
The main performance requirements that MPF intermediaries should meet are that they must:
when advising clients on the selection of constituent funds, consider, where practicable, the client’s interests, financial situation, risk preference, investment knowledge, experience and objectivesIncorrect
The main performance requirements that MPF intermediaries should meet are that they must:
when advising clients on the selection of constituent funds, consider, where practicable, the client’s interests, financial situation, risk preference, investment knowledge, experience and objectivesHint
Reference Chapter:1.11.30
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Question 77 of 770
77. Question
1 pointsQID1618:If there is any infraction in a licensed corporation, which of the following persons is responsible for making a report to the SFC?
Correct
In general, the duties of responsible officers and executive officers who actively participate in, or supervise, the intermediary’s business may include:
(a) ensuring the intermediary has developed policies appropriate for its business;
(b) establishing appropriate standards of business conduct and procedures, and ensuring
proper compliance by staff at all times;
(c.) establishing adequate internal controls and suitable risk management systems and ensuring they are strictly complied with;
(d) employing only staff who meet the licensing requirements of the SFC, and ensuring that they are sufficiently competent and experienced to perform their work;
(e.) ensuring the intermediary complies with the capital and financial reporting requirements of the SFC, exchange and clearing house;
(f) ensuring the intermediary and its staff comply at all times with the applicable laws, the rules, regulations, guidelines and codes of the SFC, the exchange and clearing house, and the professional bodies of which it is a member;
(g) properly managing the risks associated with the business of the intermediary, including
performing periodic evaluation of its risk management processes;
(h) establishing procedures to ensure that proper dealing practices are observed at all times – in particular, that clients’ interest are protected;
(i) ensuring that the intermediary’s systems, procedures and practices can facilitate compliance with the standards and requirements set out in the relevant laws, the rules, codes and guidelines of the SFC, exchanges and clearing houses;Incorrect
In general, the duties of responsible officers and executive officers who actively participate in, or supervise, the intermediary’s business may include:
(a) ensuring the intermediary has developed policies appropriate for its business;
(b) establishing appropriate standards of business conduct and procedures, and ensuring
proper compliance by staff at all times;
(c.) establishing adequate internal controls and suitable risk management systems and ensuring they are strictly complied with;
(d) employing only staff who meet the licensing requirements of the SFC, and ensuring that they are sufficiently competent and experienced to perform their work;
(e.) ensuring the intermediary complies with the capital and financial reporting requirements of the SFC, exchange and clearing house;
(f) ensuring the intermediary and its staff comply at all times with the applicable laws, the rules, regulations, guidelines and codes of the SFC, the exchange and clearing house, and the professional bodies of which it is a member;
(g) properly managing the risks associated with the business of the intermediary, including
performing periodic evaluation of its risk management processes;
(h) establishing procedures to ensure that proper dealing practices are observed at all times – in particular, that clients’ interest are protected;
(i) ensuring that the intermediary’s systems, procedures and practices can facilitate compliance with the standards and requirements set out in the relevant laws, the rules, codes and guidelines of the SFC, exchanges and clearing houses;Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.37
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Question 78 of 770
78. Question
1 pointsQID2875:Code of Conduct for Licensed Insurance Agent (‘Agents Code’) is less likely to be applicable to
Correct
Code of Conduct for Licensed Insurance Agent (‘Agents Code’) is applicable to
I. Licensed Insurance Agents
II. Licensed Insurance Agencies
III. Licensed Technical Representatives engaged by Licensed Insurance agenciesIncorrect
Code of Conduct for Licensed Insurance Agent (‘Agents Code’) is applicable to
I. Licensed Insurance Agents
II. Licensed Insurance Agencies
III. Licensed Technical Representatives engaged by Licensed Insurance agenciesHint
Reference Chapter:1.11.38
-
Question 79 of 770
79. Question
1 pointsQID1603:Which of the following financial products are not being traded on the SEHK?
Correct
Treasury securities are issued by the government, and are not being traded on the SEHK
Incorrect
Treasury securities are issued by the government, and are not being traded on the SEHK
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.
-
Question 80 of 770
80. Question
1 pointsQID1035:The Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) is the principal legislative document governing which markets in Hong Kong?
Correct
The SFO is the principal legislative document governing the securities market in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
The SFO is the principal legislative document governing the securities market in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.1
-
Question 81 of 770
81. Question
1 pointsQID179:The principal ordinance applicable to the asset management industry is the
Correct
The principal ordinances applicable to the asset management industry are the SFO, the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (“MPFSO”), the Occupational Retirement
Schemes Ordinance (“ORSO”), the Insurance Ordinance and, to a lesser extent, the Banking Ordinance, the Employment Ordinance, the Inland Revenue Ordinance and the Trustee
Ordinance.Incorrect
The principal ordinances applicable to the asset management industry are the SFO, the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (“MPFSO”), the Occupational Retirement
Schemes Ordinance (“ORSO”), the Insurance Ordinance and, to a lesser extent, the Banking Ordinance, the Employment Ordinance, the Inland Revenue Ordinance and the Trustee
Ordinance.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.1
-
Question 82 of 770
82. Question
1 pointsQID331:Which of the following descriptions of futures are CORRECT, as defined in the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
I. Future contracts are agreements made between the buyer and seller.
II. Future contracts are made based on the future prices of securities.
III. One party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of property, at an agreed price.
IV. The traded products of futures contracts are not securities.Correct
According to Schedule 1, SFO, a futures contract means:
(a) a contract or an option on a contract made under the rules or conventions of a futures market.
(b) That one party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price.Incorrect
According to Schedule 1, SFO, a futures contract means:
(a) a contract or an option on a contract made under the rules or conventions of a futures market.
(b) That one party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.10
-
Question 83 of 770
83. Question
1 pointsQID344:The SFC’s codes and guidelines on asset management are UNLIKELY to be applicable to which of the following activities?
Correct
Margin financing is not an activity directly related with asset management, so regulations and guidelines associated with asset management will not cover those kinds of transactions.
Incorrect
Margin financing is not an activity directly related with asset management, so regulations and guidelines associated with asset management will not cover those kinds of transactions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.10
-
Question 84 of 770
84. Question
1 pointsQID746:Which of the following regulated activities can be carried out by holding a Type 1 regulated activity license?
I. Type 4 activity wholly incidental to Type 1
II. Type 5 activity wholly incidental to Type 1
III. Type 6 activity wholly incidental to Type 1
IV. Type 9 activity wholly incidental to Type 1Correct
Regulated activities 4, 6 or 9 will be permitted if wholly incidental to Type 1.
Incorrect
Regulated activities 4, 6 or 9 will be permitted if wholly incidental to Type 1.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.10
-
Question 85 of 770
85. Question
1 pointsQID332:According to the Securities and Futures Ordinance, which of the following definitions of a futures contract?
I. One party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed
future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price.
II. The buyer agrees to deliver to the seller at an agreed future time an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price. The
buyer reserves the right not to carry out the contract and the seller must act in compliance to the wishes of the buyer.
III. The parties will make an adjustment between them at an agreed future time according to whether at that time an agreed property is worth more or less, or an index or other factors stands at a higher or lower level, than a value or level agreed at the time of making of the contract.
IV. The parties will make an adjustment between them at an agreed future time according to the agreed value of the agreed property at the time of making the contract; there should be no increase or decrease.Correct
According to Schedule 1, SFO, a futures contract means:
(a) That one party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price and;
(b) That the parties will make an adjustment between them at an agreed future time according to whether at that time an agreed property is worth more or less, or an index or other factor stands at a higher or lower level, than a value or level agreed at the time of making of the contract.Incorrect
According to Schedule 1, SFO, a futures contract means:
(a) That one party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price and;
(b) That the parties will make an adjustment between them at an agreed future time according to whether at that time an agreed property is worth more or less, or an index or other factor stands at a higher or lower level, than a value or level agreed at the time of making of the contract.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.10
-
Question 86 of 770
86. Question
1 pointsQID2682:If a solicitor is conducting a Type 4 acitivity, should he/she apply for a licence?
Correct
As long as its wholly incidental to his/her professional capacity, solicitors are not require to apply for a licence for conducting Type 4,5,6,9 activities.
Incorrect
As long as its wholly incidental to his/her professional capacity, solicitors are not require to apply for a licence for conducting Type 4,5,6,9 activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.10
-
Question 87 of 770
87. Question
1 pointsQID333:Which of the following activities is not a case of Type 2 or Type 5 Activities?
Correct
Any activities that are not conducted on behalf of others cannot be a regulated activity.
Incorrect
Any activities that are not conducted on behalf of others cannot be a regulated activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.10
-
Question 88 of 770
88. Question
1 pointsQID2861:If a company is licensed to run Type 1 actvity is running Type 9 activity, is there a problem?
Correct
If the conductino of Type 9 Activity is wholly incidental to its Type 1 Activity, its not illegal. They are persons specifically excluded from the definition of securities or futures contracts management
Incorrect
If the conductino of Type 9 Activity is wholly incidental to its Type 1 Activity, its not illegal. They are persons specifically excluded from the definition of securities or futures contracts management
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.10
-
Question 89 of 770
89. Question
1 pointsQID1001:Under which of the following circumstances does a Type 2 licenced person or registered person need to acquire a Type 5 licence or registration?
Correct
Provide futures dealing advice to clients and charge separately is not a type 5 regulated activity that is wholly incidental to type 2 regulated activity. Therefore, registration or licence for type 5 regulated activity is required.
Incorrect
Provide futures dealing advice to clients and charge separately is not a type 5 regulated activity that is wholly incidental to type 2 regulated activity. Therefore, registration or licence for type 5 regulated activity is required.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.10
-
Question 90 of 770
90. Question
1 pointsQID2599:Which of the following activity is considered as asset management?
I. Accountants manage securities and futures portfolios for their friends and charge “tips”.
II. Trading companies manage securities and futures portfolios for their wholly-owned subsidiaries.
III. Trading companies manage securities and futures portfolios for their 60%-owned subsidiaries.
IV. Licensed corporations provide their customers who engage in securities trading with securities portfolio management wholly incidental to securities trading services.Correct
Accountants manage securities and futures portfolios for their friends and charge “tips”. Since it’s not wholly incidental to professional activities of accountants, it’s not excluded. As for trading companies managing securities and futures portfolios for their 60%-owned subsidiaries, since the subsidiaries are not wholly-owned, it’s not excluded. Since both are not excluded, they are asset management activities.
Incorrect
Accountants manage securities and futures portfolios for their friends and charge “tips”. Since it’s not wholly incidental to professional activities of accountants, it’s not excluded. As for trading companies managing securities and futures portfolios for their 60%-owned subsidiaries, since the subsidiaries are not wholly-owned, it’s not excluded. Since both are not excluded, they are asset management activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.10
-
Question 91 of 770
91. Question
1 pointsQID1571:Which of the following activities are not considered as securities or futures contracts management?
I. An accountant managing a portfolio of securities for a group of people.
II. A staff member of a firm managing securities or futures contracts for a subsidiary of his/her company.
III. A staff member of a firm managing securities or futures contracts for a JV of the company’s majority shareholder and the company’s director.
IV. A solicitor withholding a portfolio of securities for clients wholly incidental to his professional capacity.Correct
Option I did not specify that the accountant is working in his professional capacity, therefore should not be exempted.
This is defined as managing a portfolio of securities or futures contracts for another person by a person other than certain excluded persons. Persons specifically excluded from the definition of securities or futures contracts management include the following:
(a) corporations that carry on securities or futures contracts management solely for their
wholly owned subsidiaries, their holding companies which hold all their issued shares,
or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the latter;
€ solicitors, counsel (barristers), professional accountants and trustees who provide securities or futures contracts management services wholly incidental to their professional practices.Incorrect
Option I did not specify that the accountant is working in his professional capacity, therefore should not be exempted.
This is defined as managing a portfolio of securities or futures contracts for another person by a person other than certain excluded persons. Persons specifically excluded from the definition of securities or futures contracts management include the following:
(a) corporations that carry on securities or futures contracts management solely for their
wholly owned subsidiaries, their holding companies which hold all their issued shares,
or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the latter;
€ solicitors, counsel (barristers), professional accountants and trustees who provide securities or futures contracts management services wholly incidental to their professional practices.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.10
-
Question 92 of 770
92. Question
1 pointsQID327:The definition of “securities” is extensive and includes
I. Shares, Bonds, Debentures
II. Interests, rights in collective investment schemes
III. Ownership of investment linked Insurance schemes
IV. Interest in any CISsCorrect
Securities are defined in Schedule 1, SFO, to cover a wide range of instruments. Option III (Investment linked Insurance Scheme) is not covered by this definition.
Incorrect
Securities are defined in Schedule 1, SFO, to cover a wide range of instruments. Option III (Investment linked Insurance Scheme) is not covered by this definition.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.11
-
Question 93 of 770
93. Question
1 pointsQID326:Which of the following are defined as Securities under s. 392, SFO as securities?
I. CISs
II. Bonds
III. Stocks
IV. Other interests prescribed by the Financial SecretaryCorrect
Securities are defined in Schedule 1, SFO, to cover a wide range of instruments, including:
(a) shares, stocks, debentures, loan stocks, funds, bonds or notes;
(d) interests in CISs;
(f) interests, rights or property which are prescribed by the Financial Secretary under s. 392, SFO as securities.Incorrect
Securities are defined in Schedule 1, SFO, to cover a wide range of instruments, including:
(a) shares, stocks, debentures, loan stocks, funds, bonds or notes;
(d) interests in CISs;
(f) interests, rights or property which are prescribed by the Financial Secretary under s. 392, SFO as securities.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.11
-
Question 94 of 770
94. Question
1 pointsQID2716:Which of the following may amend what is regulated activity by Gazette?
Correct
The Financial Secretary shall amend by the Gazette what is a regulated activity.
Incorrect
The Financial Secretary shall amend by the Gazette what is a regulated activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.12
-
Question 95 of 770
95. Question
1 pointsQID325:Which of the following are not examples of securities?
I. Shares in a private company
II. Shares in a public company
III. Interests in CISs that are either registered mandatory
provident fund schemes under MPFSO, occupational
retirement schemes under ORSO
IV. Contracts of insurance in relation to any class of insurance
business under the Insurance Companies Ordinance (“ICO”).Correct
Securities are defined in Schedule 1, SFO, to cover a wide range of instruments. Options I, III and IV are not covered by this definition.
Incorrect
Securities are defined in Schedule 1, SFO, to cover a wide range of instruments. Options I, III and IV are not covered by this definition.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.12
-
Question 96 of 770
96. Question
1 pointsQID221:What are the powers of the Financial Secretary in relation to securities?
Correct
The Financial Secretary may prescribe new financial arrangements as CISs and new financial products as securities or futures contracts by issuing a notice in the Gazette, as per the powers granted under sections 392 and 393 of the SFO. This enables the inclusion of new products in the regulatory framework as appropriate.
Incorrect
The Financial Secretary may prescribe new financial arrangements as CISs and new financial products as securities or futures contracts by issuing a notice in the Gazette, as per the powers granted under sections 392 and 393 of the SFO. This enables the inclusion of new products in the regulatory framework as appropriate.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.12
-
Question 97 of 770
97. Question
1 pointsQID222:Which of the following agencies or individuals may prescribe, by notice in the Gazette, new financial products as being (or not being) securities or futures contracts?
Correct
Powers are given to the Financial Secretary to prescribe, by notice in the Gazette:
(a) new financial products as being (or not being) securities or futures contracts, and new financial arrangements as CISs, thus capturing new products in the regulatory net as appropriate (ss. 392 and 393, SFO)Incorrect
Powers are given to the Financial Secretary to prescribe, by notice in the Gazette:
(a) new financial products as being (or not being) securities or futures contracts, and new financial arrangements as CISs, thus capturing new products in the regulatory net as appropriate (ss. 392 and 393, SFO)Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.12
-
Question 98 of 770
98. Question
1 pointsQID2428:According to the Securities and Futures Ordinance, which of the following is not securities?
Correct
Options and their warrants are normally considered as derivatives. So futures options do not belong to securities.
Incorrect
Options and their warrants are normally considered as derivatives. So futures options do not belong to securities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.12
-
Question 99 of 770
99. Question
1 pointsQID970:Which of the following are examples of security?
I. Listed Stocks
II. Equity Warrants
III. Derivative Warrants
IV. BondsCorrect
A security is a tradable financial asset. The term commonly refers to any form of financial instrument including stocks, bonds and warrants.
Incorrect
A security is a tradable financial asset. The term commonly refers to any form of financial instrument including stocks, bonds and warrants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.12
-
Question 100 of 770
100. Question
1 pointsQID1227:Which of the following entities can prescribe other arrangements on security by notice under s. 392 SFO?
Correct
Interests, rights or property which are prescribed by the Financial Secretary under s. 392, SFO as securities.
Incorrect
Interests, rights or property which are prescribed by the Financial Secretary under s. 392, SFO as securities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.12
-
Question 101 of 770
101. Question
1 pointsQID35:Which of the following entities is responsible for authorising and supervising insurance companies?
Correct
The Insurance Authority is concerned with the regulation of insurance companies and insurance intermediaries.
Incorrect
The Insurance Authority is concerned with the regulation of insurance companies and insurance intermediaries.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.13
-
Question 102 of 770
102. Question
1 pointsQID347:Which of the following types of interests in Collective Investment
Schemes (CISs) are not considered as securities?
I. A registered Mandatory Provident Fund scheme under the MPFSO or its constituent fund.
II. An occupational retirement scheme under the ORSO
III. A contract of insurance in relation to any class of insurance business under the Insurance Companies Ordinance.
IV. Real estate investments management as stipulated in the Securities and Futures Ordinance.Correct
The definition of asset management speaking of managing
“securities”, is specifically includes interests in any CIS; but does not include any interest in a CIS that is:
(a) a registered Mandatory Provident Fund scheme under the MPFSO or its constituent fund;
(b) an occupational retirement scheme under the ORSO; or
© a contract of insurance in relation to any class of insurance business under the Insurance Ordinance.Incorrect
The definition of asset management speaking of managing
“securities”, is specifically includes interests in any CIS; but does not include any interest in a CIS that is:
(a) a registered Mandatory Provident Fund scheme under the MPFSO or its constituent fund;
(b) an occupational retirement scheme under the ORSO; or
© a contract of insurance in relation to any class of insurance business under the Insurance Ordinance.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.13
-
Question 103 of 770
103. Question
1 pointsQID771:Which of the following correctly describe the characteristics of futures contracts?
I. Futures contracts must be settled at a designated time and at a designated price agreed by both parties in the future.
II. The parties of the futures contracts are obliged to settle the contracts.
III. Futures contracts made under the rules or conventions of a futures market.
IV. The delivery of a futures contract can be delayed if both parties of the contract come to an agreement.Correct
According to Schedule 1, SFO, a futures contract means:
(a) a contract or an option on a contract made under the rules or conventions of a futures market; also
A person deals in futures contracts if he:
(a) makes or offers to make an agreement with another person to enter into, acquire or dispose of a futures contract; and
(b) induces or attempts to induce another person to enter into, acquire or dispose of a futures contract.
In such contracts, one party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price.Incorrect
According to Schedule 1, SFO, a futures contract means:
(a) a contract or an option on a contract made under the rules or conventions of a futures market; also
A person deals in futures contracts if he:
(a) makes or offers to make an agreement with another person to enter into, acquire or dispose of a futures contract; and
(b) induces or attempts to induce another person to enter into, acquire or dispose of a futures contract.
In such contracts, one party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.14
-
Question 104 of 770
104. Question
1 pointsQID1000:According to the SFO, the definition of Futures contracts is
Correct
According to the SFO, the definition of Futures contracts are contracts made under the rules or conventions of a futures market.
Incorrect
According to the SFO, the definition of Futures contracts are contracts made under the rules or conventions of a futures market.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.14
-
Question 105 of 770
105. Question
1 pointsQID2378:According to the Securities and Futures Ordinance, a futures contract is that:
I. Futures in Hong Kong has to be settled physically.
II. In Hong Kong, futures contracts refer to contracts established according to rules or practices of futures market.
III. One party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price.
IV. In Hong Kong, both parties of futures contract can agree to delay the settlement.Correct
According to the Securities and Futures Ordinance, a futures contract is that:
I. can be either cash settlement or
physical delivery
II. In Hong Kong, futures contracts refer to contracts established according to rules or practices of futures market.
III. One party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price.Incorrect
According to the Securities and Futures Ordinance, a futures contract is that:
I. can be either cash settlement or
physical delivery
II. In Hong Kong, futures contracts refer to contracts established according to rules or practices of futures market.
III. One party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.14
-
Question 106 of 770
106. Question
1 pointsQID772:Which of the following correctly describe the characteristics of futures contracts?
I. Futures contract must be settled at a designated time and at a designated price agreed by both parties in the future.
II. The parties trading futures contracts must pay margin to the clearing house (HKCC).
III. Futures contracts of stocks traded on SEHK must be physically settled.
IV. Futures contracts must be traded at the exchange.Correct
According to Schedule 1, SFO, a futures contract means:
(a) a contract or an option on a contract made under the rules or conventions of a futures market.
A person deals in futures contracts if he:
(a) makes or offers to make an agreement with another person to enter into, acquire or dispose of a futures contract; and
(b) induces or attempts to induce another person to enter into, acquire or dispose of a futures contract.
Contracts determine:
(i) that one party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price; or
(ii) that the parties will make an adjustment between them at an agreed future time according to whether at that time an agreed property is worth more or less, or an index or other factor stands at a higher or lower level, than a value or level agreed at the time of making of the contract.Incorrect
According to Schedule 1, SFO, a futures contract means:
(a) a contract or an option on a contract made under the rules or conventions of a futures market.
A person deals in futures contracts if he:
(a) makes or offers to make an agreement with another person to enter into, acquire or dispose of a futures contract; and
(b) induces or attempts to induce another person to enter into, acquire or dispose of a futures contract.
Contracts determine:
(i) that one party agrees to deliver to the other party at an agreed future time an agreed property, or an agreed quantity of a property, at an agreed price; or
(ii) that the parties will make an adjustment between them at an agreed future time according to whether at that time an agreed property is worth more or less, or an index or other factor stands at a higher or lower level, than a value or level agreed at the time of making of the contract.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.14
-
Question 107 of 770
107. Question
1 pointsQID627:How do CISs and asset management relate to each other in the SFO regime?
I. The definition of asset management includes “securities” as a class of assets which may be managed under Type 9 regulated activity. The definition of securities includes CISs.
II. Asset management has no relation with CIS in the SFO regime
III. CISs is the only form of authorised asset management.
IV. CISs is one aspect of asset management activity in Hong KongCorrect
Option II and III are incorrect since CIS are indeed considered an asset management activity by the SFO, but they are not the ONLY form of asset management recognized by the SFO.
Incorrect
Option II and III are incorrect since CIS are indeed considered an asset management activity by the SFO, but they are not the ONLY form of asset management recognized by the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.15
-
Question 108 of 770
108. Question
1 pointsQID223:Which of the following correctly describes the features of CISs under the SFO?
Correct
The key elements of what constitutes a CIS are:
(a) an arrangement in respect of a property under which the management of the property is not subject to the day-to-day control of the scheme’s participants, and either:
(i) the property is managed as a whole by or for the person operating the arrangement; or
(ii) the participants’ contributions and accruing profits or income are pooled; and
(b) the purpose of the arrangement is to enable the participants to receive profits, income or other payments or returns from the property or dealings relating to it.Incorrect
The key elements of what constitutes a CIS are:
(a) an arrangement in respect of a property under which the management of the property is not subject to the day-to-day control of the scheme’s participants, and either:
(i) the property is managed as a whole by or for the person operating the arrangement; or
(ii) the participants’ contributions and accruing profits or income are pooled; and
(b) the purpose of the arrangement is to enable the participants to receive profits, income or other payments or returns from the property or dealings relating to it.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.16
-
Question 109 of 770
109. Question
1 pointsQID622:Which of the following are key elements of a Collective Investment Scheme (CIS)?
I. an arrangement in respect of property under which the management of the property is not subject to the day-to-day control of the scheme’s participants
II. an arrangement in respect of property under which the management of the property is subject to the day-to-day control of the scheme’s participants
III. The purpose of the arrangement is to enable the participants to receive profits, income or other payments or returns from the property or dealings relating to it.
IV. The purpose of the arrangement is to enable the managers of the scheme to receive profits, income or other payments or returns from the property or dealings relating to it.Correct
The key elements of what constitutes a CIS are:
(a) an arrangement in respect of a property under which the management of the property is not subject to the day-to-day control of the scheme’s participants, and either:
(i) the property is managed as a whole by or for the person operating the arrangement; or
(ii) the participants’ contributions and accruing profits or income are pooled; and
(b) the purpose of the arrangement is to enable the participants to receive profits, income or other payments or returns from the property or dealings relating to it.Incorrect
The key elements of what constitutes a CIS are:
(a) an arrangement in respect of a property under which the management of the property is not subject to the day-to-day control of the scheme’s participants, and either:
(i) the property is managed as a whole by or for the person operating the arrangement; or
(ii) the participants’ contributions and accruing profits or income are pooled; and
(b) the purpose of the arrangement is to enable the participants to receive profits, income or other payments or returns from the property or dealings relating to it.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.16
-
Question 110 of 770
110. Question
1 pointsQID2723:The main elements of a collective investment scheme include
I. The property is primarily managed by the professionals who run the scheme
II. Participant’s contributions and accrued profits or gains are pooled
III. The purpose of the collective investment scheme is to earn profit income or other returns
IV. CIS participants will be involved in major investment decisionsCorrect
The main elements of a collective investment scheme include
I. The property is primarily managed by the professionals who run the scheme
II. Participant’s contributions and accrued profits or gains are pooled
III. The purpose of the collective investment scheme is to earn profit income or other returnsIncorrect
The main elements of a collective investment scheme include
I. The property is primarily managed by the professionals who run the scheme
II. Participant’s contributions and accrued profits or gains are pooled
III. The purpose of the collective investment scheme is to earn profit income or other returnsHint
Reference Chapter:1.2.17
-
Question 111 of 770
111. Question
1 pointsQID626:Which of the following is not a major element of a CIS?
Correct
Answer C is not a major element in the definition of a CIS since segregation is a particular subject of the operation and not a broad definition of the CISs as a whole.
Incorrect
Answer C is not a major element in the definition of a CIS since segregation is a particular subject of the operation and not a broad definition of the CISs as a whole.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.17
-
Question 112 of 770
112. Question
1 pointsQID624:Which of the following is/are major elements of a collective investment scheme?
I. Investors (Participants) can manage investments directly.
II. Only employees can take part
III. Investors (Participants) and the operator of the arrangement belong to the same group of the companies.
IV. Investors (Participants)s’ contributions and accruing profits or income are pooled.Correct
The key elements of what constitutes a CIS are:
(a) an arrangement in respect of a property under which the management of the property is not subject to the day-to-day control of the scheme’s participants, and either:
(i) the participants’ contributions and accruing profits or income are pooled.Incorrect
The key elements of what constitutes a CIS are:
(a) an arrangement in respect of a property under which the management of the property is not subject to the day-to-day control of the scheme’s participants, and either:
(i) the participants’ contributions and accruing profits or income are pooled.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.17
-
Question 113 of 770
113. Question
1 pointsQID621:Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of collective investment schemes?
Correct
The key elements of what constitutes a CIS are:
(a) an arrangement in respect of a property under which the management of the property is not subject to the day-to-day control of the scheme’s participants, and either:
(i) the property is managed as a whole by or for the person operating the arrangement; or
(ii) the participants’ contributions and accruing profits or income are pooled; and
(b) the purpose of the arrangement is to enable the participants to receive profits, income or other payments or returns from the property or dealings relating to it.
They are not in any way the most direct way to invest.Incorrect
The key elements of what constitutes a CIS are:
(a) an arrangement in respect of a property under which the management of the property is not subject to the day-to-day control of the scheme’s participants, and either:
(i) the property is managed as a whole by or for the person operating the arrangement; or
(ii) the participants’ contributions and accruing profits or income are pooled; and
(b) the purpose of the arrangement is to enable the participants to receive profits, income or other payments or returns from the property or dealings relating to it.
They are not in any way the most direct way to invest.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.17
-
Question 114 of 770
114. Question
1 pointsQID616:Which of the following entities grants authorised status to a CIS?
Correct
Powers granted to the SFC include the power to authorise CISs and structured products for offer to the public as well as advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the public.
Incorrect
Powers granted to the SFC include the power to authorise CISs and structured products for offer to the public as well as advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the public.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.18
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Question 115 of 770
115. Question
1 pointsQID220:Which of the following individuals may prescribe new arrangements by notice under SFO as being CISs?
Correct
The Financial Secretary may prescribe new financial arrangements as CISs and new financial products as securities or futures contracts by issuing a notice in the Gazette, as per the powers granted under sections 392 and 393 of the SFO. This enables the inclusion of new products in the regulatory framework as appropriate.
Incorrect
The Financial Secretary may prescribe new financial arrangements as CISs and new financial products as securities or futures contracts by issuing a notice in the Gazette, as per the powers granted under sections 392 and 393 of the SFO. This enables the inclusion of new products in the regulatory framework as appropriate.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.18
-
Question 116 of 770
116. Question
1 pointsQID619:Exclusions from the definition of CISs involve:
I. Arrangements where the participants and the operator of the arrangement belong to the same group of companies
II. Franchise arrangements
III. Arrangements where an auditor acting in his professional capacity holds money from clients during the course of his work
IV. Arrangements where a solicitor acting in his professional capacity holds money from clients during the course of his workCorrect
Exclusions from the definition of a CIS include:
(a) arrangements where the participants and the operator of the arrangement belong to the same group of companies;
(b) franchise arrangements; and
(c.)arrangements where a solicitor acting in his professional capacity holds money from clients during the course of his work.Incorrect
Exclusions from the definition of a CIS include:
(a) arrangements where the participants and the operator of the arrangement belong to the same group of companies;
(b) franchise arrangements; and
(c.)arrangements where a solicitor acting in his professional capacity holds money from clients during the course of his work.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.19
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Question 117 of 770
117. Question
1 pointsQID614:With regards to the asset management industry, duties of the SFC include which of the following?
I. Licensing Intermediaries
II. Authorizing Collective Investment Schemes.
III. Monitoring the conduct of intermediaries
IV. Avoiding investor’s participation in high risk Collectives Investment SchemesCorrect
The functions of the SFC in relation to asset management are two-pronged:
(a) it authorises CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds and retirement
schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs; and
(b) it licenses and supervises intermediaries engaged in asset management (Type 9 regulated activity) as well as others engaged in providing advisory services in the industry (Type 4 and Type 5 regulated activities); if they choose to be licensed as dealing in securities and/or futures contracts (Type 1 and/or Type 2 regulated activities), the respective regulatory regime will be applied to them.
The first of these functions is derived from Part IV, SFO and the second from Part V, SFO.Incorrect
The functions of the SFC in relation to asset management are two-pronged:
(a) it authorises CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds and retirement
schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs; and
(b) it licenses and supervises intermediaries engaged in asset management (Type 9 regulated activity) as well as others engaged in providing advisory services in the industry (Type 4 and Type 5 regulated activities); if they choose to be licensed as dealing in securities and/or futures contracts (Type 1 and/or Type 2 regulated activities), the respective regulatory regime will be applied to them.
The first of these functions is derived from Part IV, SFO and the second from Part V, SFO.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.2
-
Question 118 of 770
118. Question
1 pointsQID612:Which of the following entities authorizes CIS?
Correct
The powers assigned to the SFC include the power to authorise CISs and structured products for offer to the public as well as advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the
public.Incorrect
The powers assigned to the SFC include the power to authorise CISs and structured products for offer to the public as well as advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the
public.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.2
-
Question 119 of 770
119. Question
1 pointsQID41:Which of the following are not broad activities of the SFC in respect of the regulation of CIS?
I. Authorizing CISs
II. Monitoring and supervising the intermediaries involved with CISs
III. Directly managing CISs
IV. Authorizing structured productsCorrect
Section 104, SFO empowers the SFC to grant authorisation to CISs(commonly referred to as ‘mutual funds’ or ‘unit trusts.’), thereby enabling the CISs to be marketed to the public. However,the SFC does not directly manage these CISs. Additionally, Structured products are not CISs.
Incorrect
Section 104, SFO empowers the SFC to grant authorisation to CISs(commonly referred to as ‘mutual funds’ or ‘unit trusts.’), thereby enabling the CISs to be marketed to the public. However,the SFC does not directly manage these CISs. Additionally, Structured products are not CISs.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.2
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Question 120 of 770
120. Question
1 pointsQID629:Under the SFO, the SFC has which of the following regulatory responsibilities in relation to asset management ?
I. Licensing intermediaries
II. Authorizing MPF Schemes
III. Authorizing CISs
IV. Vetting recognized InvestorsCorrect
The functions of the SFC in relation to asset management are two-pronged:
(a) it authorises CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds and retirement schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs; and
(b) it licenses and supervises intermediaries engaged in asset management (Type 9 regulated activity) as well as others engaged in providing advisory services in the industry (Type 4 and Type 5 regulated activities); if they choose to be licensed as dealing in securities and/or futures contracts (Type 1 and/or Type 2 regulated activities), the respective regulatory regime will be applied to them.
The first of these functions is derived from Part IV, SFO and the second from Part V, SFO.Incorrect
The functions of the SFC in relation to asset management are two-pronged:
(a) it authorises CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds and retirement schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs; and
(b) it licenses and supervises intermediaries engaged in asset management (Type 9 regulated activity) as well as others engaged in providing advisory services in the industry (Type 4 and Type 5 regulated activities); if they choose to be licensed as dealing in securities and/or futures contracts (Type 1 and/or Type 2 regulated activities), the respective regulatory regime will be applied to them.
The first of these functions is derived from Part IV, SFO and the second from Part V, SFO.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.2
-
Question 121 of 770
121. Question
1 pointsQID617:Which of the following authorities regulates CISs and the intermediaries that manage regulates CISs?
Correct
Powers granted to the SFC include the power to authorise CISs and structured products for offer to the public as well as advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the public.
Incorrect
Powers granted to the SFC include the power to authorise CISs and structured products for offer to the public as well as advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the public.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.2
-
Question 122 of 770
122. Question
1 pointsQID628:The biggest difference between authorised investment schemes and unauthorised collective investment schemes is
Correct
There are only two circumstances in which a CIS may be offered or marketed to the public in Hong Kong: it must be either (i) structured as a company which is listed on the SEHK, or (ii) authorised by the SFC. The authorisation route is by far the most common approach taken. So unauthorised CISs cannot be sold to the Hong Kong public.
Incorrect
There are only two circumstances in which a CIS may be offered or marketed to the public in Hong Kong: it must be either (i) structured as a company which is listed on the SEHK, or (ii) authorised by the SFC. The authorisation route is by far the most common approach taken. So unauthorised CISs cannot be sold to the Hong Kong public.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.20
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Question 123 of 770
123. Question
1 pointsQID107:Which of the following products is approved by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC)?
Correct
The SFO empowers the SFC to recognize CISs (commonly referred to as “mutual funds” or “unit trusts”) and structured products, enabling them to be marketed to the public.
Incorrect
The SFO empowers the SFC to recognize CISs (commonly referred to as “mutual funds” or “unit trusts”) and structured products, enabling them to be marketed to the public.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.20
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Question 124 of 770
124. Question
1 pointsQID350:Which of the following does the SFC need to regulate?
Correct
The functions of the SFC in relation to asset management are two-pronged: One of those functions is to authorise CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds and retirement
schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs.Incorrect
The functions of the SFC in relation to asset management are two-pronged: One of those functions is to authorise CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds and retirement
schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.20
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Question 125 of 770
125. Question
1 pointsQID630:Why is the authorised status important to a CIS?
I. Without authorization, the CIS will not be able to licence representative and cannot operate in Hong Kong.
II. Authorization is a core requirement of being able to offer a CIS to the public in Hong Kong.
III. Authorization is a perquisite of being able to offer a CIS to professional investors in Hong Kong
IV. Without authorization, a CIS cannot conduct any regulated activities in Hong Kong.Correct
There are only two circumstances in which a CIS may be offered or marketed to the public in Hong Kong: it must be either (i) structured as a company which is listed on the SEHK, or (ii) authorised by the SFC. The authorisation route is by far the most common approach taken.
Incorrect
There are only two circumstances in which a CIS may be offered or marketed to the public in Hong Kong: it must be either (i) structured as a company which is listed on the SEHK, or (ii) authorised by the SFC. The authorisation route is by far the most common approach taken.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.20
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Question 126 of 770
126. Question
1 pointsQID43:Which of the following entities is responsible for authorizing CISs and Structured Products?
Correct
Section 104, SFO empowers the SFC to grant authorisation to CISs and Structured products, enabling them to be marketed to the public.
Incorrect
Section 104, SFO empowers the SFC to grant authorisation to CISs and Structured products, enabling them to be marketed to the public.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.22,25
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Question 127 of 770
127. Question
1 pointsQID631:What sanctions can the SFC impose on CISs?
I. Authorise CISs
II. Refuse to authorise
III. Withdraw CIS authorisation
IV. Ban CIS from re-registrationCorrect
The SFC may grant authorisation subject to “any other conditions it considers appropriate”. The SFC also has the power to refuse to authorise applications and to withdraw authorisations after they have been granted.
Incorrect
The SFC may grant authorisation subject to “any other conditions it considers appropriate”. The SFC also has the power to refuse to authorise applications and to withdraw authorisations after they have been granted.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.23
-
Question 128 of 770
128. Question
1 pointsQID633:With regards to authorizing a CIS, which of the following statements are true?
I. The SFC may grant authorization subject to “any other conditions it considers appropriate.”
II. The SFC is also given the power to refuse to authorize applications and to withdraw authorizations once given.
III. The SFO requires that there must be an individual approved by the SFC to receive notices and decisions served by the SFC relating to the CIS.
IV. If the CIS is approved by recognized overseas securities regulator, authorization of a CIS is on a voluntary basisCorrect
First, the SFC may grant authorisation subject to “any other conditions it considers appropriate”. The SFC is also given the power to refuse to authorise applications and to withdraw authorisations. Second, the SFO requires that there must be an individual approved by the SFC to receive notices and decisions served by the SFC relating to an authorised CIS.
Incorrect
First, the SFC may grant authorisation subject to “any other conditions it considers appropriate”. The SFC is also given the power to refuse to authorise applications and to withdraw authorisations. Second, the SFO requires that there must be an individual approved by the SFC to receive notices and decisions served by the SFC relating to an authorised CIS.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.23
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Question 129 of 770
129. Question
1 pointsQID632:When the SFC authorizes a CIS, it requires the nomination of
Correct
The SFO requires that there must be an individual approved by the SFC to receive notices and decisions served by the SFC relating to an authorised CIS. Contact details relating to that person must be provided to the SFC. The SFC has powers to approve the contact person or to withdraw the approval.
Incorrect
The SFO requires that there must be an individual approved by the SFC to receive notices and decisions served by the SFC relating to an authorised CIS. Contact details relating to that person must be provided to the SFC. The SFC has powers to approve the contact person or to withdraw the approval.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.24
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Question 130 of 770
130. Question
1 pointsQID1607:Mr. Liu, who is a financial journalist, often encourages retail investors to trade stocks on the newspaper, in which the comments are unfounded and often mislead the public. Is there any wrongdoing in this case?
Correct
Broadcasters like financial journalists and columnists who give investment advice to the public for references on subscription do not conduct the regulated activity of advising on securities. Thus, they are exempted from requiring a licence.
Incorrect
Broadcasters like financial journalists and columnists who give investment advice to the public for references on subscription do not conduct the regulated activity of advising on securities. Thus, they are exempted from requiring a licence.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.28
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Question 131 of 770
131. Question
1 pointsQID615:With regards to Asset Management businesses, the SFO is concerned with
I. An offer made to the public under a registered prospectus is permitted.
II. Authorise CISs thereby enabling the CISs to be marketed to the public.
III. Authorise structured products, thereby enabling them to be marketed to the public.
IV. Authorise the issue of advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the public.Correct
The core aspects to Part IV are:
(a) Under s. 103, SFO, it is an offence to make an offer of investments to the public unless the circumstances of the offer are in accordance with the permitted routes of so doing (for example, an offer made under a registered prospectus is permitted).
(b) Section 104, SFO empowers the SFC to grant authorisation to (and to impose conditions on) CISs (commonly referred to as “mutual funds” or “unit trusts”), thereby enabling the CISs to be marketed to the public.
(c) Section 104A, SFO empowers the SFC to grant authorisation to (and to impose conditions on) structured products, thereby enabling them to be marketed to the public.
(d) Section 105, SFO empowers the SFC to authorise the issue of (and to impose conditions on) advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the public.Incorrect
The core aspects to Part IV are:
(a) Under s. 103, SFO, it is an offence to make an offer of investments to the public unless the circumstances of the offer are in accordance with the permitted routes of so doing (for example, an offer made under a registered prospectus is permitted).
(b) Section 104, SFO empowers the SFC to grant authorisation to (and to impose conditions on) CISs (commonly referred to as “mutual funds” or “unit trusts”), thereby enabling the CISs to be marketed to the public.
(c) Section 104A, SFO empowers the SFC to grant authorisation to (and to impose conditions on) structured products, thereby enabling them to be marketed to the public.
(d) Section 105, SFO empowers the SFC to authorise the issue of (and to impose conditions on) advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the public.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.31
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Question 132 of 770
132. Question
1 pointsQID988:Kanon Financial has recently launched a Collective Investment Scheme and appointed Kaohsiung Securities as the distributor. Kaohsiung Securities holds a Type 1 regulated activity license. If the CIS is not authorised by the SFC, can Kaohsiung Securities issue advertisements for it?
Correct
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.
Thus, a licensed corporation can issue an advertisement for an unauthorised CIS as long as its states that its not available to the public in Hong Kong.Incorrect
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.
Thus, a licensed corporation can issue an advertisement for an unauthorised CIS as long as its states that its not available to the public in Hong Kong.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.31
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Question 133 of 770
133. Question
1 pointsQID2753:Which of the following statements about invitation documents to the public is true?
Correct
Invitation documents issued to the public require the approval of the SFC. Invitation documents issued only to professional investors do not require SFC’s approval.
Incorrect
Invitation documents issued to the public require the approval of the SFC. Invitation documents issued only to professional investors do not require SFC’s approval.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.31
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Question 134 of 770
134. Question
1 pointsQID636:Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public “Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or fall within an available exemption. A breach of this provision is an
Correct
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by
the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.Incorrect
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by
the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.31
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Question 135 of 770
135. Question
1 pointsQID1574:Issuing advertisement to the public about authorised CIS is a
Correct
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.
These provisions are set out in s. 103(1), SFO.Incorrect
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.
These provisions are set out in s. 103(1), SFO.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.31
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Question 136 of 770
136. Question
1 pointsQID637:What are the possible consequences to advertise invitations to the public to deal in CISs without the SFC approval or exemption?
Correct
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.
Incorrect
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.31
-
Question 137 of 770
137. Question
1 pointsQID1572:Issuing an advertisement under which of the following circumstances is illegal?
Correct
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.
Incorrect
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.31
-
Question 138 of 770
138. Question
1 pointsQID177:Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by which of the following agencies?
Correct
Section 105, SFO empowers the SFC to authorise the issue of (and to impose conditions on) advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the public.Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption.
Incorrect
Section 105, SFO empowers the SFC to authorise the issue of (and to impose conditions on) advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the public.Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.31
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Question 139 of 770
139. Question
1 pointsQID2654:Investment Advertisements issued for the public are required to have
Correct
Investment Advertisements issued for the public are required to have 1 Individual that is approved by the SFC to receive SFC notices and decisions relating to the advertisments in question and that the SFC has been notified of the person’s contact information.
Incorrect
Investment Advertisements issued for the public are required to have 1 Individual that is approved by the SFC to receive SFC notices and decisions relating to the advertisments in question and that the SFC has been notified of the person’s contact information.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.33
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Question 140 of 770
140. Question
1 pointsQID641:Which of the following are exempted by the SFO to be classified as advertisement of CIS?
I. Prospectuses complying with the Companies Ordinance
II. Listing documents and certain other offer documents in relation to securities the listing of which on The Stock Exchange of Hong Kong Limited (“SEHK”) has been approved by HKEX
III. Advertisements, invitations and documents issued by certain licensed corporations (if in respect of securities they must hold a Type 1, 4 or 6 licence, and if in respect of futures contracts, they must hold a Type 2 or 5 licence)
IV. Advertisement etc. in respect of securities or interests in CISs intended to be disposed of only to PIs.Correct
There are several exemptions provided for in s. 103, SFO, which permit the issue of certain documents and the acts of special groups, including the following:
(a) prospectuses complying with the Companies (Winding Up and Miscellaneous Provisions) Ordinance;
(b) listing documents and certain other offer documents in relation to securities traded on a recognised stock market;
(c.) Advertisements issued by certain licensed corporations (see section 3.18 below for an example);
(d) Advertisements in respect of securities or interests in CISs intended to be disposed of only to professional investors.Incorrect
There are several exemptions provided for in s. 103, SFO, which permit the issue of certain documents and the acts of special groups, including the following:
(a) prospectuses complying with the Companies (Winding Up and Miscellaneous Provisions) Ordinance;
(b) listing documents and certain other offer documents in relation to securities traded on a recognised stock market;
(c.) Advertisements issued by certain licensed corporations (see section 3.18 below for an example);
(d) Advertisements in respect of securities or interests in CISs intended to be disposed of only to professional investors.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.34
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Question 141 of 770
141. Question
1 pointsQID640:Which of the following are exempted from the requirement to comply with the SFO requirements in Asset Management Advertising?
I. Publishers of newspapers
II. Live Broadcasters
III. Lawyers who promote CISs to his clients
IV. Accounts who promote CIS to his clientsCorrect
There are several exemptions provided for in s. 103, SFO, which permit the issue of certain documents and the acts of special groups, including the following:
– sellers or publishers of newspapers and other publications containing such advertisements; and
– conduits or live broadcasters issuing such prohibited material in the ordinary course of their business.Incorrect
There are several exemptions provided for in s. 103, SFO, which permit the issue of certain documents and the acts of special groups, including the following:
– sellers or publishers of newspapers and other publications containing such advertisements; and
– conduits or live broadcasters issuing such prohibited material in the ordinary course of their business.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.34
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Question 142 of 770
142. Question
1 pointsQID644:Advertisements are also subject to the provisions of the SFO concerning misrepresentation, which provide
Correct
Advertisements are also subject to the provisions of the SFO concerning misrepresentation, which provide for both civil remedies and criminal sanctions.
Incorrect
Advertisements are also subject to the provisions of the SFO concerning misrepresentation, which provide for both civil remedies and criminal sanctions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.36
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Question 143 of 770
143. Question
1 pointsQID646:A person to make any fraudulent or reckless misrepresentation for the purpose of inducing another person to investing in a CIS may result in
Correct
Under s. 107, SFO, it is a criminal offence punishable by fine and/or imprisonment for a person to make any fraudulent or reckless misrepresentation for the purpose of inducing another person to deal with securities, structured products or CISs.
Incorrect
Under s. 107, SFO, it is a criminal offence punishable by fine and/or imprisonment for a person to make any fraudulent or reckless misrepresentation for the purpose of inducing another person to deal with securities, structured products or CISs.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.37
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Question 144 of 770
144. Question
1 pointsQID645:What are the possible consequences to make fraudulent/reckless misrepresentations to induce a person to deal in securities and CISs?
Correct
Under s. 107, SFO, it is a criminal offence punishable by fine and/or imprisonment for a person to make any fraudulent or reckless misrepresentation for the purpose of inducing another person to deal with securities, structured products or CISs.
Incorrect
Under s. 107, SFO, it is a criminal offence punishable by fine and/or imprisonment for a person to make any fraudulent or reckless misrepresentation for the purpose of inducing another person to deal with securities, structured products or CISs.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.37
-
Question 145 of 770
145. Question
1 pointsQID647:Which of the following conditions does the SFO provide for civil liability for compensatory damages?
I. Fraudulent Misrepresentation
II. Reckless Misrepresentation
III. Unintended Misrepresentation
IV. Negligent MisrepresentationCorrect
The civil remedies for misrepresentation are established under s. 108, SFO, which is similar to s. 107, SFO but in addition, covers negligent misrepresentation.
Incorrect
The civil remedies for misrepresentation are established under s. 108, SFO, which is similar to s. 107, SFO but in addition, covers negligent misrepresentation.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.38
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Question 146 of 770
146. Question
1 pointsQID91:Which of the following entities has the authority to grant injunctions?
Correct
The SFC may apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets, or from carrying on all or a part of his business, if it can demonstrate that issuing such an order is in the public interest.
Incorrect
The SFC may apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets, or from carrying on all or a part of his business, if it can demonstrate that issuing such an order is in the public interest.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.38
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Question 147 of 770
147. Question
1 pointsQID648:Mr Ko was induced by Yellow River Investment Limited Advertisement to invest in a CIS managed by Yellow River Investment. However, Mr Ko later discovered that the profit has been overstated. Upon investigation, it appeared that it was a misprint by the printer who printed advertisements for Yellow River Investment. Which type of misrepresentation is that?
Correct
A negligent misrepresentation is any statement which, at the time it is made, is false, misleading or deceptive, and is made without reasonable care having been taken to ensure its accuracy.
Incorrect
A negligent misrepresentation is any statement which, at the time it is made, is false, misleading or deceptive, and is made without reasonable care having been taken to ensure its accuracy.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.39
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Question 148 of 770
148. Question
1 pointsQID649:Mr Ko was induced by Yellow River Investment Limited
Advertisement to invest in a CIS managed by Yellow River
Investment. However, Mr Ko later discovered that the profit has been overstated. Upon investigation, it appeared that it was a misprint by the printer who printed advertisements for Yellow River Investment.
Who is responsible for the damages payable to Mr Ko?
I. Yellow River Investment Limited
II. The Directors of Yellow River Investment
III. Accounting staff of Yellow River Investment
IV. All staff of Yellow River InvestmentCorrect
This is a case of negligent misrepresentation, in which the data was released without reasonable care having been taken to ensure its accuracy. In this case, the liability to civil remedies is extended to every director of the company which has made a misrepresentation, except to the extent it is proved that a director did not authorise the making of that misrepresentation.
Incorrect
This is a case of negligent misrepresentation, in which the data was released without reasonable care having been taken to ensure its accuracy. In this case, the liability to civil remedies is extended to every director of the company which has made a misrepresentation, except to the extent it is proved that a director did not authorise the making of that misrepresentation.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.39
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Question 149 of 770
149. Question
1 pointsQID1212:The system that covers the 12specified types of regulated activities and the licensing of corporations (“licensed corporations”) to conduct one or more regulated activities subject to any conditions the SFC may wish to impose is known as the:
Correct
The setting up of a single licensing system to cover the ten specified types of RA (see section 7.4 below) and the licensing of corporations (“licensed corporations”) to conduct one or more RAs subject to any conditions the SFC may wish to impose.
Incorrect
The setting up of a single licensing system to cover the ten specified types of RA (see section 7.4 below) and the licensing of corporations (“licensed corporations”) to conduct one or more RAs subject to any conditions the SFC may wish to impose.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.4
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Question 150 of 770
150. Question
1 pointsQID186:Which of the following descriptions about the single license regime is correct?
Correct
Although there are ten types of regulated activity, the SFC will grant to a person only one licence (or registration) which will enable the holder to undertake one or more of the ten regulated activities. This is normally referred to as the “single licence regime”.
Incorrect
Although there are ten types of regulated activity, the SFC will grant to a person only one licence (or registration) which will enable the holder to undertake one or more of the ten regulated activities. This is normally referred to as the “single licence regime”.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.4
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Question 151 of 770
151. Question
1 pointsQID187:Although there are ten types of regulated activity, the SFC will grant to a person only one licence (or registration) which will enable the holder to undertake one or more of the ten regulated activities. This is normally referred to as the
Correct
Although there are ten types of regulated activity, the SFC will grant to a person only one licence (or registration) which will enable the holder to undertake one or more of the ten regulated activities. This is normally referred to as the “single licence regime”.
Incorrect
Although there are ten types of regulated activity, the SFC will grant to a person only one licence (or registration) which will enable the holder to undertake one or more of the ten regulated activities. This is normally referred to as the “single licence regime”.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.4
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Question 152 of 770
152. Question
1 pointsQID1210:Part V of the SFO provides for the implementation of which of the following licensing regime?
Correct
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(a) the setting up of a single licensing system to cover the ten specified types of RA (see section 7.4 below) and the licensing of corporations (“licensed corporations”) to conduct one or more RAs subject to any conditions the SFC may wish to impose.Incorrect
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(a) the setting up of a single licensing system to cover the ten specified types of RA (see section 7.4 below) and the licensing of corporations (“licensed corporations”) to conduct one or more RAs subject to any conditions the SFC may wish to impose.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.4
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Question 153 of 770
153. Question
1 pointsQID188:Which of the following description about the single licence regime is correct?
Correct
Although there are ten types of regulated activity, the SFC will grant to a person only one licence (or registration) which will enable the holder to undertake one or more of the ten regulated activities. This is normally referred to as the “single licence regime”.
Incorrect
Although there are ten types of regulated activity, the SFC will grant to a person only one licence (or registration) which will enable the holder to undertake one or more of the ten regulated activities. This is normally referred to as the “single licence regime”.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.4
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Question 154 of 770
154. Question
1 pointsQID2403:Open-Ended Fund Company is
Correct
Open-Ended Fund Company is a type of CIS.
Incorrect
Open-Ended Fund Company is a type of CIS.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.40
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Question 155 of 770
155. Question
1 pointsQID415:Codes and guidelines issued by the SFC which apply to licensed or registered persons in the Asset Management Industries includes
I. The Conduct Guidelines of Intermediaries
II. The Code of Conduct
III. The Internal Control Guidelines (ICG)
IV. The Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (“GAML”)Correct
Option I included in the question is not a real code, the other three do exist and apply to asset managers.
Incorrect
Option I included in the question is not a real code, the other three do exist and apply to asset managers.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.40
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Question 156 of 770
156. Question
1 pointsQID420:Which of the following codes specifies conduct requirements for SFC licensees involved in the discretionary management of CISs, and supplements the SFC’s codes and requirements for all licensees?
Correct
The FMCC applies to intermediaries conducting discretionary management of CISs (whether or not the CISs are authorised by the SFC) and their representatives (“Fund Managers”).
Incorrect
The FMCC applies to intermediaries conducting discretionary management of CISs (whether or not the CISs are authorised by the SFC) and their representatives (“Fund Managers”).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.40
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Question 157 of 770
157. Question
1 pointsQID652:Which of the following ordinances, codes of conduct and guidelines are specifically concerned with asset management, CIS and MPF products?
I. Fund Manager Code of Conduct (FMCC)
II. Code on Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds (CUTMF)
III. The SFC Code on MPF Product
IV. Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)Correct
All of these Codes and Guidelines regulate and establish the boundaries and standards of conduct for professionals and corporations conducting asset management activities.
Incorrect
All of these Codes and Guidelines regulate and establish the boundaries and standards of conduct for professionals and corporations conducting asset management activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.40
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Question 158 of 770
158. Question
1 pointsQID2642:Can overseas corporate funds re-domicile to Hong Kong as an OFC?
Correct
The provisions that enable an overseas corporate fund to re-domicile to Hong Kong subject to:
(i) meeting all the requirements applicable to a newly established OFC under the SFO and the Securities and Futures (Open-ended Fund Companies) Rules (“OFC
Rules”); and
(ii) various documentary and procedural requirements relating to, for example, proof of incorporation in the overseas jurisdiction and certifications from the directors of the OFC concerning various matters such as solvency etc..Incorrect
The provisions that enable an overseas corporate fund to re-domicile to Hong Kong subject to:
(i) meeting all the requirements applicable to a newly established OFC under the SFO and the Securities and Futures (Open-ended Fund Companies) Rules (“OFC
Rules”); and
(ii) various documentary and procedural requirements relating to, for example, proof of incorporation in the overseas jurisdiction and certifications from the directors of the OFC concerning various matters such as solvency etc..Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.41
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Question 159 of 770
159. Question
1 pointsQID2406:The regulatory powers of the SFC in relation to Open-ended fund company
I. The power to register Open-ended fund company
II. The power to cancel the registration of an Open-ended fund company
III. The power to cancel the registration on application by the Open-ended fund company
IV. The power to register Open-ended mutual fund companyCorrect
The regulatory powers of the SFC in relation to Open-ended fund company
I. The power to register Open-ended fund company
II. The power to cancel the registration of an Open-ended fund company
III. The power to cancel the registration on application by the Open-ended fund companyIncorrect
The regulatory powers of the SFC in relation to Open-ended fund company
I. The power to register Open-ended fund company
II. The power to cancel the registration of an Open-ended fund company
III. The power to cancel the registration on application by the Open-ended fund companyHint
Reference Chapter:1.2.41
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Question 160 of 770
160. Question
1 pointsQID2423:Which of the following statement is correct regarding open-ended fund companies?
Correct
Open-ended fund companies are not a kind of special unit trust, but of limited liability and their share capital is changeable. Only public open-ended fund companies can issue to the public after they are approved by the SFC. Open-ended fund companies are monitored by the SFC.
Incorrect
Open-ended fund companies are not a kind of special unit trust, but of limited liability and their share capital is changeable. Only public open-ended fund companies can issue to the public after they are approved by the SFC. Open-ended fund companies are monitored by the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.41
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Question 161 of 770
161. Question
1 pointsQID87:Under the provisions of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO), which of the following statements relating to rules and codes of conduct are correct?
I. Failure by a licensed person to comply with a material provision of a code of conduct will of itself make the person liable to judicial proceedings.
II. A code of conduct violation shall be admissible as evidence in court proceedings.
III. The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is empowered under the SFO to make rules or codes of conduct.
IV. A breach of a provision in a code of conduct by a licensed person may cast doubts on his fitness and properness to hold the licence.Correct
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines:
i) Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offenses and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken; the SFC may refer serious cases to law enforcement agencies such as the Commercial Crimes Bureau of the Hong Kong Police Force or the Independent Commission Against Corruption (“ICAC”) for investigation
and action.
Ii) The SFC may also apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets or carrying on all or a part of his business if it can make a case to show that it is in the public interest to issue such an order.
Iii) Persons prejudiced by the perpetration of market misconduct may take civil action against the wrongdoer through the courts to obtain redress. The SFO has provisions for the findings of the Market Misconduct Tribunal to be admissible in evidence in private civil
actions.
Iv) Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC can penalize licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the
licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.
V) The SFC has the power to reprimand (privately or publicly), to fine, and to suspend or revoke a license or registration concerning all or any part of the regulated activities specified on the license or certificate of registration.Incorrect
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines:
i) Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offenses and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken; the SFC may refer serious cases to law enforcement agencies such as the Commercial Crimes Bureau of the Hong Kong Police Force or the Independent Commission Against Corruption (“ICAC”) for investigation
and action.
Ii) The SFC may also apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets or carrying on all or a part of his business if it can make a case to show that it is in the public interest to issue such an order.
Iii) Persons prejudiced by the perpetration of market misconduct may take civil action against the wrongdoer through the courts to obtain redress. The SFO has provisions for the findings of the Market Misconduct Tribunal to be admissible in evidence in private civil
actions.
Iv) Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC can penalize licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the
licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.
V) The SFC has the power to reprimand (privately or publicly), to fine, and to suspend or revoke a license or registration concerning all or any part of the regulated activities specified on the license or certificate of registration.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.42
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Question 162 of 770
162. Question
1 pointsQID1330:What is the legal status of the code of conduct issued by the SFC?
Correct
A failure on the part of an intermediary or its representative to comply with the Code of Conduct is not a breach of law and does not by itself constitute an offence under the law.
Incorrect
A failure on the part of an intermediary or its representative to comply with the Code of Conduct is not a breach of law and does not by itself constitute an offence under the law.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
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Question 163 of 770
163. Question
1 pointsQID635:American Industrial and Commercial High Risk Investment Fund is a licensed corporation that engages in Type 9 regulated activity as defined by the Securities and Futures Commission and manages a collective investment scheme (CIS). It has advertised itself on a number of newspaper for the past few weeks and described itself as an authorised CIS. Later on, the management of American Industrial and Commercial High Risk Investment Fund discovered that American Industrial and Commercial High Risk Investment Fund was not authorised. The case is a violation of?
Correct
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.
Incorrect
Advertisements, invitations and documents which contain an invitation to the public (“Advertisements”) in respect of certain matters may only be issued if they are authorised by the SFC, or come under an appropriate exemption. A breach of this provision is an offence.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
-
Question 164 of 770
164. Question
1 pointsQID204:How does the court take into account the codes and guidelines issued by the SFC?
Correct
A failure on the part of an intermediary or its representative to comply with a code of conduct is not a breach of law and does not by itself constitute an offence under the law.
However, it should be noted that breaches of codes of conduct may be taken into account in two important respects:
(b) a court hearing legal proceedings under the SFO shall consider the provisions of the codes if the court considers it relevant to the determination of any question arising in
the proceedings. This gives the codes a degree of legal recognition.Incorrect
A failure on the part of an intermediary or its representative to comply with a code of conduct is not a breach of law and does not by itself constitute an offence under the law.
However, it should be noted that breaches of codes of conduct may be taken into account in two important respects:
(b) a court hearing legal proceedings under the SFO shall consider the provisions of the codes if the court considers it relevant to the determination of any question arising in
the proceedings. This gives the codes a degree of legal recognition.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
-
Question 165 of 770
165. Question
1 pointsQID773:The SFC-issued codes, guidelines and guidance notes
Correct
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.
Incorrect
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
-
Question 166 of 770
166. Question
1 pointsQID83:Which of the following correctly describes the status of SFC’s code of conducts and guidelines?
Correct
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Incorrect
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
-
Question 167 of 770
167. Question
1 pointsQID819:If an intermediary has been convicted of violation of the SFO. How can the SFC sanction such intermediary?
I. Revoke or suspend approval as a responsible officer
II. Fines
III. Reprimand, publicly or privately
IV. Jail sentenceCorrect
SFC cannot jail a person, only the court can.
Incorrect
SFC cannot jail a person, only the court can.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
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Question 168 of 770
168. Question
1 pointsQID85:What is the legal status of codes and guidelines issued by the SFC?
I. Codes of conduct are subsidiary legislation and have the force of law.
II. Guidelines are subsidiary legislation and have the force of law.
III. Codes of conduct do not have the force of law, a breach does not by itself render a person liable to any judicial or other proceedings.
IV. Guidelines do not have the force of law, a breach does not by itself render a person liable to any judicial or other proceedings.Correct
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Incorrect
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
-
Question 169 of 770
169. Question
1 pointsQID86:Which of the following correctly describes the legal status of the Securities and Futures Commission’s codes and guidelines?
Correct
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Incorrect
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
-
Question 170 of 770
170. Question
1 pointsQID1037:Failing to follow SFC-issued codes, guidelines and guidance notes may result in which of the following?
I. Reflect adversely on the fitness and properness of licensed or registered persons to continue to be so licensed or registered.
II. Imprisonment.
III. Civil consequences.
IV. A higher tax bracket.Correct
The SFO also empowers the SFC to issue codes, guidelines and guidance notes. These do not have the force of law and do not override the provisions of any applicable law. However, a
failure to follow the spirit of the codes, guidelines and guidance notes may reflect adversely on the fitness and properness of licensed or registered persons to continue to be so licensed or
registered.Incorrect
The SFO also empowers the SFC to issue codes, guidelines and guidance notes. These do not have the force of law and do not override the provisions of any applicable law. However, a
failure to follow the spirit of the codes, guidelines and guidance notes may reflect adversely on the fitness and properness of licensed or registered persons to continue to be so licensed or
registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
-
Question 171 of 770
171. Question
1 pointsQID123:Which of the following descriptions about subsidiary legislations are correct?
I. Subsidiary legislations are ordinances enacted by the Legco and passed by the Chief Executive of Hong Kong
II. Subsidiary legislations are made by other bodies delegated by LegCo
III. Subsidiary legislations do not possess the force of law and are not enforceable.
IV. Subsidiary legislations possess the force of law and are enforceable.Correct
The laws passed by the Legislative Council of the Hong Kong Special Administrative Region (“LegCo”) are called ordinances. They are enacted by the Chief Executive of the
Hong Kong Special Administrative Region (“HKSAR”) with the advice of LegCo. Some laws are made by a process of delegation from LegCo to other bodies, such delegation usually being done under an ordinance. For example, the Securities and Futures Commission (“SFC”) has extensive powers to make rules under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (“SFO”).Incorrect
The laws passed by the Legislative Council of the Hong Kong Special Administrative Region (“LegCo”) are called ordinances. They are enacted by the Chief Executive of the
Hong Kong Special Administrative Region (“HKSAR”) with the advice of LegCo. Some laws are made by a process of delegation from LegCo to other bodies, such delegation usually being done under an ordinance. For example, the Securities and Futures Commission (“SFC”) has extensive powers to make rules under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (“SFO”).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
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Question 172 of 770
172. Question
1 pointsQID82:Which of the following correctly describe the power of the SFC?
I. Breaches of the subsidiary legislations of the SFO are not criminal offences
II. Breaches of the subsidiary legislations of the SFO are criminal offences
III. The SFC may refer serious cases to law enforcement agencies such as the Commercial Crimes Bureau (“CCB”) of the Hong Kong Police Force or the Independent Commission Against Corruption (“ICAC”) for investigation and action.
IV. The SFC may also apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets, or from carrying on all or a part of his business, if the SFC can make a case to show that it is in the public interest to issue such an order.Correct
Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offences and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken; the SFC may refer serious cases to law enforcement agencies such as the Commercial Crimes Bureau (“CCB”) of the Hong Kong Police Force or the Independent Commission Against Corruption (“ICAC”) for investigation and action.
The SFC may also apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets, or from carrying on all or a part of his business, if it can make a case to show that it is in the public interest to issue such an order.Incorrect
Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offences and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken; the SFC may refer serious cases to law enforcement agencies such as the Commercial Crimes Bureau (“CCB”) of the Hong Kong Police Force or the Independent Commission Against Corruption (“ICAC”) for investigation and action.
The SFC may also apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets, or from carrying on all or a part of his business, if it can make a case to show that it is in the public interest to issue such an order.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
-
Question 173 of 770
173. Question
1 pointsQID3711:Which of the following statements best describes the expansion in the applicability of the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism according to the latest updates?
Correct
The update explicitly expands the applicability of the anti-money laundering and counter-financing of terrorism guidelines to include not just licensed corporations but also virtual asset service providers licensed by the SFC, reflecting a broader regulatory approach towards financial activities in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
The update explicitly expands the applicability of the anti-money laundering and counter-financing of terrorism guidelines to include not just licensed corporations but also virtual asset service providers licensed by the SFC, reflecting a broader regulatory approach towards financial activities in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.43
-
Question 174 of 770
174. Question
1 pointsQID794:Please rank the importance of the following in descending order
Correct
Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offences and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken. A failure on the part of an intermediary or its representative to comply with a code of conduct is not a breach of law and does not by itself constitute an offence under the law.
Incorrect
Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offences and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken. A failure on the part of an intermediary or its representative to comply with a code of conduct is not a breach of law and does not by itself constitute an offence under the law.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.46
-
Question 175 of 770
175. Question
1 pointsQID116:Which of the following products can the SFO scope of Asset Management Business be applicable to ?
I. Unit Trust
II. Mutual Funds
III. Real estate investment scheme management
IV. Structured productsCorrect
Under Schedule 5, SFO, “asset management” means:
(a) real estate investment scheme management, or
(b) securities or futures contracts management.
The SFC authorises CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds, and retirement schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs.Incorrect
Under Schedule 5, SFO, “asset management” means:
(a) real estate investment scheme management, or
(b) securities or futures contracts management.
The SFC authorises CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds, and retirement schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.5
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Question 176 of 770
176. Question
1 pointsQID1214:Asset management of CISs is which type of regulated activity as listed in Schedule 5, SFO?
Correct
Type 9: asset management
Incorrect
Type 9: asset management
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.5
-
Question 177 of 770
177. Question
1 pointsQID180:“Asset Management” is a type of which of the following regulated activity?
Correct
There are ten distinct types of regulated activity (see Schedule 5, SFO):
Type 9: asset management.Incorrect
There are ten distinct types of regulated activity (see Schedule 5, SFO):
Type 9: asset management.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.5
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Question 178 of 770
178. Question
1 pointsQID181:Which of the followings is not a regulated activities as defined by the SFO?
Correct
There are ten distinct types of regulated activity (see Schedule 5, SFO):
Type 3: leveraged foregin exchange trading
Type 9: asset management.
Therefor,The correct number for option C is 9.Incorrect
There are ten distinct types of regulated activity (see Schedule 5, SFO):
Type 3: leveraged foregin exchange trading
Type 9: asset management.
Therefor,The correct number for option C is 9.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.5
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Question 179 of 770
179. Question
1 pointsQID2858:Is a licence required for holding securities for clients?
Correct
A licence is not required for holding securities for clients since its not a regulated activity.
Incorrect
A licence is not required for holding securities for clients since its not a regulated activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.5
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Question 180 of 770
180. Question
1 pointsQID231:Conducting asset management activities without holding a valid SFC licence is a?
Correct
The SFC licenses and supervises intermediaries engaged in asset management (Type 9 regulated activity) as well as others engaged in providing advisory services in the industry (Type 4 and Type 5 regulated activities).
In other words, engaging in asset management requires obtaining a license from the SFC. Engaging in asset management without a license will violate the Securities and Futures Ordinance and is illegal.Incorrect
The SFC licenses and supervises intermediaries engaged in asset management (Type 9 regulated activity) as well as others engaged in providing advisory services in the industry (Type 4 and Type 5 regulated activities).
In other words, engaging in asset management requires obtaining a license from the SFC. Engaging in asset management without a license will violate the Securities and Futures Ordinance and is illegal.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.6
-
Question 181 of 770
181. Question
1 pointsQID341:A person engaging in any activity regulated by the SFO, which includes asset management, will need to be licensed by the
Correct
Any person that wish to conduct a regulated activity must be licensed by the SFC.
Incorrect
Any person that wish to conduct a regulated activity must be licensed by the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.6
-
Question 182 of 770
182. Question
1 pointsQID1218:Which of the following personnel or organizations should be licensed or registered when they are conducting regulated activities classified by the SFO?
I. Frontline staff of the intermediary
II. Responsible officers/ Executive officers of the intermediary
III. The major shareholders of the intermediary
IV. The intermediaryCorrect
Individuals engaged in regulated activities as intermediaries, responsible officers of intermediaries, and intermediaries carrying out regulated activities are required to obtain a license.
Incorrect
Individuals engaged in regulated activities as intermediaries, responsible officers of intermediaries, and intermediaries carrying out regulated activities are required to obtain a license.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.6
-
Question 183 of 770
183. Question
1 pointsQID224:Yellow River Investment Limited is a company which conducts type 9 Regulated activity as defined by the SFO, which of the following entities should be licensed by the SFC?
I. Yellow River Investment Limited
II. The Executive Directors of Yellow River Trading
III. Staff that conducts type 9 activity
IV. All Staff of Yellow River Investment LimitedCorrect
Assets management is type 9 regulated activity; therefore, carrying out this kind of activity requires a licence. An Executive Director of a company must be a responsible officer, and responsible officer needs to be licensed; therefore, the Executive Directors of Yellow River Trading must carry a licence.
Incorrect
Assets management is type 9 regulated activity; therefore, carrying out this kind of activity requires a licence. An Executive Director of a company must be a responsible officer, and responsible officer needs to be licensed; therefore, the Executive Directors of Yellow River Trading must carry a licence.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.6
-
Question 184 of 770
184. Question
1 pointsQID228:If an AFI wishes to conduct regulated activities as defined by the SFO, which of the following entities should it approach for registration?
Correct
AFIs (including banks) that are authorised and regulated by the HKMA and conduct the SFC regulated activities must be registered with the SFC as “Registered Institutions”, such status having been set up as a special category because of the special features of AFIs.
Incorrect
AFIs (including banks) that are authorised and regulated by the HKMA and conduct the SFC regulated activities must be registered with the SFC as “Registered Institutions”, such status having been set up as a special category because of the special features of AFIs.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 185 of 770
185. Question
1 pointsQID809:What is the difference between Licensed Corporations and Registered Institutions?
Correct
AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to
carry out an SFC-RA. As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the latter takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-RAs, including carrying out on-site inspections. The HKMA applies all SFC criteria, such as the “fit and proper” criteria, in supervising AFIs registered with the SFC.Incorrect
AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to
carry out an SFC-RA. As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the latter takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-RAs, including carrying out on-site inspections. The HKMA applies all SFC criteria, such as the “fit and proper” criteria, in supervising AFIs registered with the SFC.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
-
Question 186 of 770
186. Question
1 pointsQID226:Which of the following entities will require registration or licensing when conducting regulated activities as defined by the SFO?
I. Registered Institution
II. Licensed Corporation
III. Money Lender
IV. Trust CompaniesCorrect
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(a) the setting up of a single licensing system to cover the 12 specified types of RA and the licensing of corporations (“licensed corporations”) to conduct one or more RAs subject to any conditions the SFC may wish to impose;
(b) allowing licensed persons conducting some RAs to undertake certain others, e.g. a Type 1 licence or registration covers Type 4, Type 6 and Type 9 RAs as well if the conducting of those activities is wholly incidental to the conducting of the Type 1 RA;
(c.) the registration of AFIs to engage in one or more of the 12 types of RA (“registeredinstitutions”) ; however, an AFI carrying out Type 3 or Type 8 RAis exempted from the registration requirement.
Under the SFO, both Registered Institutions and Licensed Corporations must be registered or licensed to conduct regulated activities. Money Lenders and Trust Companies are not required to be registered or licensed under the SFO unless they conduct regulated activities.Incorrect
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(a) the setting up of a single licensing system to cover the 12 specified types of RA and the licensing of corporations (“licensed corporations”) to conduct one or more RAs subject to any conditions the SFC may wish to impose;
(b) allowing licensed persons conducting some RAs to undertake certain others, e.g. a Type 1 licence or registration covers Type 4, Type 6 and Type 9 RAs as well if the conducting of those activities is wholly incidental to the conducting of the Type 1 RA;
(c.) the registration of AFIs to engage in one or more of the 12 types of RA (“registeredinstitutions”) ; however, an AFI carrying out Type 3 or Type 8 RAis exempted from the registration requirement.
Under the SFO, both Registered Institutions and Licensed Corporations must be registered or licensed to conduct regulated activities. Money Lenders and Trust Companies are not required to be registered or licensed under the SFO unless they conduct regulated activities.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 187 of 770
187. Question
1 pointsQID114:Which intermediaries are regulated and require licensing or registration by the SFC?
I. Independent Financial Advisor
II. Investment Bank
III. Trustee
IV. Insurance AgentCorrect
Corporations or authorised financial institutions engaged in one or more regulated activities must be licensed or registered with the SFC.
Independent financial advisors primarily advise on corporate finance. Investment banks are professional institutions specializing in corporate financing, capital market transactions, and asset management, and therefore, they need to be licensed or registered.Incorrect
Corporations or authorised financial institutions engaged in one or more regulated activities must be licensed or registered with the SFC.
Independent financial advisors primarily advise on corporate finance. Investment banks are professional institutions specializing in corporate financing, capital market transactions, and asset management, and therefore, they need to be licensed or registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 188 of 770
188. Question
1 pointsQID33:British Construction Bank is an AFI regulated by the HKMA. Which of the following entities is responsible for supervising the regulated activities it conducts under the SFO?
Correct
British Construction Bank, as an AFI regulated by the HKMA, must register with the SFC as a registered institution to conduct SFC-regulated activities. These activities are jointly supervised by the HKMA and the SFC to ensure regulatory compliance. To this end, an MOU has been signed between the two regulators, setting out their roles and responsibilities so as to minimize overlaps under the regulatory regime.
Incorrect
British Construction Bank, as an AFI regulated by the HKMA, must register with the SFC as a registered institution to conduct SFC-regulated activities. These activities are jointly supervised by the HKMA and the SFC to ensure regulatory compliance. To this end, an MOU has been signed between the two regulators, setting out their roles and responsibilities so as to minimize overlaps under the regulatory regime.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 189 of 770
189. Question
1 pointsQID32:Which of the following descriptions are correct?
I. All banks in Hong Kong are supervised by the SFC.
II. The SFO applies to some of the activities conducted by registered institutions.
III. A memorandum of understanding (“MOU”) has been signed between the SFC and the HKMA to minimize regulatory overlaps.
IV. The Insurance Authority is the major regulator of the insurance industry in Hong Kong.Correct
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity. Clearly, the HKMA and the SFC must work closely together in relation to any SFC-regulated activities that are carried out by registered institutions. To this end, a memorandum of understanding (“MOU”) has been signed between the two regulators, setting out their roles and responsibilities so as to minimise overlaps under the regulatory regime.
The Insurance Authority is the major regulator of the insurance industry in Hong Kong.Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity. Clearly, the HKMA and the SFC must work closely together in relation to any SFC-regulated activities that are carried out by registered institutions. To this end, a memorandum of understanding (“MOU”) has been signed between the two regulators, setting out their roles and responsibilities so as to minimise overlaps under the regulatory regime.
The Insurance Authority is the major regulator of the insurance industry in Hong Kong.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 190 of 770
190. Question
1 pointsQID25:British Construction Bank is an authorised financial institution (AFI). Due to the rapid development of the securities markets, the company plans to provide securities trading services to its customer. How should the company proceed?
Correct
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity. As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the latter takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including carrying out on-site inspections. The HKMA applies all SFC criteria, such as the “fit and proper” criteria, in supervising AFIs registered with the SFC.
Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity. As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the latter takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including carrying out on-site inspections. The HKMA applies all SFC criteria, such as the “fit and proper” criteria, in supervising AFIs registered with the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 191 of 770
191. Question
1 pointsQID29:Which of the following descriptions about Authorised Financial Institutions (AFI) are true?
I. All Registered Institutions are banks.
II. If the AFIs are conducting the regulated activities as defined by the SFO, the AFIs should register with the SFC.
III. SFC is responsible for licensing AFIs for all businesses
IV. The HKMA may refer cases of suspected malpractice by registered institutions in respect of the SFC-regulated activities to the SFCCorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which
are regulated by the HKMA and include banks (but not only limited to banks), have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity.
The HKMA may refer cases of suspected malpractice by registered institutions in respect of the SFC-regulated activities to the SFC, which may directly review those institutions.Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which
are regulated by the HKMA and include banks (but not only limited to banks), have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity.
The HKMA may refer cases of suspected malpractice by registered institutions in respect of the SFC-regulated activities to the SFC, which may directly review those institutions.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 192 of 770
192. Question
1 pointsQID28:Which entity is the frontline regulator of registered institution that conducts regulated activity as defined by the SFO?
Correct
As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the HKMA takes the leading role in vetting applications for AFIs’ registration and supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including conducting on-site inspections.
Incorrect
As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the HKMA takes the leading role in vetting applications for AFIs’ registration and supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including conducting on-site inspections.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 193 of 770
193. Question
1 pointsQID27:Which of the following descriptions about intermediaries are correct?
I. Licensed Corporations are licensed by and supervised by the SFC.
II. Authorised Financial Institutions must register with the SFC in order to conduct regulated activities.
III. Registered Institutions need to comply with some of the codes and guidelines issued by the SFC.
IV. Registered Institutions need to be registered with the company registry.Correct
The SFC licenses corporations that conduct one or more regulated activities (“licensed corporations”).
AFIs (including banks) authorised and regulated by the HKMA and conducting SFC-regulated activities must be registered with the SFC as “Registered Institutions.” They are jointly regulated by the HKMA and the SFC, with the HKMA being the front-line regulator that will apply all SFC regulatory criteria, including fitness and properness and business
conduct, other than capital adequacy, the handling of client money, and the audit requirements in supervising them.Incorrect
The SFC licenses corporations that conduct one or more regulated activities (“licensed corporations”).
AFIs (including banks) authorised and regulated by the HKMA and conducting SFC-regulated activities must be registered with the SFC as “Registered Institutions.” They are jointly regulated by the HKMA and the SFC, with the HKMA being the front-line regulator that will apply all SFC regulatory criteria, including fitness and properness and business
conduct, other than capital adequacy, the handling of client money, and the audit requirements in supervising them.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 194 of 770
194. Question
1 pointsQID26:British Construction Bank is an authorised financial institution. Amid the downfall of the Hong Kong banking sector, it would like to sell fund products of other companies to clients to generate revenue. Where should British Construction Bank apply for a license?
Correct
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity. As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the latter takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including carrying out
on-site inspections. The HKMA applies all SFC criteria, such as the “fit and proper” criteria, in supervising AFIs registered with the SFC.Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity. As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the latter takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including carrying out
on-site inspections. The HKMA applies all SFC criteria, such as the “fit and proper” criteria, in supervising AFIs registered with the SFC.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 195 of 770
195. Question
1 pointsQID1570:Do AFI’s who are trying to conduct regulated activities need to be licensed or registered?
Correct
The position is slightly different for AFIs (such as banks) which are also regulated by the HKMA. Where an AFI wishes to engage in one or more regulated activities, it needs to be registered with the SFC.
Incorrect
The position is slightly different for AFIs (such as banks) which are also regulated by the HKMA. Where an AFI wishes to engage in one or more regulated activities, it needs to be registered with the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 196 of 770
196. Question
1 pointsQID24:If an AFI plans to conduct regulated activities as defined by the SFO, which of the following entities should it register with ?
Correct
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity.
Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
-
Question 197 of 770
197. Question
1 pointsQID31:Which of the following is the regulator of Authorised Financial
Institutions?Correct
As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the HKMA takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including carrying out on-site inspections. The HKMA applies all SFC criteria, such as the “fit and proper” criteria, in supervising AFIs registered with the SFC.
If AFIs are not registered with the SFC,they will not be regulated by the SFC.Incorrect
As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the HKMA takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including carrying out on-site inspections. The HKMA applies all SFC criteria, such as the “fit and proper” criteria, in supervising AFIs registered with the SFC.
If AFIs are not registered with the SFC,they will not be regulated by the SFC.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 198 of 770
198. Question
1 pointsQID23:British Construction Bank is an AFI regulated by the HKMA. If it plans to conduct Type 9 Regulated Activity (Asset Management) in the near future, how should it proceed?
Correct
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity.
Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
-
Question 199 of 770
199. Question
1 pointsQID1185:Which entity is the frontline regulator(s) of registered institutions that conducts regulated activities?
Correct
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC asregistered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity. As the frontline
regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the latter takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including carrying out onsite inspections.Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”), which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC asregistered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-regulated activity. As the frontline
regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the latter takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including carrying out onsite inspections.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
-
Question 200 of 770
200. Question
1 pointsQID1184:British Construction Bank is and AFI regulated by the HKMA, if it plans to conduct Type 9 Regulated Activity in the near future, how should it proceed?
Correct
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-RA.
Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-RA.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 201 of 770
201. Question
1 pointsQID189:According to the SFO, an intermediary could mean
I. A Registered Institution
II. A Licensed Corporation
III. A Trust Company
IV. An Authorised Financial InstitutionCorrect
Only corporations may become intermediaries. A corporation that obtains a licence will be regarded as a “licensed corporation” unless it is an AFI, in which case it will be regarded as a “registered institution”. Together they are referred to as “intermediaries”.
Incorrect
Only corporations may become intermediaries. A corporation that obtains a licence will be regarded as a “licensed corporation” unless it is an AFI, in which case it will be regarded as a “registered institution”. Together they are referred to as “intermediaries”.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 202 of 770
202. Question
1 pointsQID1158:Who is responsible for the supervision of registered institutions?
Correct
HKMA is the frontline regulator of registered institutions.
Incorrect
HKMA is the frontline regulator of registered institutions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
-
Question 203 of 770
203. Question
1 pointsQID1156:The SFC supervises which of the following institutions?
I. Registered Institutions.
II. Licensed corporation.
III. Recognized exchanges.
IV. Recognized clearing houses.Correct
The functions and powers of the SFC are wide and are set out in s. 5, SFO. The principal functions are to:
(b) supervise, monitor and regulate the activities of:
(i) recognized exchange, recognized clearing houses, recognized exchange controllers and recognized investor compensation companies or persons carrying on RAs; and
(ii) registered institutions that are regulated or to be regulated by the SFC under any relevant provisions.
Registered institutions are regulated collaborate by the SFC and the HKMA.Incorrect
The functions and powers of the SFC are wide and are set out in s. 5, SFO. The principal functions are to:
(b) supervise, monitor and regulate the activities of:
(i) recognized exchange, recognized clearing houses, recognized exchange controllers and recognized investor compensation companies or persons carrying on RAs; and
(ii) registered institutions that are regulated or to be regulated by the SFC under any relevant provisions.
Registered institutions are regulated collaborate by the SFC and the HKMA.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.7
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Question 204 of 770
204. Question
1 pointsQID2379:Which of the following activity belongs to asset management?
I. discretionary management of securities portfolios
II. discretionary management of futures portfolios
III. discretionary management of portfolios of only foreign futures or securities
IV. discretionary management of portfolios of only local real estate propertiesCorrect
Discretionary management of securities or futures portfolios belong to asset management, no matter it composes of foreign futures or securities or not. Real estate properties are not securities or futures. Therefore, discretionary management of this kind of portfolios is not asset management activity. Only specific real estate investment schemes approved by the SFC belongs to the era of asset management.
Incorrect
Discretionary management of securities or futures portfolios belong to asset management, no matter it composes of foreign futures or securities or not. Real estate properties are not securities or futures. Therefore, discretionary management of this kind of portfolios is not asset management activity. Only specific real estate investment schemes approved by the SFC belongs to the era of asset management.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.8
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Question 205 of 770
205. Question
1 pointsQID1226:The definition of Asset Management under the SFO are?
I. Managing a portfolio of securities or futures contracts for another person
II. Managing a CIS that is managed for another person where
the property managed under the scheme consists primarily of immovable property
III. Managing a portfolio of securities or futures contracts for oneself
IV. Managing a CIS that is managed for oneself where the property managed under the scheme consists primarily of immovable propertyCorrect
Under Schedule 5, SFO, “asset management” means:
(a) real estate investment scheme management; or
(b) securities or futures contracts management.
“Real estate investment scheme management”, in relation to a person, means providing a service of operating a CIS for another person by the person.Incorrect
Under Schedule 5, SFO, “asset management” means:
(a) real estate investment scheme management; or
(b) securities or futures contracts management.
“Real estate investment scheme management”, in relation to a person, means providing a service of operating a CIS for another person by the person.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.8
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Question 206 of 770
206. Question
1 pointsQID342:Asset management as defined in the SFO can include
I. Ownership of listed issuers
II. Real estate investment scheme management
III. Private companies management
IV. Securities or futures contracts management.Correct
Under Schedule 5, SFO, “asset management” means:
(a) real estate investment scheme management; or
(b) securities or futures contracts management.Incorrect
Under Schedule 5, SFO, “asset management” means:
(a) real estate investment scheme management; or
(b) securities or futures contracts management.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.8
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Question 207 of 770
207. Question
1 pointsQID343:Which of the following are regarded as “assets” in “asset management” as defined by the SFO?
I. Securities Contract on a Portfolio basis
II. Securities Contract
III. Futures Contracts on a Portfolio basis
IV. Futures ContractCorrect
Under Schedule 5, SFO, “asset management” means: managing someone else’s securities or futures contracts. This means the securities and futures being held are the “assets” being managed.
Incorrect
Under Schedule 5, SFO, “asset management” means: managing someone else’s securities or futures contracts. This means the securities and futures being held are the “assets” being managed.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.8
-
Question 208 of 770
208. Question
1 pointsQID345:Which of the following persons are excluded from the definition of “securities or futures management”?
I. corporations that carry on securities or futures contracts management solely for their wholly owned subsidiaries, their holding companies which hold all their issued shares, or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the latter
II. persons licensed to deal in securities and/or futures contracts
(i.e. licensed for Type 1 and/or Type 2 regulated activity), who carry out securities or futures contracts management as an activity wholly incidental to the licensed activity
III. Solicitors, counsel (barristers), professional accountants and trustees who provide securities or futures contracts management services wholly incidental to their professional practices.
IV. Auditors and professionals who provide securities or futures contracts management services.Correct
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(a) allowing licensed persons conducting some regulated activities to conduct certain others, e.g. a Type 1 licence or registration covers Type 4, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities as well if the conducting of those activities is wholly incidental to the conducting of the Type 1 regulated activity;
(b) professional accountants, solicitors and counsel conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities that are wholly incidental to their professions and also;
(c.) corporations carrying out Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities solely for their wholly owned subsidiaries, holding companies holding all their issued shares or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding company.Incorrect
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(a) allowing licensed persons conducting some regulated activities to conduct certain others, e.g. a Type 1 licence or registration covers Type 4, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities as well if the conducting of those activities is wholly incidental to the conducting of the Type 1 regulated activity;
(b) professional accountants, solicitors and counsel conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities that are wholly incidental to their professions and also;
(c.) corporations carrying out Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities solely for their wholly owned subsidiaries, holding companies holding all their issued shares or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding company.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.9
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Question 209 of 770
209. Question
1 pointsQID349:Under the “Securities and Futures Ordinance”, which of the following licensed or registered persons providing asset management services do not need to obtain an additional license for their regulated activities?
I. Securities margin financing activities conducted by a licensed corporation.
II. Securities trading activities conducted by a registered institution.
III. Futures contract trading activities conducted by a licensed corporation.
IV. Opinions provided by registered personnel on securities trading activities.Correct
Persons licensed or registered to conduct Type 9 regulated activity who carry out Type1, Type 2, Type 4 and Type 5 regulated activities solely for the purposes of their Type 9 regulated activity will not need licensing in respect of those activities.
Incorrect
Persons licensed or registered to conduct Type 9 regulated activity who carry out Type1, Type 2, Type 4 and Type 5 regulated activities solely for the purposes of their Type 9 regulated activity will not need licensing in respect of those activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.9
-
Question 210 of 770
210. Question
1 pointsQID346:Which of the following are not examples of asset management?
I. corporations that carry out securities or futures contracts management solely for their wholly owned subsidiaries, their holding companies which hold all their issued shares, or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the latter
II. corporations that carry out securities or futures contracts management solely for professional investors or sovereign funds with extensive investment experience
III. persons licensed to deal in securities and/or futures contracts (i.e. licensed for Type 1 and/or Type 2 regulated activity), who carry out securities or futures contracts management as an activity wholly incidental to the licensed activity
IV. Solicitors, counsel (barristers), professional accountants and
trustees who provide securities or futures contracts
management services wholly incidental to their professional
practices.Correct
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(a) allowing licensed persons conducting some regulated activities to conduct certain others, e.g. a Type 1 licence or registration covers Type 4, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities as well if the conducting of those activities is wholly incidental to the conducting of the Type 1 regulated activity;
(b) professional accountants, solicitors and counsel conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities that are wholly incidental to their professions and also;
(c.) corporations carrying out Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities solely for their wholly owned subsidiaries, holding companies holding all their issued shares or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding company.Incorrect
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(a) allowing licensed persons conducting some regulated activities to conduct certain others, e.g. a Type 1 licence or registration covers Type 4, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities as well if the conducting of those activities is wholly incidental to the conducting of the Type 1 regulated activity;
(b) professional accountants, solicitors and counsel conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities that are wholly incidental to their professions and also;
(c.) corporations carrying out Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities solely for their wholly owned subsidiaries, holding companies holding all their issued shares or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding company.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.9
-
Question 211 of 770
211. Question
1 pointsQID2738:The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is a/an
Correct
The SFC is an independent statutory body, not a government department.
Incorrect
The SFC is an independent statutory body, not a government department.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.
-
Question 212 of 770
212. Question
1 pointsQID779:Which of the following is NOT a regulatory objective of the SFC?
Correct
The objectives of the SFC in relation to the securities and futures industry, as stated in s. 4, SFO, are to:
(a) maintain and promote the fairness, efficiency, competitiveness, transparency and orderliness of the market;
(b) promote public’s understanding of the industry including its operation and functioning;
© provide protection to the investing public;
(d) minimise crime and misconduct in the market;
€ reduce systemic risks in the industry; and
(f) assist the Financial Secretary in maintaining the financial stability of Hong Kong by taking appropriate steps in relation to the industry.
Providing protection for major shareholders is not one of these objectives.Incorrect
The objectives of the SFC in relation to the securities and futures industry, as stated in s. 4, SFO, are to:
(a) maintain and promote the fairness, efficiency, competitiveness, transparency and orderliness of the market;
(b) promote public’s understanding of the industry including its operation and functioning;
© provide protection to the investing public;
(d) minimise crime and misconduct in the market;
€ reduce systemic risks in the industry; and
(f) assist the Financial Secretary in maintaining the financial stability of Hong Kong by taking appropriate steps in relation to the industry.
Providing protection for major shareholders is not one of these objectives.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.1
-
Question 213 of 770
213. Question
1 pointsQID1151:Which of the following descriptions correctly describes the status of the SFC?
Correct
The SFC is independent, meaning that it is not part of the
Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government.Incorrect
The SFC is independent, meaning that it is not part of the
Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.1
-
Question 214 of 770
214. Question
1 pointsQID732:Which of the following descriptions about the SFC is correct?
Correct
The SFC was created by law under the Securities and Futures Commission Ordinance (now repealed and subsumed in the SFO). It is independent, meaning that it is not part of the
Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government.Incorrect
The SFC was created by law under the Securities and Futures Commission Ordinance (now repealed and subsumed in the SFO). It is independent, meaning that it is not part of the
Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.1
-
Question 215 of 770
215. Question
1 pointsQID742:Which of the following is one of the objectives of creating the SFO?
Correct
The objectives of the SFO are to provide a regulatory framework which:
(a) promotes a fair, orderly and transparent market;
(b) is flexible enough to cope with new products and other innovations, and further advances in technological infrastructure;
(c) is administered by a regulator with sufficient powers and discretion whose operations are transparent and who is accountable to the stakeholders through a system of adequate
checks and balances; and
(d) is on a par with international standards and compatible with international practices, but tailored to meet local needs and circumstances.Incorrect
The objectives of the SFO are to provide a regulatory framework which:
(a) promotes a fair, orderly and transparent market;
(b) is flexible enough to cope with new products and other innovations, and further advances in technological infrastructure;
(c) is administered by a regulator with sufficient powers and discretion whose operations are transparent and who is accountable to the stakeholders through a system of adequate
checks and balances; and
(d) is on a par with international standards and compatible with international practices, but tailored to meet local needs and circumstances.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.1
-
Question 216 of 770
216. Question
1 pointsQID1172:An independent statutory body with full-time members headed by a judge appointed by the Chief Executive of the Hong Kong SAR to hear appeals against the decisions made by the SFC relating to the licensing or registration of intermediaries and certain other matters” describes which of the following regulatory organizations?
Correct
Securities and Futures Appeals Tribunal (“SFAT”) – established by the SFO as an independent statutory body. Chaired by a High Court judge, the SFAT comprises current and former judges appointed by the Chief Executive of the HKSAR and two other members drawn from a panel appointed by the Financial Secretary under delegated authority. The function of the SFAT is to hear appeals against the decisions made by the SFC relating to the licensing or registration of intermediaries and certain other matters.
Incorrect
Securities and Futures Appeals Tribunal (“SFAT”) – established by the SFO as an independent statutory body. Chaired by a High Court judge, the SFAT comprises current and former judges appointed by the Chief Executive of the HKSAR and two other members drawn from a panel appointed by the Financial Secretary under delegated authority. The function of the SFAT is to hear appeals against the decisions made by the SFC relating to the licensing or registration of intermediaries and certain other matters.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.11
-
Question 217 of 770
217. Question
1 pointsQID2908:The organization responsible for reviewing the decisions made by the Investor Compensation Company Limited regarding claims made by investors against the Investor Compensation Fund is:
Correct
Securities and Futures Appeals Tribunal (“SFAT”) is in charge of reviewing the Investor Compensation Company Limited’s determination concerning investors’ claims against the Investor Compensation Fund.
Incorrect
Securities and Futures Appeals Tribunal (“SFAT”) is in charge of reviewing the Investor Compensation Company Limited’s determination concerning investors’ claims against the Investor Compensation Fund.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.11
-
Question 218 of 770
218. Question
1 pointsQID1169:Mr. Wan would like to be licensed as a stock broker but was rejected by the SFC. Where can he file an appeal?
Correct
Securities and Futures Appeals Tribunal (“SFAT”) –established by the SFO as an independent statutory body. Chaired by a High Court judge, the SFAT comprises current and former judges appointed by the Chief Executive of the HKSAR and two other members drawn from a panel appointed by the Financial Secretary under delegated authority. The function of the SFAT is to hear appeals against the decisions made by the
SFC relating to the licensing or registration of intermediaries and certain other matters.Incorrect
Securities and Futures Appeals Tribunal (“SFAT”) –established by the SFO as an independent statutory body. Chaired by a High Court judge, the SFAT comprises current and former judges appointed by the Chief Executive of the HKSAR and two other members drawn from a panel appointed by the Financial Secretary under delegated authority. The function of the SFAT is to hear appeals against the decisions made by the
SFC relating to the licensing or registration of intermediaries and certain other matters.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.11
-
Question 219 of 770
219. Question
1 pointsQID22:Which of the following are duties of the HKMA?
I. Protect the interest of policyholders
II. Maintain currency stability
III. Promote the efficiency and integrity of the financial system
IV. Ensure the safety and stability of the banking systemCorrect
The HKMA manages the Exchange Fund and the HKSAR’s monetary policy and also supervises the banking system, and is required to maintain currency stability, ensure the safety and stability of the banking system, and promote the efficiency, integrity and development of the financial system. However, protecting the interests of policyholders is not a duty of the HKMA.
Incorrect
The HKMA manages the Exchange Fund and the HKSAR’s monetary policy and also supervises the banking system, and is required to maintain currency stability, ensure the safety and stability of the banking system, and promote the efficiency, integrity and development of the financial system. However, protecting the interests of policyholders is not a duty of the HKMA.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.12
-
Question 220 of 770
220. Question
1 pointsQID1180:Which of the following organizations are supervised, monitored and regulated by the HKMA?
I. The Banking Authority
II. Registered Institutions
III. Licensed Corporation
IV. Authorised Financial InstitutionsCorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-RA.
Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-RA.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.12
-
Question 221 of 770
221. Question
1 pointsQID1179:Which of the following entities is responsible for maintaining the safety and stability of the banking system?
Correct
The HKMA is required to maintain currency stability, ensure the safety and stability of the banking system.
Incorrect
The HKMA is required to maintain currency stability, ensure the safety and stability of the banking system.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.12
-
Question 222 of 770
222. Question
1 pointsQID1627:In Hong Kong, the one who clears the options business of the SEHK is
Correct
The SEHK Options Clearing House Limited (“SEOCH”), a wholly owned subsidiary of the SEHK, which clears the options business of the SEHK
Incorrect
The SEHK Options Clearing House Limited (“SEOCH”), a wholly owned subsidiary of the SEHK, which clears the options business of the SEHK
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 223 of 770
223. Question
1 pointsQID108:Which of the following groups of people may have access to the trading systems and facilities of the Hong Kong Futures Exchange (HKFE)?
I. Professional investors
II. Institutional investors
III. Person licensed by or registered with the SFC only
IV. Foreign futures dealerCorrect
Only the SFC’s licensed or registered persons may have access to the trading systems and facilities of HKFE, whether directly or indirectly, in order to carry out the Type 2 regulated activity of dealing in futures contracts.
Incorrect
Only the SFC’s licensed or registered persons may have access to the trading systems and facilities of HKFE, whether directly or indirectly, in order to carry out the Type 2 regulated activity of dealing in futures contracts.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 224 of 770
224. Question
1 pointsQID106:Which of the following entity is responsible for the management of business risk, and the enforcement of their listing, trading, clearing and settlement rules?
Correct
Except in relation to the management of business risk, and the enforcement of their own listing, trading, clearing and settlement rules, HKEX, the exchanges and the clearing houses are not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants, which is carried out by the SFC.
Incorrect
Except in relation to the management of business risk, and the enforcement of their own listing, trading, clearing and settlement rules, HKEX, the exchanges and the clearing houses are not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants, which is carried out by the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 225 of 770
225. Question
1 pointsQID1205:Which of the following is a recognised exchange controller under the SFO?
Correct
HKEX is an exchange controller recognised by the SFC under s. 59, SFO. The SEHK and HKFE are recognised under s. 19, SFO as exchange companies that may operate a stock market and a futures market in Hong Kong respectively. The three clearing houses obtain their recognition under s. 37, SFO. A recognised exchange controller may control a recognised exchange company or clearing house.
Incorrect
HKEX is an exchange controller recognised by the SFC under s. 59, SFO. The SEHK and HKFE are recognised under s. 19, SFO as exchange companies that may operate a stock market and a futures market in Hong Kong respectively. The three clearing houses obtain their recognition under s. 37, SFO. A recognised exchange controller may control a recognised exchange company or clearing house.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 226 of 770
226. Question
1 pointsQID100:Which of the following securities and futures exchanges are currently in Hong Kong?
I. Stock Exchange of Hong Kong
II. Hong Kong Futures Exchange Limited
III. Hong Kong Options Exchange
IV. Hong Kong Bonds ExchangeCorrect
The Stock Exchange of Hong Kong and the Hong Kong Futures Exchange Limited are recognised under Section 19 of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)as exchange companies that may operate a stock and a futures market in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
The Stock Exchange of Hong Kong and the Hong Kong Futures Exchange Limited are recognised under Section 19 of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)as exchange companies that may operate a stock and a futures market in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 227 of 770
227. Question
1 pointsQID99:Which entity is recognized by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) as an exchange controller in Hong Kong?
Correct
HKEX is an exchange controller recognised by the SFC under Section 59 of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO).A recognised exchange controller may control a recognised exchange company or clearing house.
Incorrect
HKEX is an exchange controller recognised by the SFC under Section 59 of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO).A recognised exchange controller may control a recognised exchange company or clearing house.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 228 of 770
228. Question
1 pointsQID1204:Which of the following organizations are recognized clearing houses under the SFO?
I. Hong Kong Securities Clearing Company Limited
II. The SEHK Options Clearing House Limited
III. HKFE Clearing Corporation Limited
IV. The HKEXCorrect
On 6 March 2000, the SEHK, HKFE and the three associated clearing houses Hong Kong Securities Clearing Company Limited, The SEHK Options Clearing House Limited and HKFE Clearing Corporation Limited became wholly owned subsidiaries of HKEX.
Incorrect
On 6 March 2000, the SEHK, HKFE and the three associated clearing houses Hong Kong Securities Clearing Company Limited, The SEHK Options Clearing House Limited and HKFE Clearing Corporation Limited became wholly owned subsidiaries of HKEX.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 229 of 770
229. Question
1 pointsQID1203:How many stock exchanges are there in Hong Kong?
Correct
Only the SEHK is the securities exchange. HKFE is a futures exchange, not securities exchange.
Incorrect
Only the SEHK is the securities exchange. HKFE is a futures exchange, not securities exchange.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 230 of 770
230. Question
1 pointsQID101:Which of the following is an exchange controller in Hong Kong
Correct
HKEX is an exchange controller recognised by the SFC under Section 59 of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO).A recognised exchange controller may control a recognised exchange company or clearing house.
Incorrect
HKEX is an exchange controller recognised by the SFC under Section 59 of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO).A recognised exchange controller may control a recognised exchange company or clearing house.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 231 of 770
231. Question
1 pointsQID1628:The Central Clearing and Settlement System (“CCASS”) is
Correct
The Central Clearing and Settlement System (“CCASS”) is operated by HKSCC for clearing and settlement of securities transactions on the SEHK.
Incorrect
The Central Clearing and Settlement System (“CCASS”) is operated by HKSCC for clearing and settlement of securities transactions on the SEHK.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 232 of 770
232. Question
1 pointsQID102:Which of the following clearing houses are currently in operation in Hong Kong?
I. Hong Kong Securities Clearing Company Limited.
II. The SEHK Options Clearing House Limited.
III. HKFE Clearing Corporation Limited.
IV. Hong Kong Options Clearing Limited.Correct
A “clearing house” recognized by the SFC refers to a company that provides a clearing and settlement service (the only ones being the Hong Kong Securities Clearing Company Limited, The SEHK Options Clearing House Limited, the HKFE Clearing Corporation Limited, and the OTC Clearing Hong Kong Limited).
Incorrect
A “clearing house” recognized by the SFC refers to a company that provides a clearing and settlement service (the only ones being the Hong Kong Securities Clearing Company Limited, The SEHK Options Clearing House Limited, the HKFE Clearing Corporation Limited, and the OTC Clearing Hong Kong Limited).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 233 of 770
233. Question
1 pointsQID1363:How many exchanges and clearing houses are there in Hong Kong?
Correct
There are currently two exchanges and four clearing houses in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
There are currently two exchanges and four clearing houses in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 234 of 770
234. Question
1 pointsQID905:Which of the following correctly describes the HKEX?
Correct
HKEX is not the venue for buying and selling Hong Kong stocks. HKEX is an exchange controller. HKEX’s subsidiary SEHK is the venue for buying and selling Hong Kong stocks. The SFC is responsible for licensing and registration of intermediaries. Stamp duty is a source of income of the government of the HKSAR.
Incorrect
HKEX is not the venue for buying and selling Hong Kong stocks. HKEX is an exchange controller. HKEX’s subsidiary SEHK is the venue for buying and selling Hong Kong stocks. The SFC is responsible for licensing and registration of intermediaries. Stamp duty is a source of income of the government of the HKSAR.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 235 of 770
235. Question
1 pointsQID92:Which of the following descriptions about the HKEX is correct?
I. The HKEX is a listed company on the SEHK.
II. The HKEX is an exchange controller recognised by the SFC.
III. The SEHK, HKFE, and the three associated clearing houses are subsidiaries of the HKEX.
IV. The HKEX is responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants.
English Answer A: I, II, III
English Answer B: I, IV
English Answer C: II, III
English Answer D: II, III, IVCorrect
The HKEX is a listed company on the SEHK. The SEHK, HKFE and the three associated clearing houses are wholly owned subsidiaries of the HKEX. The HKEX is an exchange controller recognised by the SFC. However, the HKEX is not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants; this role is performed by the SFC.
Incorrect
The HKEX is a listed company on the SEHK. The SEHK, HKFE and the three associated clearing houses are wholly owned subsidiaries of the HKEX. The HKEX is an exchange controller recognised by the SFC. However, the HKEX is not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants; this role is performed by the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 236 of 770
236. Question
1 pointsQID2751:Which of the following descriptions about the HKEX is incorrect?
Correct
HKEX is not responsible for front-line prudential regulation of market participants. Such task is the responsibility of the SFC.
Incorrect
HKEX is not responsible for front-line prudential regulation of market participants. Such task is the responsibility of the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 237 of 770
237. Question
1 pointsQID2353:Hong Kong Exchange is
Correct
HKEX is a company listed on the SEHK and is an exchange controller recognised by the SFC under s. 59, SFO. HKEX controls various exchanges and clearing houses in Hong Kong, including the SEHK, HKSCC and The SEHK Options Clearing House Limited (“SEOCH”).
Incorrect
HKEX is a company listed on the SEHK and is an exchange controller recognised by the SFC under s. 59, SFO. HKEX controls various exchanges and clearing houses in Hong Kong, including the SEHK, HKSCC and The SEHK Options Clearing House Limited (“SEOCH”).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 238 of 770
238. Question
1 pointsQID1643:Kaohsiung Futures should notify the HKFE in the occurrence of which of the following incidents?
I. The staff of Kaohsiung Futures has materially breached any laws.
II. The staff of Kaohsiung Futures has violated the rules, codes and guidelines issued by the SFC.
III. Kaohsiung Futures is failing to meet its liabilities and is about to wind-up.
IV. The directors of Kaohsiung Futures has committed an offence under the anti bribery ordinance.Correct
(g) notify HKFE in writing immediately if any one or more of the following occurs:
(i) the discovery of its non-compliance with any of the HKFE Rules, the SFO and its subsidiary legislation, and the conditions imposed on it by HKFE;
(ii) the passing of any resolution, the initiation of any proceedings which may result in the appointment of a receiver (or equivalent) or the winding-up (or equivalent) of an HKFE Participant or any of its shareholders, or the making of any receiving order or arrangement or composition with creditors;
(iv) its becoming aware of any breach of the HKFE Rules or of the SFO and its subsidiary legislation by any other HKFE ParticipantIncorrect
(g) notify HKFE in writing immediately if any one or more of the following occurs:
(i) the discovery of its non-compliance with any of the HKFE Rules, the SFO and its subsidiary legislation, and the conditions imposed on it by HKFE;
(ii) the passing of any resolution, the initiation of any proceedings which may result in the appointment of a receiver (or equivalent) or the winding-up (or equivalent) of an HKFE Participant or any of its shareholders, or the making of any receiving order or arrangement or composition with creditors;
(iv) its becoming aware of any breach of the HKFE Rules or of the SFO and its subsidiary legislation by any other HKFE ParticipantHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 239 of 770
239. Question
1 pointsQID1207:The duties of the HKEX, as the exchange controller, include which of the following?
I. Ensuring an orderly and fair market in securities and futures contracts traded on or through the SEHK and HKFE.
II. Ensuring that risks are managed prudently, to act in the interests of the public, having particular regard to the interests of the investing public.
III. Being responsible for front-line prudential and regulation of market participants.
IV. Not being responsible for front-line prudential and regulation of market participants.Correct
HKEX is responsible for ensuring an orderly and fair market in securities and futures contracts traded on or through the SEHK and HKFE, respectively. HKEX is required to ensure that risks are managed prudently, to act in the interests of the public, having particular regard to the interests of the investing public, and to ensure that where such interests conflict with any other interests the former shall prevail.
Incorrect
HKEX is responsible for ensuring an orderly and fair market in securities and futures contracts traded on or through the SEHK and HKFE, respectively. HKEX is required to ensure that risks are managed prudently, to act in the interests of the public, having particular regard to the interests of the investing public, and to ensure that where such interests conflict with any other interests the former shall prevail.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 240 of 770
240. Question
1 pointsQID733:The HKEX is responsible for regulating which of the following entities and matters?
I. Listed Companies
II. SEHK
III. HKFE
IV. Investors who participate in securities trading.Correct
HKEX is responsible for ensuring an orderly and fair market in securities and futures contracts traded on or through the SEHK and HKFE, respectively. HKEX is required to ensure that risks are managed prudently, to act in the interests of the public, having
particular regard to the interests of the investing public, and to ensure that where such interests conflict with any other interests the former shall prevail. The SEHK is also responsible for administering the Listing Rules.Incorrect
HKEX is responsible for ensuring an orderly and fair market in securities and futures contracts traded on or through the SEHK and HKFE, respectively. HKEX is required to ensure that risks are managed prudently, to act in the interests of the public, having
particular regard to the interests of the investing public, and to ensure that where such interests conflict with any other interests the former shall prevail. The SEHK is also responsible for administering the Listing Rules.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 241 of 770
241. Question
1 pointsQID1206:Which of the following are recognized exchange companies under the SFO?
I. HKEX
II. SEHK
III. HKFE
IV. HKSCCCorrect
HKEX is an exchange controller recognized by the SFC under s. 59, SFO. The SEHK and HKFE are recognized under s. 19, SFO as exchange companies that may operate a stock market and a futures market in Hong Kong respectively.
Incorrect
HKEX is an exchange controller recognized by the SFC under s. 59, SFO. The SEHK and HKFE are recognized under s. 19, SFO as exchange companies that may operate a stock market and a futures market in Hong Kong respectively.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 242 of 770
242. Question
1 pointsQID1505:Which of the following duties are performed by the Mandatory Provident Fund Authority (MPFA)?
I. Registering MPF Schemes
II. Approving Pooled Investment Funds.
III. Overseeing and making rules and guidelines for the administration and management of registered schemes and pooled investment funds
IV. Ongoing monitoring of compliance by MPF products with the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (“MPFSO”)Correct
The functions of the MPFA include:
– registering MPF schemes
– the registration procedures of MPF schemes and approval processes of constituent funds and approved pooled investment
funds;
– ongoing monitoring of compliance of MPF products with the MPFSOIncorrect
The functions of the MPFA include:
– registering MPF schemes
– the registration procedures of MPF schemes and approval processes of constituent funds and approved pooled investment
funds;
– ongoing monitoring of compliance of MPF products with the MPFSOHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.16
-
Question 243 of 770
243. Question
1 pointsQID46:Which of the following is a responsibility of the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA)?
Correct
One of the responsibilities of the MPFA is to approve trustees and regulate the affairs and activities of such approved trustees.
Incorrect
One of the responsibilities of the MPFA is to approve trustees and regulate the affairs and activities of such approved trustees.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.16
-
Question 244 of 770
244. Question
1 pointsQID2508:The regulator of the trustee of an MPF Scheme is?
Correct
The MPFA has responsibility for approving trustees and regulating the affairs and activities of such approved trustees. Therefore, the regulator of the trustee of an MPF Scheme is MPFA.
Incorrect
The MPFA has responsibility for approving trustees and regulating the affairs and activities of such approved trustees. Therefore, the regulator of the trustee of an MPF Scheme is MPFA.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.16
-
Question 245 of 770
245. Question
1 pointsQID50:Which of the following spheres of the MPF schemes has linkage with the SFC?
I. The SFC vets and authorizes MPF products
II. The SFC vets and authorizes marketing materials of investment products of MPF Schemes.
III. The SFC approves Pooled Investment Funds.
IV. The SFC approves trustees of MPF SchemesCorrect
Certain responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the particular responsibilities of the SFC, including vetting and authorising MPF products and related marketing materials.The MPFA, not the SFC, is responsible for approving Pooled Investment Funds and trustees of MPF Schemes. Therefore, options I and II are correct, while options III and IV are not the responsibilities of the SFC in relation to MPF schemes.
Incorrect
Certain responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the particular responsibilities of the SFC, including vetting and authorising MPF products and related marketing materials.The MPFA, not the SFC, is responsible for approving Pooled Investment Funds and trustees of MPF Schemes. Therefore, options I and II are correct, while options III and IV are not the responsibilities of the SFC in relation to MPF schemes.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.16
-
Question 246 of 770
246. Question
1 pointsQID1197:Which of the following are functions and structures of the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA)?
I. It has a chairman.
II. It has a majority of non-executive directors.
III. It approves trustees of MPF schemes and regulates them.
IV. It grants MPF exemptions to Occupational Retirement Schemes (ORSO schemes).Correct
The MPFA has responsibility for:
(f) approving trustees and regulating the affairs and activities of such approved trustees.Incorrect
The MPFA has responsibility for:
(f) approving trustees and regulating the affairs and activities of such approved trustees.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.16
-
Question 247 of 770
247. Question
1 pointsQID1198:The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) is responsible for which of the following matters relating to Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) products?
I. Authorisation of the offering documents for the products.
II. Licensing of investment managers of MPF products.
III. overseeing the administration and management of registered schemes and pooled investment funds;
IV. Registration of employer-sponsored MPF schemes.Correct
The MPFA has responsibility for:
(a) registering MPF schemes;
(c.) overseeing and making rules and guidelines for the administration and management of
registered schemes and pooled investment funds;
(d) ongoing monitoring of compliance by MPF products with the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (“MPFSO”);
€ investigating alleged breaches of the provisions of the MPFSO;
(g) dealing with complaints about MPF products and approved trustees, and referring them to the SFC and other regulators for action where necessary.Incorrect
The MPFA has responsibility for:
(a) registering MPF schemes;
(c.) overseeing and making rules and guidelines for the administration and management of
registered schemes and pooled investment funds;
(d) ongoing monitoring of compliance by MPF products with the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (“MPFSO”);
€ investigating alleged breaches of the provisions of the MPFSO;
(g) dealing with complaints about MPF products and approved trustees, and referring them to the SFC and other regulators for action where necessary.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.16
-
Question 248 of 770
248. Question
1 pointsQID2860:The duties of the Insurance Authority doesn’t include
Correct
The duties of the Insurance Authority includes
1. Regulating and supervising the insurance industry
2. Licensing intermediaries and promote best practice to them.
3. To provide protection to the insurance policy holders.
4. Promote the general stability of the insurance
industry in Hong KongIncorrect
The duties of the Insurance Authority includes
1. Regulating and supervising the insurance industry
2. Licensing intermediaries and promote best practice to them.
3. To provide protection to the insurance policy holders.
4. Promote the general stability of the insurance
industry in Hong KongHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.21
-
Question 249 of 770
249. Question
1 pointsQID34:The Insurance Authority (IA) directly regulates which of the following?
I. Insurers (insurance companies)
II. Auditors of insurers
III. Insurance agents
IV. Insurance-related investment productsCorrect
The IA has powers in relation to the insurance industry similar to those possessed by other
financial regulators in Hong Kong.
The Insurance Authority (IA) directly regulates:
I. Insurers (insurance companies)
II. Insurance agents
III. Insurance related investment productsIncorrect
The IA has powers in relation to the insurance industry similar to those possessed by other
financial regulators in Hong Kong.
The Insurance Authority (IA) directly regulates:
I. Insurers (insurance companies)
II. Insurance agents
III. Insurance related investment productsHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.21
-
Question 250 of 770
250. Question
1 pointsQID39:Which of the following are duties and functions of the Insurance Authority?
I. Maintain a product registry of all insurance products online
II. Regulate and supervise insurance intermediaries directly
III. The promotion of self-regulation by the industry
IV. Since all insurance products are not approved by the SFC, therefore, there are no linkages between the spheres of activity of the Insurance Authority and the SFCCorrect
The Insurance Authority directly supervises the insurance industry and includes the power to issue licences for insurance intermediaries.
Incorrect
The Insurance Authority directly supervises the insurance industry and includes the power to issue licences for insurance intermediaries.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.21
-
Question 251 of 770
251. Question
1 pointsQID1189:Which of the following institutions’ principal functions are to ensure that the interests of policy holders are protected and to promote the general stability of the insurance industry in Hong Kong?
Correct
The principal functions of the Insurance Authority are to ensure that the interests of policy holders are protected and to promote the general stability of the insurance industry in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
The principal functions of the Insurance Authority are to ensure that the interests of policy holders are protected and to promote the general stability of the insurance industry in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.21
-
Question 252 of 770
252. Question
1 pointsQID1190:The Insurance Authority is responsible for:
I. Authorizing and regulating Insurance Companies (Insurer).
II. Regulating Insurance Agents.
III. Regulating Insurance Brokers.
IV. Handling complaints of insurance products.Correct
The Insurance Authority is responsible for:
I. Authorizing and regulating Insurance Companies (Insurer).
II. Regulating Insurance Agents.
III. Regulating Insurance Brokers.
IV. Handling complaints of insurance products.Incorrect
The Insurance Authority is responsible for:
I. Authorizing and regulating Insurance Companies (Insurer).
II. Regulating Insurance Agents.
III. Regulating Insurance Brokers.
IV. Handling complaints of insurance products.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.22
-
Question 253 of 770
253. Question
1 pointsQID1191:Insurance agents should register with which of the following organizations?
Correct
Insurance Agents should apply for a licence with the Insurance Authority.
Incorrect
Insurance Agents should apply for a licence with the Insurance Authority.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.22
-
Question 254 of 770
254. Question
1 pointsQID1573:MPF Intermediaries are regulated by?
Correct
MPFA is the authority responsible for registering MPF intermediaries, issuing guidelines on compliance with statutory requirements, and imposing disciplinary sanctions for non-compliance.
The Monetary Authority (MA), the Insurance Authority (IA) and the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) are given the statutory role of frontline regulators to supervise and investigate MPF intermediaries whose core business is in the banking, insurance and securities sectors respectively.
MPFA relies on these regulators to supervise MPF intermediaries under their respective regimes.
MPF intermediaries who carry on MPF sales and marketing activities as their secondary line of business (in addition to their primary line of business in the banking, insurance and/or securities sectors) will be supervised by the MA, the IA and the SFC respectively.Incorrect
MPFA is the authority responsible for registering MPF intermediaries, issuing guidelines on compliance with statutory requirements, and imposing disciplinary sanctions for non-compliance.
The Monetary Authority (MA), the Insurance Authority (IA) and the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) are given the statutory role of frontline regulators to supervise and investigate MPF intermediaries whose core business is in the banking, insurance and securities sectors respectively.
MPFA relies on these regulators to supervise MPF intermediaries under their respective regimes.
MPF intermediaries who carry on MPF sales and marketing activities as their secondary line of business (in addition to their primary line of business in the banking, insurance and/or securities sectors) will be supervised by the MA, the IA and the SFC respectively.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.25
-
Question 255 of 770
255. Question
1 pointsQID1182:The British Construction bank is a licensed bank under the HKMA and plans to provide securities trading services for its clients, it should:
Correct
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-RA.
Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-RA.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.26
-
Question 256 of 770
256. Question
1 pointsQID1183:If an authorised financial institution would like to conduct regulated actives under the SFO, which organization should it register with?
Correct
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-RA.
Incorrect
Under the SFO and the Banking Ordinance, AFIs, which are regulated by the HKMA and include banks, have to be registered with the SFC as registered institutions if they wish to carry out an SFC-RA.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.26
-
Question 257 of 770
257. Question
1 pointsQID30:Which of the following is the regulator of Registered Institutions?
Correct
As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the HKMA takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including carrying out
on-site inspections. The HKMA applies all SFC criteria, such as the “fit and proper” criteria, in supervising AFIs registered with the SFC.Incorrect
As the frontline regulator of AFIs is the HKMA, the HKMA takes the leading role in vetting applications for such registration and in supervising their SFC-regulated activities, including carrying out
on-site inspections. The HKMA applies all SFC criteria, such as the “fit and proper” criteria, in supervising AFIs registered with the SFC.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.26
-
Question 258 of 770
258. Question
1 pointsQID1201:Which of the following responsibilities between the SFC and the MPF schemes are interlinked?
I. Vetting and authorising MPF products and related marketing materials.
II. Registering and approving investment managers.
III. Investigating alleged breaches of the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and any relevant ordinances, and taking enforcement action.
IV. Regulate the sales process of sales representatives selling MPF schemes.Correct
Certain responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the particular responsibilities of the SFC:
(a) vetting and authorizing MPF products and related marketing materials in accordance with the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and the relevant ordinances (including the SFO);
(b) registering and approving investment managers and continued monitoring of their conduct in the investment management of MPF products;
(d) investigating alleged breaches of the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and any relevant ordinances, and taking enforcement action.Incorrect
Certain responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the particular responsibilities of the SFC:
(a) vetting and authorizing MPF products and related marketing materials in accordance with the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and the relevant ordinances (including the SFO);
(b) registering and approving investment managers and continued monitoring of their conduct in the investment management of MPF products;
(d) investigating alleged breaches of the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and any relevant ordinances, and taking enforcement action.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.27
-
Question 259 of 770
259. Question
1 pointsQID52:Which of the following institutions is responsible for investigations into breaches of the SFC Code on MPF Products?
Correct
SFC is responsible for investigating alleged breaches of the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and any relevant ordinances, and taking enforcement action
Incorrect
SFC is responsible for investigating alleged breaches of the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and any relevant ordinances, and taking enforcement action
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.27
-
Question 260 of 770
260. Question
1 pointsQID1199:Mr. Ko is an investment manager; he wishes to manage a fund under the Kaohsiung Bank Group’s MPF schemes. He needs to be licensed by which of the following?
Correct
Certain responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the particular responsibilities of the SFC:
(b) registering and approving investment managers and continued monitoring of their conduct in the investment management of MPF products.Incorrect
Certain responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the particular responsibilities of the SFC:
(b) registering and approving investment managers and continued monitoring of their conduct in the investment management of MPF products.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.27
-
Question 261 of 770
261. Question
1 pointsQID1196:The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority is responsible for:
I. registering provident fund schemes.
II. approving unit trust funds.
III. overseeing and making rules and guidelines for the administration and management of registered schemes and pooled investment funds.
IV. ongoing monitoring of MPF products’ compliance with the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance.Correct
The MPFA has responsibility for:
(a) registering MPF schemes;
(c.) overseeing and making rules and guidelines for the administration and management of registered schemes and pooled investment funds;
(d) ongoing monitoring of compliance by MPF products with the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (“MPFSO”).Incorrect
The MPFA has responsibility for:
(a) registering MPF schemes;
(c.) overseeing and making rules and guidelines for the administration and management of registered schemes and pooled investment funds;
(d) ongoing monitoring of compliance by MPF products with the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (“MPFSO”).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.27
-
Question 262 of 770
262. Question
1 pointsQID1200:Which of the following are SFC’s duties towards the MPF Schemes?
I. Vetting and authorising MPF products and related marketing materials in accordance with the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and the relevant ordinances (including the SFO).
II. Registering and approving investment managers and continued monitoring of their conduct in the investment management of MPF products.
III. Investigating alleged breaches of the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and any relevant ordinances, and taking enforcement action.
IV. Supervising the selling process of the sales representatives selling MPF schemes.Correct
Certain responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the particular responsibilities of the SFC:
(a) vetting and authorizing MPF products and related marketing materials in accordance with the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and the relevant ordinances (including the SFO);
(b) registering and approving investment managers and continued monitoring of their conduct in the investment management of MPF products;
(d) investigating alleged breaches of the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and any relevant ordinances, and taking enforcement action.Incorrect
Certain responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the particular responsibilities of the SFC:
(a) vetting and authorizing MPF products and related marketing materials in accordance with the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and the relevant ordinances (including the SFO);
(b) registering and approving investment managers and continued monitoring of their conduct in the investment management of MPF products;
(d) investigating alleged breaches of the provisions of the SFC Code on MPF Products and any relevant ordinances, and taking enforcement action.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.27
-
Question 263 of 770
263. Question
1 pointsQID1186:The HKMA may refer cases of suspected malpractices by registered institutions in respect of the SFC-regulated activities to the:
Correct
The HKMA may refer cases of suspected malpractice by registered institutions in respect of the SFC-RAs to the SFC, which may directly review those institutions.
Incorrect
The HKMA may refer cases of suspected malpractice by registered institutions in respect of the SFC-RAs to the SFC, which may directly review those institutions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.27
-
Question 264 of 770
264. Question
1 pointsQID514:Which of the following agencies are the 3 major clearing houses in Hong Kong?
I. Hong Kong Securities Clearing Company Limited (HKSCC).
II. The SEHK Options Clearing House Limited (SEOCH).
III. HKFE Clearing Corporation Limited (HKCC).
IV. Hong Kong OTC Clear Limited.Correct
Upon merger and demutualisation, the two exchanges and three
clearing houses (HKSCC, SEOCH and HKCC) became the wholly owned subsidiaries of HKEX and “participantship” of the exchanges and clearing houses was introduced. They became the three major clearing houses in Hong Kong.Incorrect
Upon merger and demutualisation, the two exchanges and three
clearing houses (HKSCC, SEOCH and HKCC) became the wholly owned subsidiaries of HKEX and “participantship” of the exchanges and clearing houses was introduced. They became the three major clearing houses in Hong Kong.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.4
-
Question 265 of 770
265. Question
1 pointsQID2786:Which of the following is not a product/material approved by the SFC?
Correct
The counterparty of OTC derivatives must be institutional professional investors. The general principle of the SFC’s approval is that all products that are only allowed to be traded by professional investors do not need to be approved.
Incorrect
The counterparty of OTC derivatives must be institutional professional investors. The general principle of the SFC’s approval is that all products that are only allowed to be traded by professional investors do not need to be approved.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.5
-
Question 266 of 770
266. Question
1 pointsQID1504:Which department/division deals with the authorization of CISs including the granting of waivers from the CUTMF?
Correct
Investment Products Division:
(a) develops and implements codes and guidelines for the authorisation and registration of investment products so as to facilitate market growth and product innovation whilst ensuring appropriate investor protection;
(b) regulates and authorises investment products that are offered to the public and subject to the SFO;
(c) registers and regulates open-ended fund companies (“OFCs”);
(d) monitors disclosures and ongoing compliance of authorised investment products and registered OFCs; and
€ formulates policies concerning the regulation of asset management.Incorrect
Investment Products Division:
(a) develops and implements codes and guidelines for the authorisation and registration of investment products so as to facilitate market growth and product innovation whilst ensuring appropriate investor protection;
(b) regulates and authorises investment products that are offered to the public and subject to the SFO;
(c) registers and regulates open-ended fund companies (“OFCs”);
(d) monitors disclosures and ongoing compliance of authorised investment products and registered OFCs; and
€ formulates policies concerning the regulation of asset management.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.5
-
Question 267 of 770
267. Question
1 pointsQID2803:The objectives of the SFO are to provide a regulatory framework with which of the following characteristics?
I. Promotes a fair, orderly and transparent market.
II. Is flexible enough to cope with new products and other innovations, and further advances in technological infrastructure.
III. Is administered by a regulator with sufficient powers and discretion whose operations are transparent and directly under the government.
IV. Is a system that can satisfy PRC mainland legal standards, being compatible with PRC mainland laws and practices and meet local needs.Correct
The objectives of the SFO are to provide a regulatory framework which:
(a) promotes a fair, orderly and transparent market;
(b) is flexible enough to cope with new products and other innovations, and further advances in technological infrastructure;
(c) is administered by a regulator with sufficient powers and discretion whose operations are transparent and who is accountable to the stakeholders through a system of adequate
checks and balances.Incorrect
The objectives of the SFO are to provide a regulatory framework which:
(a) promotes a fair, orderly and transparent market;
(b) is flexible enough to cope with new products and other innovations, and further advances in technological infrastructure;
(c) is administered by a regulator with sufficient powers and discretion whose operations are transparent and who is accountable to the stakeholders through a system of adequate
checks and balances.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 268 of 770
268. Question
1 pointsQID79:Which department/division of the SFC supervises the business conduct of licensed corporations and individual licensees on an ongoing basis?
Correct
Intermediaries Supervision Department:
(a) supervises the business conduct of licensed corporations and individual licensees on an ongoing basis by conducting on-site reviews and off-site monitoring;
(b) monitors the financial integrity of licensed corporations;
(c) maintains communication with intermediaries and the industry on relevant policy and regulatory issues, and
(d) processes applications for approval, waiver, or modification of various requirements relating to intermediaries.Incorrect
Intermediaries Supervision Department:
(a) supervises the business conduct of licensed corporations and individual licensees on an ongoing basis by conducting on-site reviews and off-site monitoring;
(b) monitors the financial integrity of licensed corporations;
(c) maintains communication with intermediaries and the industry on relevant policy and regulatory issues, and
(d) processes applications for approval, waiver, or modification of various requirements relating to intermediaries.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 269 of 770
269. Question
1 pointsQID76:Which of the following division of the SFC is responsible for the authorisation of CISs?
Correct
The Investment Products Division regulates and authorises investment products offered to the public and subject to the SFO and is responsible for authorizing CISs to be marketed to the public.
Incorrect
The Investment Products Division regulates and authorises investment products offered to the public and subject to the SFO and is responsible for authorizing CISs to be marketed to the public.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 270 of 770
270. Question
1 pointsQID2834:Which department of the SFC is responsible for monitoring listed companies’ announcements and identifying misconduct or non-compliance?
Correct
The SFC’s Corporate Finance Division monitors listed companies’ announcements and identifies misconduct or non-compliance by listed companies.
Incorrect
The SFC’s Corporate Finance Division monitors listed companies’ announcements and identifies misconduct or non-compliance by listed companies.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 271 of 770
271. Question
1 pointsQID78:Which department/division of the SFC licenses asset management corporation and their staff and approves responsible officers?
Correct
Licensing Department licenses corporations and individuals seeking to conduct business in Hong Kong in the regulated activities for which a licence is required under the SFO.
Incorrect
Licensing Department licenses corporations and individuals seeking to conduct business in Hong Kong in the regulated activities for which a licence is required under the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 272 of 770
272. Question
1 pointsQID104:Which of the following entity is responsible for monitoring the exchanges and clearing houses in Hong Kong?
Correct
The SFC supervises and monitors the activities of HKEX, the exchange companies and the clearing houses, approves their rules and amendments to the rules, approves the fees they charge, and administers and enforces the applicable legislation. It also carries out regular reviews of these activities.
Incorrect
The SFC supervises and monitors the activities of HKEX, the exchange companies and the clearing houses, approves their rules and amendments to the rules, approves the fees they charge, and administers and enforces the applicable legislation. It also carries out regular reviews of these activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 273 of 770
273. Question
1 pointsQID1177:SFC’s Intermediaries Supervision Department is responsible for:
Correct
Intermediaries Supervision Department:
(a) supervises the business conduct of licensed corporations and individual licensees on an ongoing basis, by conducting on-site inspection and off-site monitoring.Incorrect
Intermediaries Supervision Department:
(a) supervises the business conduct of licensed corporations and individual licensees on an ongoing basis, by conducting on-site inspection and off-site monitoring.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 274 of 770
274. Question
1 pointsQID1155:Which of the following are the main functions of the SFC?
I. Responsible for front-line supervision.
II. Responsible for regulating the discipline of the exchanges.
III. Oversees other securities intermediaries.
IV. Monitor a variety of approved products.Correct
The functions and powers of the SFC are wide and are set out in s. 5, SFO. The principal functions are to:
(b) supervise, monitor and regulate the activities of:
(i) recognized exchange, recognized clearing houses, recognized exchange controllers and recognized investor compensation companies or persons carrying on RAs; and
(ii) registered institutions that are regulated or to be regulated by the SFC under any relevant provisions.Incorrect
The functions and powers of the SFC are wide and are set out in s. 5, SFO. The principal functions are to:
(b) supervise, monitor and regulate the activities of:
(i) recognized exchange, recognized clearing houses, recognized exchange controllers and recognized investor compensation companies or persons carrying on RAs; and
(ii) registered institutions that are regulated or to be regulated by the SFC under any relevant provisions.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 275 of 770
275. Question
1 pointsQID77:The SFC assigns the responsibility of setting up the competence tests for licensed persons and potential licensed persons according to the Fit and proper guidelines to which of the following organizations?
Correct
The functions of the Licensing Department include licensing corporations and individuals seeking to conduct regulated activities, issuing codes and guidelines concerning the competence and suitability to remain licensed, monitoring the ongoing compliance of licensing requirements, maintaining a public register of licensed persons and registered institutions, and initiating policies on licensing issues. Therefore, the setting up of the competency test is the responsibility of the Licensing Department of the SFC.
Incorrect
The functions of the Licensing Department include licensing corporations and individuals seeking to conduct regulated activities, issuing codes and guidelines concerning the competence and suitability to remain licensed, monitoring the ongoing compliance of licensing requirements, maintaining a public register of licensed persons and registered institutions, and initiating policies on licensing issues. Therefore, the setting up of the competency test is the responsibility of the Licensing Department of the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 276 of 770
276. Question
1 pointsQID1160:Which of the following are operating divisions of the SFC?
I. Corporate Finance Division
II. Enforcement Division
III. Investment Product Division
IV. Supervision of Markets DivisionCorrect
The Operating divisions are
1. Corporate Finance Division
2. Enforcement Division
3. Investment Products Division
4. Supervision of Markets Division
5. Intermediaries DivisionIncorrect
The Operating divisions are
1. Corporate Finance Division
2. Enforcement Division
3. Investment Products Division
4. Supervision of Markets Division
5. Intermediaries DivisionHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 277 of 770
277. Question
1 pointsQID2721:The main functions of the SFC include:
I. Empowering self-regulatory bodies and professional bodies to form committees
II. Regulating and monitoring intermediaries who engage in regulated activities
III. Supervising and monitoring exchanges, clearing houses and exchange controllers
IV. Promoting investor education and encouraging investors to understand investment products and make informed decisions
Correct
Authorizing self-regulatory bodies and professional bodies to set up committees is not the main function of the SFC.
Incorrect
Authorizing self-regulatory bodies and professional bodies to set up committees is not the main function of the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 278 of 770
278. Question
1 pointsQID1616:The Investor Compensation Fund (“ICF”) covers claims from clients of which of the following intermediaries?
I. Intermediaries conducting type 1 regulated activity
II. Intermediaries conducting type 2 regulated activity
III. Exchange participants
IV. Intermediaries conducting type 8 regulated activityCorrect
The Investor Compensation Fund (“ICF”) is a single investor compensation fund which covers
claims from clients of a broad range of intermediaries, whether they are exchange participants or not. These intermediaries include those:
(a) licensed or registered for dealing in securities or futures contracts; and
(b) licensed for securities margin financing (Type 8 RA).Incorrect
The Investor Compensation Fund (“ICF”) is a single investor compensation fund which covers
claims from clients of a broad range of intermediaries, whether they are exchange participants or not. These intermediaries include those:
(a) licensed or registered for dealing in securities or futures contracts; and
(b) licensed for securities margin financing (Type 8 RA).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 279 of 770
279. Question
1 pointsQID90:In which of the following circumstances will the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) investigate a licensed corporation?
I. When the licensed corporation’s operations deteriorate and it is unable to pay the licence fee.
II. When clients lodge complaints against the licensed corporation for failing to inform them about the whereabouts of deposited funds upon their requests.
III. When an informant provides information that the licensed corporation is mismanaged, growth has slowed, and it is contemplating a sale.
IV. When an informant provides information that the licensed corporation is mismanaged and is incurring losses.Correct
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes, and guidelines.
Failure to pay license fees on time is a violation of the Securities and Futures (Fees) Rules;
Failure to tell clients where their money is going is a breach of the Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules.
So options I and II are correct.Incorrect
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes, and guidelines.
Failure to pay license fees on time is a violation of the Securities and Futures (Fees) Rules;
Failure to tell clients where their money is going is a breach of the Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules.
So options I and II are correct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 280 of 770
280. Question
1 pointsQID2761:Which of the following statements about the SFC is correct?
Correct
The SFC supervise, monitor and regulate the activities of:
(i) recognised exchange, clearing houses, exchange controllers and investor compensation companies or persons carrying on regulated activities; and
(ii) registered institutions that are regulated or to be regulated by the SFC under any relevant provisions.
So, the SFC is responsible for the regulation of all securities and futures activities, including the regulated activities carried out by banks. It is also responsible for regulating the exchange controller.Incorrect
The SFC supervise, monitor and regulate the activities of:
(i) recognised exchange, clearing houses, exchange controllers and investor compensation companies or persons carrying on regulated activities; and
(ii) registered institutions that are regulated or to be regulated by the SFC under any relevant provisions.
So, the SFC is responsible for the regulation of all securities and futures activities, including the regulated activities carried out by banks. It is also responsible for regulating the exchange controller.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 281 of 770
281. Question
1 pointsQID73:Which of the following are functions of the Corporate Finance Division of the SFC?
I. Administer the Codes on Takeovers and Mergers and Share Buy-backs and regulates takeovers, mergers and share buy- backs of applicable companies
II. Provide advice on corporate restructuring to listed company in
Hong Kong
III. Supervise the listing-related activities of The Stock Exchange
of Hong Kong Limited (“SEHK”)
IV. Provide advice on takeover activities to minority shareholdersCorrect
The functions of Corporate Finance Division include:
vetting listing applications together with The SEHK;
monitoring listed companies’ announcements to identify misconduct or irregularities;
administering the Codes on Takeovers and Mergers and Share Buy-backs;
supervising the listing-related activities of the SEHK;
reviewing and recommends changes to the Listing Rules;
reviewing and authorises prospectuses and marketing materials for unlisted shares or debentures; and
interveneing at an early stage in serious cases of suspected misconduct in listing applications and corporate transactions by the powers under the Securities and Futures (Stock Market Listing) Rules.
The Corporate Finance Division does not provide any advice on the operations of an individual companie.Incorrect
The functions of Corporate Finance Division include:
vetting listing applications together with The SEHK;
monitoring listed companies’ announcements to identify misconduct or irregularities;
administering the Codes on Takeovers and Mergers and Share Buy-backs;
supervising the listing-related activities of the SEHK;
reviewing and recommends changes to the Listing Rules;
reviewing and authorises prospectuses and marketing materials for unlisted shares or debentures; and
interveneing at an early stage in serious cases of suspected misconduct in listing applications and corporate transactions by the powers under the Securities and Futures (Stock Market Listing) Rules.
The Corporate Finance Division does not provide any advice on the operations of an individual companie.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 282 of 770
282. Question
1 pointsQID171:The objectives of the SFO are to provide a regulatory framework with which of the following characteristics?
I. Promotes a fair, orderly and transparent market.
II. Is flexible enough to cope with new products and other innovations, and further advances in technological infrastructure.
III. Is administered by a regulator with sufficient powers and discretion whose operations are transparent and who is accountable to the stakeholders through a system of adequate checks and balance.
IV. Is a system that can satisfy PRC mainland legal standards, being compatible with PRC mainland laws and practices and meet local needs.Correct
The objectives of the SFO are to provide a regulatory framework which:
(a) promotes a fair, orderly and transparent market;
(b) is flexible enough to cope with new products and other innovations, and further advances in technological infrastructure;
(c) is administered by a regulator with sufficient powers and discretion whose operations are transparent and who is accountable to the stakeholders through a system of adequate
checks and balances.Incorrect
The objectives of the SFO are to provide a regulatory framework which:
(a) promotes a fair, orderly and transparent market;
(b) is flexible enough to cope with new products and other innovations, and further advances in technological infrastructure;
(c) is administered by a regulator with sufficient powers and discretion whose operations are transparent and who is accountable to the stakeholders through a system of adequate
checks and balances.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 283 of 770
283. Question
1 pointsQID1176:Which of the following are duties of the SFC’s Licensing Department:
I. Licenses corporations and individuals seeking to conduct business in Hong Kong in the regulated activities for which a licence is required under the SFO.
II. Issues codes and guidelines concerning the competence and suitability of corporations and individuals to remain licensed.
III. Deals with issues relating to the continuing suitability of licensed corporations and individuals to be licensed.
IV. Monitors licensees by means of annual returns.Correct
Licensing Department:
(a) licenses corporations and individuals seeking to conduct RAs as defined under the SFO;
(b) issues codes and guidelines concerning the competence and suitability of corporations and individuals to remain licensed;
(c) monitors the on-going compliance of licensing requirements by licensees, substantial shareholders of listed corporations and directors of licensed corporations and substantial shareholdersIncorrect
Licensing Department:
(a) licenses corporations and individuals seeking to conduct RAs as defined under the SFO;
(b) issues codes and guidelines concerning the competence and suitability of corporations and individuals to remain licensed;
(c) monitors the on-going compliance of licensing requirements by licensees, substantial shareholders of listed corporations and directors of licensed corporations and substantial shareholdersHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 284 of 770
284. Question
1 pointsQID2846:Which department of the SFC is responsible for monitoring transactions in the stock market?
Correct
The Enforcement Division is responsible for monitoring stock market transactions. The Supervision of Markets Division mainly monitors and regulates the exchange itself, not the transactions that take place in the market.
Incorrect
The Enforcement Division is responsible for monitoring stock market transactions. The Supervision of Markets Division mainly monitors and regulates the exchange itself, not the transactions that take place in the market.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 285 of 770
285. Question
1 pointsQID2816:Which of the following is not a function of the SFC?
Correct
Enforcement of the Listing Rules is the job of the SEHK.
Incorrect
Enforcement of the Listing Rules is the job of the SEHK.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 286 of 770
286. Question
1 pointsQID1173:What are the major duties of the Corporate Finance Division?
I. regulates takeovers and mergers of public companies and share repurchases.
II. administers securities and company legislation applicable to listed and unlisted companies.
III. supervises the listing-related activities of the SEHK.
IV. reviews and recommends changes to the listing rules.Correct
Corporate Finance Division:
(a) vets listing applications together with the SEHK;
(b) monitors listed companies’ announcements to identify misconduct or irregularities;
(c) administers the Codes;
(d) supervises the listing-related activities of the SEHK;
(e) reviews and recommends changes to the Rules Governing the Listing of Securities on The Stock Exchange of Hong Kong Limited (“Listing Rules”);
(f) reviews and authorises prospectuses and marketing materials for unlisted shares or debentures; and
(g) intervenes at an early stage in serious cases of suspected misconduct in listing applications and corporate transactions by the powers under the Securities and Futures (Stock Market Listing) Rules.Incorrect
Corporate Finance Division:
(a) vets listing applications together with the SEHK;
(b) monitors listed companies’ announcements to identify misconduct or irregularities;
(c) administers the Codes;
(d) supervises the listing-related activities of the SEHK;
(e) reviews and recommends changes to the Rules Governing the Listing of Securities on The Stock Exchange of Hong Kong Limited (“Listing Rules”);
(f) reviews and authorises prospectuses and marketing materials for unlisted shares or debentures; and
(g) intervenes at an early stage in serious cases of suspected misconduct in listing applications and corporate transactions by the powers under the Securities and Futures (Stock Market Listing) Rules.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 287 of 770
287. Question
1 pointsQID1175:Which of the following departments of the SFC regulates exchanges and clearing houses?
Correct
Supervision of Markets Division:
(a) supervises and monitors activities of the exchange controller, exchanges and clearing
houses;Incorrect
Supervision of Markets Division:
(a) supervises and monitors activities of the exchange controller, exchanges and clearing
houses;Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 288 of 770
288. Question
1 pointsQID1174:Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Enforcement Division?
Correct
Enforcement Division:
(a) monitors the trading of Hong Kong’s stock and derivative markets and inquires into irregularities;
(b) has the power to discipline dishonest regulated intermediaries who are in breach of SFC’s rules;
(c) inspects the books and records of listed companies if impropriety is suspected, which may involve directors, officers or substantial shareholders etc.; and
(d) cooperates with domestic and overseas law enforcement agencies and regulatory bodies in investigations if required.Incorrect
Enforcement Division:
(a) monitors the trading of Hong Kong’s stock and derivative markets and inquires into irregularities;
(b) has the power to discipline dishonest regulated intermediaries who are in breach of SFC’s rules;
(c) inspects the books and records of listed companies if impropriety is suspected, which may involve directors, officers or substantial shareholders etc.; and
(d) cooperates with domestic and overseas law enforcement agencies and regulatory bodies in investigations if required.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 289 of 770
289. Question
1 pointsQID1162:The Advisory Committee is responsible for which of the following matters?
Correct
The Advisory Committee is responsible for advising the SFC on policy matters concerning its regulatory objectives and functions. It has no executive powers and does not police the SFC in any way.
Incorrect
The Advisory Committee is responsible for advising the SFC on policy matters concerning its regulatory objectives and functions. It has no executive powers and does not police the SFC in any way.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.8
-
Question 290 of 770
290. Question
1 pointsQID969:Does the Advisory Committee of the SFC have any executive powers?
Correct
The Advisory Committee of the SFC has no executive powers, it only advise the SFC on policy matters concerning its regulatory objectives and functions.
Incorrect
The Advisory Committee of the SFC has no executive powers, it only advise the SFC on policy matters concerning its regulatory objectives and functions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.8
-
Question 291 of 770
291. Question
1 pointsQID1168:Which of the following regulatory committees is in charge of giving advice on “matters relating to the SFC Handbook for Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds, Investment-Linked Assurance Schemes and Unlisted Structured Investment Products”?
Correct
Products Advisory Committee – advises on matters relating to the SFC Handbook for Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds, Investment-Linked Assurance Schemes and Unlisted Structured Investment Products, the SFC Code on MPF Products and the Code on Pooled Retirement Funds, including overall market environment, industry practices and novel product features.
Incorrect
Products Advisory Committee – advises on matters relating to the SFC Handbook for Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds, Investment-Linked Assurance Schemes and Unlisted Structured Investment Products, the SFC Code on MPF Products and the Code on Pooled Retirement Funds, including overall market environment, industry practices and novel product features.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.8
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Question 292 of 770
292. Question
1 pointsQID42:Which of the following descriptions of the Product Advisory Committee are true?
I. This committee is part of the SFC
II. This committee is not part of the SFC
III. The committee is responsible for authorizing products in the SFC Handbook for Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds, Investment-Linked Assurance Schemes, and Unlisted Structured Investment Products
IV. The Committee advises on matters relating to the SFC Handbook for Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds, Investment-Linked Assurance Schemes, and Unlisted Structured Investment Products.Correct
The Product Advisory Committee was established by the SFC. It mainly advises on matters relating to the SFC Handbook for Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds, Investment-Linked Assurance Schemes and Unlisted Structured Investment Products, the SFC Code on MPF Products, and the Code on Pooled Retirement Funds, including overall market environment, industry practices and novel product features.
Incorrect
The Product Advisory Committee was established by the SFC. It mainly advises on matters relating to the SFC Handbook for Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds, Investment-Linked Assurance Schemes and Unlisted Structured Investment Products, the SFC Code on MPF Products, and the Code on Pooled Retirement Funds, including overall market environment, industry practices and novel product features.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.8
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Question 293 of 770
293. Question
1 pointsQID1506:Which of the following Intermediaries are included in the asset management industry?
I. Asset managers
II. Distributors
III. Trustees
IV. CustodiansCorrect
For the purpose of understanding how the SFO’s licensing and registration requirements affect intermediaries directly involved in the asset management industry, we may consider three groups of people: asset managers (i.e. persons engaged in the regulated activity of asset management), distributors and others.
Incorrect
For the purpose of understanding how the SFO’s licensing and registration requirements affect intermediaries directly involved in the asset management industry, we may consider three groups of people: asset managers (i.e. persons engaged in the regulated activity of asset management), distributors and others.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.1
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Question 294 of 770
294. Question
1 pointsQID851:Which of the following activities are exempted from licensing for Type 2 licence?
Correct
In this scenario, the person in option D is not acting as a financial intermediary, which is the main purpose of licensing. He is merely acting on behalf of his employer, not providing any financial services. Therefore, he does not need a Type 2 licence. However, the activities in options A, B, and C involve financial intermediation and would require a Type 2 licence.
For example, given that Lee is employed by ABC restaurant, and ABC restaurant hoped to enter into a future contract with a licensed corporation, as a hedge against the risk of rise in price of soybeans. Lee, on behalf of his employer ABC restaurant, signed the contract, in which both the beneficiary and the executor of the contract are ABC restaurant. In this situation, Lee is not a financial intermediary; hence, he needs not be licensed.Incorrect
In this scenario, the person in option D is not acting as a financial intermediary, which is the main purpose of licensing. He is merely acting on behalf of his employer, not providing any financial services. Therefore, he does not need a Type 2 licence. However, the activities in options A, B, and C involve financial intermediation and would require a Type 2 licence.
For example, given that Lee is employed by ABC restaurant, and ABC restaurant hoped to enter into a future contract with a licensed corporation, as a hedge against the risk of rise in price of soybeans. Lee, on behalf of his employer ABC restaurant, signed the contract, in which both the beneficiary and the executor of the contract are ABC restaurant. In this situation, Lee is not a financial intermediary; hence, he needs not be licensed.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.1
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Question 295 of 770
295. Question
1 pointsQID2526:Is there any license or registration required to sell the collective investment schemes of virtual currency?
Correct
since the collective investment scheme of virtual currency investment is a kind of security and selling securities is a type 1 activity
Incorrect
since the collective investment scheme of virtual currency investment is a kind of security and selling securities is a type 1 activity
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.10
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Question 296 of 770
296. Question
1 pointsQID2857:Selling units of a CIS that invest in crypto currencies would require a
Correct
Units of a CIS are always securities regarless of what the CIS invest in.
Incorrect
Units of a CIS are always securities regarless of what the CIS invest in.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 297 of 770
297. Question
1 pointsQID3623:Which of the following activities related to virtual assets are subject to the SFO?
I. Trading of virtual assets that are securities.
II. Advising on virtual assets that are futures contracts.
III. Issuing or marketing virtual assets that are neither securities nor futures contracts.
IV. Providing automated trading services for virtual assets that are securities.Correct
Activities I, II, and IV are subject to the SFO because they involve virtual assets that are securities or futures contracts. Activity III is not subject to the SFO if the virtual assets in question are neither securities nor futures contracts; such assets would be regulated under the AMLO.
Incorrect
Activities I, II, and IV are subject to the SFO because they involve virtual assets that are securities or futures contracts. Activity III is not subject to the SFO if the virtual assets in question are neither securities nor futures contracts; such assets would be regulated under the AMLO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 298 of 770
298. Question
1 pointsQID3701:What is the key update in the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism issued by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC)?
Correct
The significant update in the new version of the guideline is the inclusion of SFC-licensed Virtual Asset Service Providers, in addition to Licensed Corporations, under the scope of the “GAML” guidelines. This change reflects the SFC’s recognition of the growing importance of virtual assets in the financial system and its commitment to ensuring that the regulatory framework for Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism extends to cover the operations of virtual asset service providers. This expansion indicates a broader, more inclusive regulatory approach to address the risks associated with both traditional and emerging financial sectors in the context of money laundering and terrorist financing.
Incorrect
The significant update in the new version of the guideline is the inclusion of SFC-licensed Virtual Asset Service Providers, in addition to Licensed Corporations, under the scope of the “GAML” guidelines. This change reflects the SFC’s recognition of the growing importance of virtual assets in the financial system and its commitment to ensuring that the regulatory framework for Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism extends to cover the operations of virtual asset service providers. This expansion indicates a broader, more inclusive regulatory approach to address the risks associated with both traditional and emerging financial sectors in the context of money laundering and terrorist financing.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 299 of 770
299. Question
1 pointsQID3625:Which of the following scenarios would require compliance with the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
I. A virtual asset platform trades digital tokens that are classified as securities.
II. A financial advisor provides advice on the trading of virtual assets that are futures contracts.
III. A company issues a new type of virtual asset that is a digital representation of value but is not a security or futures contract.
IV. A virtual asset exchange provides a marketplace for trading central bank digital currencies.Correct
Scenarios I and II would require compliance with the SFO as they involve the trading of virtual assets that are classified as securities or futures contracts. Scenario III would not require SFO compliance if the virtual asset is not a security or futures contract, and it would be regulated under the AMLO instead. Scenario IV is incorrect because central bank digital currencies are excluded from the SFO regime.
Incorrect
Scenarios I and II would require compliance with the SFO as they involve the trading of virtual assets that are classified as securities or futures contracts. Scenario III would not require SFO compliance if the virtual asset is not a security or futures contract, and it would be regulated under the AMLO instead. Scenario IV is incorrect because central bank digital currencies are excluded from the SFO regime.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 300 of 770
300. Question
1 pointsQID3626:An investment firm in Hong Kong is advising clients on the purchase of virtual assets. If these assets are deemed to be securities, under which regulatory framework must the firm’s activities comply?
Correct
Advisory activities on virtual assets that are classified as securities fall under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) because it is the primary legislation governing securities and futures contracts in Hong Kong. The AMLO would only apply if the virtual assets do not fall under the SFO, while the Companies Ordinance and Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance govern other aspects of business operations and privacy protection, respectively, and are not specific to securities advisory activities.
Incorrect
Advisory activities on virtual assets that are classified as securities fall under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) because it is the primary legislation governing securities and futures contracts in Hong Kong. The AMLO would only apply if the virtual assets do not fall under the SFO, while the Companies Ordinance and Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance govern other aspects of business operations and privacy protection, respectively, and are not specific to securities advisory activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 301 of 770
301. Question
1 pointsQID3624:A company is planning to launch a new virtual asset platform in Hong Kong. Which ordinance should they primarily consider for compliance if their platform will trade virtual assets that are securities?
Correct
A virtual asset platform in Hong Kong that trades virtual assets constituting securities is primarily governed by the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO). This ordinance outlines the regulatory framework for securities trading and is enforced by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC).
Incorrect
A virtual asset platform in Hong Kong that trades virtual assets constituting securities is primarily governed by the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO). This ordinance outlines the regulatory framework for securities trading and is enforced by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 302 of 770
302. Question
1 pointsQID3627:Which characteristic is NOT a factor in determining whether a virtual asset is regulated by the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
Correct
The SFO regulates virtual assets that represent shares, debentures, or constitute a collective investment scheme (CIS). A virtual asset used merely as a medium of exchange for goods and services does not fall under these categories and is therefore not a factor in determining SFO regulation.
Incorrect
The SFO regulates virtual assets that represent shares, debentures, or constitute a collective investment scheme (CIS). A virtual asset used merely as a medium of exchange for goods and services does not fall under these categories and is therefore not a factor in determining SFO regulation.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 303 of 770
303. Question
1 pointsQID3671:Which of the following virtual asset-related activities are regulated under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
I. Dealing in shares or units of a collective investment scheme (CIS) that includes virtual assets
II. Advising on futures contracts on virtual assets traded on regulated markets III. Trading virtual assets as commodities on unregulated markets
IV. Managing a portfolio of virtual assets that does not involve a CISCorrect
Dealing in shares or units of a CIS that includes virtual assets and advising on futures contracts on virtual assets traded on regulated markets are activities regulated under the SFO. Trading virtual assets as commodities on unregulated markets and managing a portfolio of virtual assets that does not involve a CIS are not necessarily subject to the SFO.
Incorrect
Dealing in shares or units of a CIS that includes virtual assets and advising on futures contracts on virtual assets traded on regulated markets are activities regulated under the SFO. Trading virtual assets as commodities on unregulated markets and managing a portfolio of virtual assets that does not involve a CIS are not necessarily subject to the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 304 of 770
304. Question
1 pointsQID3653:XYZ Virtual Asset Exchange provides a platform where users can trade virtual assets, and it also holds the assets on behalf of the clients during transactions. XYZ does not offer services for any assets classified as securities under the SFO. Does XYZ need to apply for a license under the AMLO?
Correct
XYZ Virtual Asset Exchange requires a license under the AMLO because it operates a platform where offers to sell or purchase virtual assets can lead to a binding transaction, and it holds client money or virtual assets during these transactions. If the virtual assets are cateogorized as security, then its should get a licensed under the SFO but not the AMLO.
Incorrect
XYZ Virtual Asset Exchange requires a license under the AMLO because it operates a platform where offers to sell or purchase virtual assets can lead to a binding transaction, and it holds client money or virtual assets during these transactions. If the virtual assets are cateogorized as security, then its should get a licensed under the SFO but not the AMLO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 305 of 770
305. Question
1 pointsQID3654:Which type of virtual asset trading platform needs to be licensed under both the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) and the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO)?
Correct
A platform that engages in trading activities of both securities under the SFO and virtual assets under the AMLO requires licensing under both ordinances. Therefore, option D is correct.
Incorrect
A platform that engages in trading activities of both securities under the SFO and virtual assets under the AMLO requires licensing under both ordinances. Therefore, option D is correct.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 306 of 770
306. Question
1 pointsQID3622:Which of the following best describes the regulatory approach towards virtual assets that do not constitute securities or futures contracts in Hong Kong?
Correct
Virtual assets that do not constitute securities or futures contracts are regulated under the AMLO. Option A is incorrect because these virtual assets are subject to regulation. Options B and D are incorrect because the Companies Ordinance and CWUMPO do not regulate these types of virtual assets.
Incorrect
Virtual assets that do not constitute securities or futures contracts are regulated under the AMLO. Option A is incorrect because these virtual assets are subject to regulation. Options B and D are incorrect because the Companies Ordinance and CWUMPO do not regulate these types of virtual assets.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 307 of 770
307. Question
1 pointsQID2855:Virtual assets such as tokens are less likely to be defined as
Correct
Virtual assets like tokens are less likely to belong to futures contracts. As under the Hong Kong Securities and Futures Ordinance, futures must be traded on a futures exchange.
Incorrect
Virtual assets like tokens are less likely to belong to futures contracts. As under the Hong Kong Securities and Futures Ordinance, futures must be traded on a futures exchange.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 308 of 770
308. Question
1 pointsQID3635:Which of the following statements accurately describes the application of Hong Kong’s prospectus law to virtual assets?
Correct
Hong Kong’s prospectus law applies to shares and debentures as defined in the CWUMPO, which are forms of securities under the SFO. Therefore, if a virtual asset is classified as a security, the prospectus law would apply to it.
Incorrect
Hong Kong’s prospectus law applies to shares and debentures as defined in the CWUMPO, which are forms of securities under the SFO. Therefore, if a virtual asset is classified as a security, the prospectus law would apply to it.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 309 of 770
309. Question
1 pointsQID3663:Which of the following activities related to virtual assets might be subject to the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
I. Trading virtual assets that are considered securities
II. Offering investment advice on virtual assets
III. Marketing virtual assets that are not securities or futures contracts
IV. Operating an automated trading platform for virtual assetsCorrect
Trading virtual assets that are considered securities (I) and offering investment advice on virtual assets (II) are activities that might be subject to the SFO. Operating an automated trading platform for virtual assets (IV) could also be subject to the SFO if the platform deals with securities or futures contracts.
Incorrect
Trading virtual assets that are considered securities (I) and offering investment advice on virtual assets (II) are activities that might be subject to the SFO. Operating an automated trading platform for virtual assets (IV) could also be subject to the SFO if the platform deals with securities or futures contracts.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 310 of 770
310. Question
1 pointsQID3664:Which statement correctly describes the SFC’s regulatory approach towards virtual assets?
Correct
The SFC’s regulatory approach towards virtual assets is determined by whether the virtual asset constitutes a security or futures contract under the SFO, or if it falls outside the SFO, it may be regulated under the AMLO. The nature of the activities undertaken with the virtual asset influences the regulatory framework applied.
Incorrect
The SFC’s regulatory approach towards virtual assets is determined by whether the virtual asset constitutes a security or futures contract under the SFO, or if it falls outside the SFO, it may be regulated under the AMLO. The nature of the activities undertaken with the virtual asset influences the regulatory framework applied.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 311 of 770
311. Question
1 pointsQID3665:Which of the following statements accurately reflect the SFC’s regulatory approach to virtual assets?
I. The SFC regulates virtual assets based on their underlying nature and the activities associated with them.
II. All virtual assets are automatically considered securities under the SFO.
III. The SFC’s approach to virtual assets is risk-based and considers the rapid development of the market.
IV. Virtual assets that function similarly to securities or futures contracts may fall under the SFO.Correct
The SFC regulates virtual assets by considering their nature and the associated activities, and it employs a risk-based approach that acknowledges the rapid development of the market (I and III). Virtual assets that resemble securities or futures contracts may be subject to the SFO (IV). The statement that all virtual assets are automatically considered securities (II) is incorrect, as the classification depends on whether the virtual asset meets the definition of securities or futures contracts under the SFO or is regulated under the AMLO.
Incorrect
The SFC regulates virtual assets by considering their nature and the associated activities, and it employs a risk-based approach that acknowledges the rapid development of the market (I and III). Virtual assets that resemble securities or futures contracts may be subject to the SFO (IV). The statement that all virtual assets are automatically considered securities (II) is incorrect, as the classification depends on whether the virtual asset meets the definition of securities or futures contracts under the SFO or is regulated under the AMLO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 312 of 770
312. Question
1 pointsQID3666:In which scenario would the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) most likely apply to an activity involving virtual assets?
Correct
Platforms that trade assets with characteristics akin to securities, which fall under the regulatory scope of the SFO. The other options describe activities that do not typically constitute securities trading and thus are less likely to be regulated by the SFO.
Incorrect
Platforms that trade assets with characteristics akin to securities, which fall under the regulatory scope of the SFO. The other options describe activities that do not typically constitute securities trading and thus are less likely to be regulated by the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 313 of 770
313. Question
1 pointsQID3667:Which of the following activities involving virtual assets may require consideration of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
I. Issuing a new virtual asset that grants holders equity in a company
II. Operating a virtual asset exchange that includes trading of tokenized bonds
III. Using virtual assets as a medium of exchange in a closed-loop ecosystem with no investment purpose
IV. Providing virtual asset wallet services for storage purposes onlyCorrect
Activities I and II may fall under the SFO as they resemble traditional securities; issuing a virtual asset that represents equity in a company is akin to a “share,” and operating an exchange that trades tokenized bonds is similar to dealing in “debentures.” Activities III and IV do not exhibit characteristics of securities or futures contracts as defined in the SFO and thus may not require consideration of the SFO.
Incorrect
Activities I and II may fall under the SFO as they resemble traditional securities; issuing a virtual asset that represents equity in a company is akin to a “share,” and operating an exchange that trades tokenized bonds is similar to dealing in “debentures.” Activities III and IV do not exhibit characteristics of securities or futures contracts as defined in the SFO and thus may not require consideration of the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 314 of 770
314. Question
1 pointsQID3668:Which of the following activities related to virtual assets is subject to the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
Correct
Dealing in or advising on futures contracts on virtual assets traded on regulated markets is subject to the SFO because the definition of futures contracts in the SFO includes contracts made under the rules or conventions of a futures market.
Incorrect
Dealing in or advising on futures contracts on virtual assets traded on regulated markets is subject to the SFO because the definition of futures contracts in the SFO includes contracts made under the rules or conventions of a futures market.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 315 of 770
315. Question
1 pointsQID3646:A company issues a new type of digital token that can be used to purchase services within its ecosystem, can be exchanged with other users, and is stored on a blockchain. Which of the following characteristics make this token a virtual asset under the AMLO?
I. It can be used to purchase services within the company’s ecosystem.
II. It can be exchanged with other users.
III. It is stored on a blockchain.
IV. It is issued by a company rather than a government.Correct
The token is considered a virtual asset under the AMLO because it can be used to purchase services (acting as a medium of exchange), can be exchanged with other users, and is stored on a blockchain (capable of being transferred, stored, or traded electronically). The issuer of the token does not affect its classification as a virtual asset.
Incorrect
The token is considered a virtual asset under the AMLO because it can be used to purchase services (acting as a medium of exchange), can be exchanged with other users, and is stored on a blockchain (capable of being transferred, stored, or traded electronically). The issuer of the token does not affect its classification as a virtual asset.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 316 of 770
316. Question
1 pointsQID3670:Which of the following best describes the nature of activities that would subject virtual assets to the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
Correct
Activities involving virtual assets that are structured as a CIS are subject to the SFO, as the SFO applies to shares or units of a CIS even if the portfolio consists solely of virtual assets that are not securities or futures contracts.
Incorrect
Activities involving virtual assets that are structured as a CIS are subject to the SFO, as the SFO applies to shares or units of a CIS even if the portfolio consists solely of virtual assets that are not securities or futures contracts.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 317 of 770
317. Question
1 pointsQID3662:What is the relevance of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) when dealing with virtual assets that are not regulated under the SFO?
Correct
Even if a virtual asset is not regulated under the SFO, the ordinance may still be relevant to consider. This is because the nature of the activity undertaken with virtual assets might bring it within the scope of the SFO.
Incorrect
Even if a virtual asset is not regulated under the SFO, the ordinance may still be relevant to consider. This is because the nature of the activity undertaken with virtual assets might bring it within the scope of the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 318 of 770
318. Question
1 pointsQID3672:A company offers a portfolio structured as a collective investment scheme (CIS) where the investments are solely in virtual assets. Which SFO regulatory requirement applies to this company’s activities?
Correct
Even though the investment portfolio might consist solely of virtual assets that are not securities or futures contracts, if it is structured as a CIS, activities in relation to the CIS’s shares or units will be subject to the SFO.
Incorrect
Even though the investment portfolio might consist solely of virtual assets that are not securities or futures contracts, if it is structured as a CIS, activities in relation to the CIS’s shares or units will be subject to the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 319 of 770
319. Question
1 pointsQID3673:Which of the following scenarios would result in activities related to virtual assets being subject to the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
I. A company trading virtual assets on an unregulated market
II. A company offering a CIS where the portfolio consists solely of virtual assets
III. A company advising on futures contracts on virtual assets traded on a regulated market
IV. A company dealing in virtual assets that are classified as currenciesCorrect
Offering a CIS where the portfolio consists solely of virtual assets and advising on futures contracts on virtual assets traded on a regulated market are activities that would subject the company to the SFO. Trading virtual assets on an unregulated market or dealing in virtual assets classified as currencies does not automatically subject the activities to the SFO.
Incorrect
Offering a CIS where the portfolio consists solely of virtual assets and advising on futures contracts on virtual assets traded on a regulated market are activities that would subject the company to the SFO. Trading virtual assets on an unregulated market or dealing in virtual assets classified as currencies does not automatically subject the activities to the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 320 of 770
320. Question
1 pointsQID3674:An investment firm has launched a futures contract on a virtual asset that is traded on a regulated market in the United States. What type of regulated activity under the SFO does this represent?
Correct
Since the firm has launched a futures contract on a virtual asset that is traded on a regulated market, this activity would constitute Type 2 regulated activity (dealing in futures contracts) under the SFO.
Incorrect
Since the firm has launched a futures contract on a virtual asset that is traded on a regulated market, this activity would constitute Type 2 regulated activity (dealing in futures contracts) under the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 321 of 770
321. Question
1 pointsQID3675:Which of the following activities related to virtual assets would require compliance with the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
I. Dealing in futures contracts on virtual assets on a regulated market
II. Advising on futures contracts on virtual assets
III. Managing a portfolio of virtual assets structured as a Collective Investment Scheme (CIS)
IV. Trading virtual assets that are not securities or futures contractsCorrect
Dealing in futures contracts on virtual assets on regulated markets, advising on such futures contracts, and managing a portfolio of virtual assets structured as a CIS would require compliance with the SFO. Trading virtual assets that are not securities or futures contracts may still be subject to SFO if they meet certain conditions, but this option alone does not automatically require SFO compliance.
Incorrect
Dealing in futures contracts on virtual assets on regulated markets, advising on such futures contracts, and managing a portfolio of virtual assets structured as a CIS would require compliance with the SFO. Trading virtual assets that are not securities or futures contracts may still be subject to SFO if they meet certain conditions, but this option alone does not automatically require SFO compliance.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 322 of 770
322. Question
1 pointsQID3686:Under which ordinance does the SFC exercise fining powers for virtual asset service providers?
Correct
The SFC exercises its fining powers for virtual asset service providers under Part 5B of the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO).
Incorrect
The SFC exercises its fining powers for virtual asset service providers under Part 5B of the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 323 of 770
323. Question
1 pointsQID3712:Which statement accurately describes the regulatory approach to virtual assets in Hong Kong according to the new updates?
Correct
The updated regulatory approach expands the coverage to include virtual assets that may not traditionally be considered securities but meet specific criteria outlined by the SFC and AMLO, indicating a broadened scope of regulation for virtual assets in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
The updated regulatory approach expands the coverage to include virtual assets that may not traditionally be considered securities but meet specific criteria outlined by the SFC and AMLO, indicating a broadened scope of regulation for virtual assets in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 324 of 770
324. Question
1 pointsQID3708:Which of the following features does NOT qualify a virtual asset as a security under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) in Hong Kong?
Correct
According to the regulatory framework, virtual assets that represent equity or ownership interests in a corporation, represent a debt or liability, or result in proceeds being managed for profit in a collective investment scheme, are considered securities under the SFO. Virtual assets used primarily for gaming and entertainment purposes, without characteristics of a collective investment scheme, do not meet the criteria for being classified as securities.
Incorrect
According to the regulatory framework, virtual assets that represent equity or ownership interests in a corporation, represent a debt or liability, or result in proceeds being managed for profit in a collective investment scheme, are considered securities under the SFO. Virtual assets used primarily for gaming and entertainment purposes, without characteristics of a collective investment scheme, do not meet the criteria for being classified as securities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 325 of 770
325. Question
1 pointsQID3707:Which of the following statements accurately reflects the regulatory approach towards virtual assets that are not securities or futures contracts as defined in the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
Correct
Virtual assets that do not meet the definition of securities or futures contracts under the SFO are regulated under the AMLO, provided they fulfill conditions such as being electronically transferable, stored, or traded. This approach ensures that even virtual assets outside the traditional securities framework are still subject to regulatory scrutiny, particularly in the context of anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing.
Incorrect
Virtual assets that do not meet the definition of securities or futures contracts under the SFO are regulated under the AMLO, provided they fulfill conditions such as being electronically transferable, stored, or traded. This approach ensures that even virtual assets outside the traditional securities framework are still subject to regulatory scrutiny, particularly in the context of anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 326 of 770
326. Question
1 pointsQID3706:What criteria must a virtual asset satisfy to be regulated under the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) in Hong Kong?
Correct
According to the updated regulatory framework, for a virtual asset to fall under the AMLO’s purview, it must fulfill specific functions such as serving as a unit of account or store of economic value, be usable as a medium of exchange or provide certain rights, and must be capable of being transferred, stored, or traded electronically. This broad definition ensures the inclusion of various forms of virtual assets beyond traditional securities, focusing on their functionalities rather than their physical backing or recognition as currency.
Incorrect
According to the updated regulatory framework, for a virtual asset to fall under the AMLO’s purview, it must fulfill specific functions such as serving as a unit of account or store of economic value, be usable as a medium of exchange or provide certain rights, and must be capable of being transferred, stored, or traded electronically. This broad definition ensures the inclusion of various forms of virtual assets beyond traditional securities, focusing on their functionalities rather than their physical backing or recognition as currency.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 327 of 770
327. Question
1 pointsQID3705:In the regulatory framework of Hong Kong, under which condition would a virtual asset trading platform require licensing under both the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) and the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO)?
Correct
Platforms that trade in virtual assets need to be licensed under the appropriate regime based on the nature of the assets they deal with. Specifically, a platform would require licensing under both the SFO and AMLO if it trades in virtual assets that are classified as securities (thus falling under the SFO) and also trades in virtual assets that are regulated under the AMLO but do not qualify as securities or futures contracts as defined by the SFO. This dual licensing requirement ensures comprehensive regulatory oversight of platforms dealing with a broad spectrum of virtual assets.
Incorrect
Platforms that trade in virtual assets need to be licensed under the appropriate regime based on the nature of the assets they deal with. Specifically, a platform would require licensing under both the SFO and AMLO if it trades in virtual assets that are classified as securities (thus falling under the SFO) and also trades in virtual assets that are regulated under the AMLO but do not qualify as securities or futures contracts as defined by the SFO. This dual licensing requirement ensures comprehensive regulatory oversight of platforms dealing with a broad spectrum of virtual assets.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 328 of 770
328. Question
1 pointsQID3702:Which ordinance specifically regulates virtual assets that do not qualify as securities or futures contracts under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
Correct
Virtual assets not falling under the definition of securities or futures contracts as per the SFO are regulated under the AMLO. This is a part of the dual regulatory approach adopted in Hong Kong, distinguishing between different types of virtual assets based on their characteristics and intended use.
Incorrect
Virtual assets not falling under the definition of securities or futures contracts as per the SFO are regulated under the AMLO. This is a part of the dual regulatory approach adopted in Hong Kong, distinguishing between different types of virtual assets based on their characteristics and intended use.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 329 of 770
329. Question
1 pointsQID3669:Which of the following statements are true regarding the application of the SFO to virtual assets?
I. Shares or units of a CIS consisting solely of virtual assets are subject to the SFO.
II. Futures contracts on virtual assets traded on regulated markets are subject to the SFO.
III. Virtual assets that are not securities or futures contracts are subject to the SFO.
IV. Activities related to virtual assets are always exempt from the SFO.Correct
Shares or units of a CIS that may consist solely of virtual assets are subject to the SFO, as are futures contracts on virtual assets traded on regulated markets. Virtual assets that are not securities or futures contracts and activities that are not related to regulated markets are not necessarily subject to the SFO.
Incorrect
Shares or units of a CIS that may consist solely of virtual assets are subject to the SFO, as are futures contracts on virtual assets traded on regulated markets. Virtual assets that are not securities or futures contracts and activities that are not related to regulated markets are not necessarily subject to the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 330 of 770
330. Question
1 pointsQID3632:Which of the following scenarios would likely subject a virtual asset to SFO regulation?
I. A token that grants holders a percentage of revenue from a decentralized application.
II. A digital currency used exclusively within a video game environment.
III. A token that represents a creditor relationship with a blockchain company.
IV. A token that provides membership access to a private online community.Correct
A token that grants holders a percentage of revenue from a decentralized application (I) could be considered a CIS, and a token that represents a creditor relationship with a blockchain company (III) could be considered a debenture. Both would likely be subject to SFO regulation. A digital currency used exclusively within a video game (II) and a token for membership access (IV) do not fit the characteristics of securities as defined by the SFO.
Incorrect
A token that grants holders a percentage of revenue from a decentralized application (I) could be considered a CIS, and a token that represents a creditor relationship with a blockchain company (III) could be considered a debenture. Both would likely be subject to SFO regulation. A digital currency used exclusively within a video game (II) and a token for membership access (IV) do not fit the characteristics of securities as defined by the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 331 of 770
331. Question
1 pointsQID3621:Which of the following statements are true regarding the regulation of virtual assets in Hong Kong?
I. Virtual assets that constitute securities or futures contracts are regulated under the SFO.
II. Virtual assets that do not fall under the SFO are regulated under the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO).
III. All digital representations of value, including central bank digital currencies, are regulated under the SFO.
IV. The SFO is relevant for activities related to virtual assets that are regulated under the SFO or AMLO.Correct
Statements I and II are true as virtual assets that are securities or futures contracts are regulated under the SFO, and those that do not fall under the SFO are regulated under the AMLO. Statement IV is also true because the SFO remains relevant for activities related to virtual assets regulated under both the SFO and AMLO. Statement III is false because certain digital representations of value, such as central bank digital currencies, are excluded from the SFO regime.
Incorrect
Statements I and II are true as virtual assets that are securities or futures contracts are regulated under the SFO, and those that do not fall under the SFO are regulated under the AMLO. Statement IV is also true because the SFO remains relevant for activities related to virtual assets regulated under both the SFO and AMLO. Statement III is false because certain digital representations of value, such as central bank digital currencies, are excluded from the SFO regime.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 332 of 770
332. Question
1 pointsQID3620:Under which circumstances would a virtual asset be regulated under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO)?
Correct
A virtual asset is regulated under the SFO when it constitutes a security or futures contract as defined in the SFO. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because gaming purposes, central bank digital currencies, and e-commerce transactions are not criteria for regulation under the SFO.
Incorrect
A virtual asset is regulated under the SFO when it constitutes a security or futures contract as defined in the SFO. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because gaming purposes, central bank digital currencies, and e-commerce transactions are not criteria for regulation under the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 333 of 770
333. Question
1 pointsQID3605:In the context of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO), which aspect of virtual assets is crucial in determining whether they are subject to regulatory oversight?
Correct
The crucial aspect in determining whether virtual assets are subject to the SFO is whether they fall within the definition of securities or futures contracts.Virtual assets are regulated under the SFO if they are defined as securities or futures contracts. Characteristics that may classify a virtual asset as a security include representing equity or ownership interests, representing a debt or liability, or resulting in proceeds being managed collectively for profit, thereby constituting a collective investment scheme.
Incorrect
The crucial aspect in determining whether virtual assets are subject to the SFO is whether they fall within the definition of securities or futures contracts.Virtual assets are regulated under the SFO if they are defined as securities or futures contracts. Characteristics that may classify a virtual asset as a security include representing equity or ownership interests, representing a debt or liability, or resulting in proceeds being managed collectively for profit, thereby constituting a collective investment scheme.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 334 of 770
334. Question
1 pointsQID3628:Which of the following characteristics would render a virtual asset subject to regulation under the SFO?
I. It represents ownership interests in a corporation.
II. It is used as a medium of exchange in a loyalty program.
III. It represents a debt or liability.
IV. It results in proceeds being managed collectively for profit.Correct
Characteristics that render a virtual asset subject to SFO regulation include representing equity or ownership interests in a corporation (I), representing a debt or liability (III), or resulting in proceeds being managed collectively for profit (IV). A virtual asset used as a medium of exchange in a loyalty program (II) does not fall under these categories.
Incorrect
Characteristics that render a virtual asset subject to SFO regulation include representing equity or ownership interests in a corporation (I), representing a debt or liability (III), or resulting in proceeds being managed collectively for profit (IV). A virtual asset used as a medium of exchange in a loyalty program (II) does not fall under these categories.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 335 of 770
335. Question
1 pointsQID3629:Which of the following best describes a virtual asset that is considered a “share” under the SFO?
Correct
A virtual asset is considered a “share” under the SFO if it represents equity or ownership interests in a corporation, which typically includes voting rights in the management of the corporation.
Incorrect
A virtual asset is considered a “share” under the SFO if it represents equity or ownership interests in a corporation, which typically includes voting rights in the management of the corporation.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 336 of 770
336. Question
1 pointsQID3630:Which of the following virtual assets would be regulated by the SFO?
I. A token representing a share in a tech startup.
II. A cryptocurrency used for peer-to-peer transactions.
III. A bond token representing a debt obligation of a company.
IV. A token whose proceeds are pooled to invest in real estate projects.Correct
Virtual assets that represent shares in a corporation (I), debt obligations (III), or are part of a collective investment scheme (IV) are regulated by the SFO. A cryptocurrency used solely for peer-to-peer transactions (II) does not fall under the definition of securities or futures contracts as defined by the SFO.
Incorrect
Virtual assets that represent shares in a corporation (I), debt obligations (III), or are part of a collective investment scheme (IV) are regulated by the SFO. A cryptocurrency used solely for peer-to-peer transactions (II) does not fall under the definition of securities or futures contracts as defined by the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 337 of 770
337. Question
1 pointsQID3631:An investment platform issues a new token that entitles holders to a share of the profits from a managed portfolio of stocks. Under the SFO, this token is most likely classified as:
Correct
The token that entitles holders to a share of the profits from a managed portfolio of stocks is most likely classified as a collective investment scheme (CIS) because the proceeds are managed collectively for profit.
Incorrect
The token that entitles holders to a share of the profits from a managed portfolio of stocks is most likely classified as a collective investment scheme (CIS) because the proceeds are managed collectively for profit.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 338 of 770
338. Question
1 pointsQID3645:An online platform allows users to trade digital tokens that represent ownership in real estate. These tokens can be used to exchange for goods and services and can be traded electronically. Would these tokens likely be considered virtual assets under the AMLO?
Correct
The tokens would likely be considered virtual assets under the AMLO because they can be used as a medium of exchange and can be traded electronically. The fact that they represent ownership in real estate does not exclude them from being considered virtual assets.
Incorrect
The tokens would likely be considered virtual assets under the AMLO because they can be used as a medium of exchange and can be traded electronically. The fact that they represent ownership in real estate does not exclude them from being considered virtual assets.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 339 of 770
339. Question
1 pointsQID3633:A company issues a virtual asset that allows investors to receive dividends from the profits of a chain of hotels. The company manages the hotels and distributes profits to token holders. This virtual asset would be regulated by the SFO as:
Correct
The virtual asset allows investors to receive dividends from the profits of a managed business, which aligns with the definition of a collective investment scheme (CIS) under the SFO, where proceeds are managed collectively for profit.
Incorrect
The virtual asset allows investors to receive dividends from the profits of a managed business, which aligns with the definition of a collective investment scheme (CIS) under the SFO, where proceeds are managed collectively for profit.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 340 of 770
340. Question
1 pointsQID3638:If a virtual asset is deemed a security under the SFO, which of the following regulatory requirements must be complied with when offering this asset to the public in Hong Kong?
Correct
If a virtual asset is classified as a security, specifically shares or debentures as defined in the CWUMPO, the offer of such an asset to the public in Hong Kong must comply with the prospectus law.
Incorrect
If a virtual asset is classified as a security, specifically shares or debentures as defined in the CWUMPO, the offer of such an asset to the public in Hong Kong must comply with the prospectus law.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 341 of 770
341. Question
1 pointsQID3634:A blockchain startup issues two types of tokens: one representing equity in the company and another providing access to a suite of software tools they develop. Under the SFO, which of these tokens would be regulated?
I. The token representing equity in the company.
II. The token providing access to software tools.
III. Both tokens.
IV. Neither token.Correct
The token representing equity in the company (I) would be regulated by the SFO as it is considered a share. The token providing access to software tools (II) does not represent equity, a debt, or a collective investment scheme and therefore would not be regulated under the SFO.
Incorrect
The token representing equity in the company (I) would be regulated by the SFO as it is considered a share. The token providing access to software tools (II) does not represent equity, a debt, or a collective investment scheme and therefore would not be regulated under the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 342 of 770
342. Question
1 pointsQID3639:A company plans to offer a virtual asset to the public in Hong Kong, which is structured as a debenture. What must the company ensure to comply with the regulatory requirements?
Correct
Since the virtual asset is structured as a debenture, it is considered a security under the SFO, and the company must comply with the prospectus requirements as per the CWUMPO when offering it to the public in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
Since the virtual asset is structured as a debenture, it is considered a security under the SFO, and the company must comply with the prospectus requirements as per the CWUMPO when offering it to the public in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 343 of 770
343. Question
1 pointsQID3643:Under the AMLO, which of the following would be a necessary condition for a digital representation of value to be considered a virtual asset?
Correct
For a digital representation of value to be considered a virtual asset under the AMLO, it must be capable of being transferred, stored, or traded electronically. The other options listed are not necessary conditions for a digital representation of value to be classified as a virtual asset under the AMLO.
Incorrect
For a digital representation of value to be considered a virtual asset under the AMLO, it must be capable of being transferred, stored, or traded electronically. The other options listed are not necessary conditions for a digital representation of value to be classified as a virtual asset under the AMLO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 344 of 770
344. Question
1 pointsQID3641:Which of the following characteristics would qualify a digital representation of value as a virtual asset under the AMLO?
I. It is expressed as a unit of account.
II. It can be used to purchase goods and services.
III. It is recognized as legal tender by a central bank.
IV. It satisfies additional characteristics prescribed by the SFC.Correct
A digital representation of value is considered a virtual asset if it is expressed as a unit of account or a store of economic value, can be used as a medium of exchange, can be transferred, stored, or traded electronically, and satisfies any other characteristics prescribed by the SFC. Being recognized as legal tender by a central bank is not a characteristic that qualifies a digital representation of value as a virtual asset under the AMLO.
Incorrect
A digital representation of value is considered a virtual asset if it is expressed as a unit of account or a store of economic value, can be used as a medium of exchange, can be transferred, stored, or traded electronically, and satisfies any other characteristics prescribed by the SFC. Being recognized as legal tender by a central bank is not a characteristic that qualifies a digital representation of value as a virtual asset under the AMLO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 345 of 770
345. Question
1 pointsQID3640:Which characteristic is NOT a criterion for a digital representation of value to be regulated as a virtual asset under the AMLO?
Correct
The characteristics that define a virtual asset under the AMLO include being used as a medium of exchange, being transferable, stored, or traded electronically, and providing certain rights. Being recognized as legal tender by any government is not a criterion listed in the AMLO for a digital representation of value to be considered a virtual asset.
Incorrect
The characteristics that define a virtual asset under the AMLO include being used as a medium of exchange, being transferable, stored, or traded electronically, and providing certain rights. Being recognized as legal tender by any government is not a criterion listed in the AMLO for a digital representation of value to be considered a virtual asset.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 346 of 770
346. Question
1 pointsQID3644:Which of the following characteristics must a digital representation of value possess to be regulated as a virtual asset under the AMLO?
I. It must be capable of being used as a medium of exchange.
II. It must be capable of being transferred electronically.
III. It must be issued by a recognized monetary authority.
IV. It must provide certain rights to the holder.Correct
A digital representation of value must be capable of being used as a medium of exchange, capable of being transferred electronically, and provide certain rights to the holder to be regulated as a virtual asset under the AMLO. Being issued by a recognized monetary authority is not a requirement for regulation as a virtual asset.
Incorrect
A digital representation of value must be capable of being used as a medium of exchange, capable of being transferred electronically, and provide certain rights to the holder to be regulated as a virtual asset under the AMLO. Being issued by a recognized monetary authority is not a requirement for regulation as a virtual asset.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 347 of 770
347. Question
1 pointsQID3642:Which of the following activities related to virtual assets may be subject to the regulatory requirements of the SFO?
I. Trading virtual assets that are considered securities.
II. Advising on futures contracts on virtual assets.
III. Managing portfolios structured as a collective investment scheme (CIS) containing virtual assets.
IV. Operating an automated trading platform for virtual assets that constitutes securities under the SFO.Correct
Activities related to virtual assets that may be subject to the SFO include trading virtual assets that are considered securities, advising on futures contracts on virtual assets, managing portfolios structured as a CIS containing virtual assets, and operating an automated trading platform for virtual assets that constitutes securities under the SFO.
Incorrect
Activities related to virtual assets that may be subject to the SFO include trading virtual assets that are considered securities, advising on futures contracts on virtual assets, managing portfolios structured as a CIS containing virtual assets, and operating an automated trading platform for virtual assets that constitutes securities under the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13
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Question 348 of 770
348. Question
1 pointsQID3703:What is required for a platform trading virtual assets that are considered securities under the SFO?
Correct
Platforms that trade virtual assets considered as securities under the SFO need to be licensed or registered under the same ordinance. This highlights the regulatory framework’s extension to include trading platforms dealing with securities in the form of virtual assets.
Incorrect
Platforms that trade virtual assets considered as securities under the SFO need to be licensed or registered under the same ordinance. This highlights the regulatory framework’s extension to include trading platforms dealing with securities in the form of virtual assets.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.13.1
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Question 349 of 770
349. Question
1 pointsQID2859:Selling crypto currencies would require a
Correct
Selling crypto currencies would require no licence, unless the crypto currencies are bearing characteristics of securities. In that case, a Type 1 Licence is required.
Incorrect
Selling crypto currencies would require no licence, unless the crypto currencies are bearing characteristics of securities. In that case, a Type 1 Licence is required.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.15
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Question 350 of 770
350. Question
1 pointsQID185:Which of the following entities should apply for a licence or registering with the SFC for Asset Management Services?
I. A Licensed Corporation managing an unauthorised CISII. A Registered Institution managing an authorised CIS
III. A trustee safe keeping asset for a CIS
IV. A Licensed Corporation managing an authorised CIS
Correct
Regardless of the CIS is being authorised by the SFC or not, as long as the licenced corporation is managing it, the corporation who manage the CIS should be licensed by the SFC. Activities that require an asset management licence by the SFC include:
1. Discretionary management of Securities and/or Futures Portfolio
2. Management of CIS (Regardless of being authorised by the SFC or not)
Incorrect
Regardless of the CIS is being authorised by the SFC or not, as long as the licenced corporation is managing it, the corporation who manage the CIS should be licensed by the SFC. Activities that require an asset management licence by the SFC include:
1. Discretionary management of Securities and/or Futures Portfolio
2. Management of CIS (Regardless of being authorised by the SFC or not)
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.2
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Question 351 of 770
351. Question
1 pointsQID103:Which of the following entities are classified as Asset managers?
I. Fund Houses
II. Fund Distributors
III. Fund Managers
IV. Portfolio ManagersCorrect
Under Schedule 5, SFO, “asset management” means:
“asset management” means real estate investment scheme management, securities or futures contracts management.
“Real estate investment scheme management,” concerning a person, means providing a service of operating a CIS for another person by the person.
“Securities or futures contracts management” about a person means providing a service of managing a portfolio of securities or futures contracts for another person by the person.
A management company of a CIS operating in Hong Kong will generally need to be licensed or registered as an asset manager (Type 9 regulated activity). If acting as a distributor, it may also need to be licensed to deal in securities (Type 1 regulated activity).
Fund companies and fund managers specialise in the management and operation of investment funds, while portfolio managers focus on managing portfolios of securities or futures contracts. Fund distributors fall under Type 1 regulated activitiesIncorrect
Under Schedule 5, SFO, “asset management” means:
“asset management” means real estate investment scheme management, securities or futures contracts management.
“Real estate investment scheme management,” concerning a person, means providing a service of operating a CIS for another person by the person.
“Securities or futures contracts management” about a person means providing a service of managing a portfolio of securities or futures contracts for another person by the person.
A management company of a CIS operating in Hong Kong will generally need to be licensed or registered as an asset manager (Type 9 regulated activity). If acting as a distributor, it may also need to be licensed to deal in securities (Type 1 regulated activity).
Fund companies and fund managers specialise in the management and operation of investment funds, while portfolio managers focus on managing portfolios of securities or futures contracts. Fund distributors fall under Type 1 regulated activitiesHint
Reference Chapter:1.4.2
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Question 352 of 770
352. Question
1 pointsQID233:Individuals engaged in asset management require
Correct
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(i) requiring an individual engaging in a regulated activity for a licensed corporation (as his principal) to be licensed (licensed representative);
(ii) permitting an individual to engage in a regulated activity for a registered institution provided that his name is entered in the register maintained by the HKMA as engaged by the registered institution in respect of that regulated activity;
(iii) approving persons who, in addition to being licensed as representatives, carry out supervisory functions for a licensed corporation and are nominated as responsible officers by the licensed corporation.
Asset management is a regulated activity. Therefore, if an individual wants to engage in the asset management business, he or she needs to obtain at least a licensed representative license; the responsible officer must also get a responsible officer’s license.Incorrect
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(i) requiring an individual engaging in a regulated activity for a licensed corporation (as his principal) to be licensed (licensed representative);
(ii) permitting an individual to engage in a regulated activity for a registered institution provided that his name is entered in the register maintained by the HKMA as engaged by the registered institution in respect of that regulated activity;
(iii) approving persons who, in addition to being licensed as representatives, carry out supervisory functions for a licensed corporation and are nominated as responsible officers by the licensed corporation.
Asset management is a regulated activity. Therefore, if an individual wants to engage in the asset management business, he or she needs to obtain at least a licensed representative license; the responsible officer must also get a responsible officer’s license.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.2
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Question 353 of 770
353. Question
1 pointsQID225:Registered Institutions should ensure that their employees who conduct regulated activities are
Correct
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. Thus, employees of registered institutions responsible for or conducting regulated activities are expected to comply with the SFC’s Fit and Proper Guidelines to ensure they are suitable for their roles, as monitored by the HKMA.
Incorrect
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. Thus, employees of registered institutions responsible for or conducting regulated activities are expected to comply with the SFC’s Fit and Proper Guidelines to ensure they are suitable for their roles, as monitored by the HKMA.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.20
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Question 354 of 770
354. Question
1 pointsQID2361:The licensing and registration requirements of the Securities and Futures Ordinance may apply to?
I. Staffs of licensed corporations
II. Staffs of registered agents
III. Banks conducting regulated activities
IV. Professional investorsCorrect
The licensing and registration requirements of the Securities and Futures Ordinance apply to
I. Licensed CorporationII. Employees of licensed corporations (licensed representatives and responsible officers)
III. Registered institution (i.e. bank conducting regulated activities)IV. Staff of the registered institution (Executive officers and relevant individuals)
Incorrect
The licensing and registration requirements of the Securities and Futures Ordinance apply to
I. Licensed CorporationII. Employees of licensed corporations (licensed representatives and responsible officers)
III. Registered institution (i.e. bank conducting regulated activities)IV. Staff of the registered institution (Executive officers and relevant individuals)
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.20
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Question 355 of 770
355. Question
1 pointsQID2362:Kaohsiung Securities holds type 1 license which can conduct regulated activities wholly incidental to type 1 activities including:
I. Type 4 – advising on securities
II. Type 5 – advising on futures contract
III. Type 6 – advising on institutional financing
IV. Type 9 – providing asset management servicesCorrect
(d) allowing licensed persons conducting some regulated activities to conduct certain others, e.g. a Type 1 licence or registration covers Type 4, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities as well if the conducting of those activities is wholly incidental to the conducting of the Type 1 regulated activity. It also covers Type 8 regulated activity.
Kaohsiung Securities holds type 1 license which can conduct regulated activities wholly incidental to type 1 activities including:
Type 4 – advising on securities
Type 6 – advising on institutional financing
Type 8 – providing securities margin financing
Type 9 – providing asset management servicesIncorrect
(d) allowing licensed persons conducting some regulated activities to conduct certain others, e.g. a Type 1 licence or registration covers Type 4, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities as well if the conducting of those activities is wholly incidental to the conducting of the Type 1 regulated activity. It also covers Type 8 regulated activity.
Kaohsiung Securities holds type 1 license which can conduct regulated activities wholly incidental to type 1 activities including:
Type 4 – advising on securities
Type 6 – advising on institutional financing
Type 8 – providing securities margin financing
Type 9 – providing asset management servicesHint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 356 of 770
356. Question
1 pointsQID1416:Persons exempted from needing a licence for advising on securities contracts generally do NOT include:
Correct
Persons exempted from requiring a licence to advise on securities generally include:
(a) solicitors, counsel, professional accountants, trust companies and persons licensed to carry out asset management who give such advice wholly incidental to their professions;
(b) financial journalists and broadcasters who give investment advice or issue analyses or reports on investments to the public on subscription or otherwise;
(c.) corporations giving such advice or issuing such analyses or reports solely to their wholly owned subsidiaries or holding companies holding all their issued shares or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding companyIncorrect
Persons exempted from requiring a licence to advise on securities generally include:
(a) solicitors, counsel, professional accountants, trust companies and persons licensed to carry out asset management who give such advice wholly incidental to their professions;
(b) financial journalists and broadcasters who give investment advice or issue analyses or reports on investments to the public on subscription or otherwise;
(c.) corporations giving such advice or issuing such analyses or reports solely to their wholly owned subsidiaries or holding companies holding all their issued shares or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding companyHint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 357 of 770
357. Question
1 pointsQID1216:Kaohsiung Trust Company is not required to obtain a license to carry out regulated activities for which of the following?
Correct
Trust companies conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 or Type 9 Ras wholly incidental to the discharge of their trustee duties do not need to apply for a license. There is no mention of wholly incidental conduct here, but professional conduct, so A, B, and D require a Securities and Futures Commission license. Real estate does not belong to securities and futures and is not regulated by the Securities and Futures Ordinance.. Real estate are not securities and futures and not regulated by the SFO>
Incorrect
Trust companies conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 or Type 9 Ras wholly incidental to the discharge of their trustee duties do not need to apply for a license. There is no mention of wholly incidental conduct here, but professional conduct, so A, B, and D require a Securities and Futures Commission license. Real estate does not belong to securities and futures and is not regulated by the Securities and Futures Ordinance.. Real estate are not securities and futures and not regulated by the SFO>
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 358 of 770
358. Question
1 pointsQID913:Under which of the circumstances is additional licenses not required?
Correct
Option A does not say it is a wholly-owned subsidiary;
Option B is to provide futures contract trading services, which is not included in the excluded activities;
Option C holds a Category 8 activity license and does not have exempted activities;
The answer is D.Incorrect
Option A does not say it is a wholly-owned subsidiary;
Option B is to provide futures contract trading services, which is not included in the excluded activities;
Option C holds a Category 8 activity license and does not have exempted activities;
The answer is D.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 359 of 770
359. Question
1 pointsQID799:Trust companies can be exempted from licensing if they conduct which of the following regulated activities wholly incidental to their trustee duties?
I. Dealing in securities
II. Advising on securities
III. Advising on futures contracts
IV. Asset managementCorrect
There are certain persons some of whose activities might otherwise fit the descriptions of regulated activities listed in Part 1, Schedule 5, SFO, but for the fact that these are specifically excluded from the definitions of regulated activities given in Part 2 of the Schedule. Such persons will not need licensing in respect of those activities. They include:
– trust companies conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities wholly incidental to the discharge of their trustee duties.Incorrect
There are certain persons some of whose activities might otherwise fit the descriptions of regulated activities listed in Part 1, Schedule 5, SFO, but for the fact that these are specifically excluded from the definitions of regulated activities given in Part 2 of the Schedule. Such persons will not need licensing in respect of those activities. They include:
– trust companies conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities wholly incidental to the discharge of their trustee duties.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 360 of 770
360. Question
1 pointsQID1608:Kaohsiung Securities trades Hong Kong stocks for clients. It carries a type 1 licence and is also an exchange participant. It recently wishes to providing financing to clients for their purchase of stocks in return for clients’ stocks as collaterals, does it need an extra licence?
Correct
There are certain persons some of whose activities might otherwise fit the descriptions of Ras listed in Part 1, Schedule 5, SFO, but for the fact that these are specifically excluded from the definitions of RAs given in Part 2 of the Schedule. Such persons will not need licensing in respect of those activities. They include:
(e.) persons licensed or registered to conduct Type 1 RA who may provide financial accommodation (Type 8 RA) to facilitate acquisitions or holdings of securities by those persons for clients.
Therefore, answer A is correct.Incorrect
There are certain persons some of whose activities might otherwise fit the descriptions of Ras listed in Part 1, Schedule 5, SFO, but for the fact that these are specifically excluded from the definitions of RAs given in Part 2 of the Schedule. Such persons will not need licensing in respect of those activities. They include:
(e.) persons licensed or registered to conduct Type 1 RA who may provide financial accommodation (Type 8 RA) to facilitate acquisitions or holdings of securities by those persons for clients.
Therefore, answer A is correct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 361 of 770
361. Question
1 pointsQID244:According to the exemption provisions of the SFO, Professional Accountants can conduct regulated activates under which of the following circumstances?
Correct
There are certain persons, some of whose activities might otherwise fit the descriptions of regulated activities listed in Part 1, Schedule 5, SFO, but for the fact that these are specifically excluded from the definitions of regulated activities given in Part 2 of the Schedule. Such persons will not need licensing in respect of those activities. They include:
(a) professional accountants, solicitors and counsel conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities that are wholly incidental to their professions (see section 1.9 below).Incorrect
There are certain persons, some of whose activities might otherwise fit the descriptions of regulated activities listed in Part 1, Schedule 5, SFO, but for the fact that these are specifically excluded from the definitions of regulated activities given in Part 2 of the Schedule. Such persons will not need licensing in respect of those activities. They include:
(a) professional accountants, solicitors and counsel conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated activities that are wholly incidental to their professions (see section 1.9 below).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 362 of 770
362. Question
1 pointsQID2472:Which of the following institution has to apply for an additional license or registration with respect to the Type 2 regulated activity?
Correct
Institutions which provide their fully owned subsidiaries with futures trading advice don’t need any license.
For institutions holding a license for Type 9 regulated activities to engage in futures trading as a result of discretionary investment for their clients, they don’t need any additional license or registration as well since futures trading activities is fully accompanied by discretionary activities.
For institutions holding a license for Type 1 regulated activities to trade an ETF which is listed on the SEHK and only trades futures on behalf of their clients, since the target traded is listed ETFs rather than futures, naturally, there is no need to obtain a license or registration with respect to Type 2 regulated activities.
For institutions holding a license for Type 1 regulated activities to engage in futures trading as a result of discretionary investment for their clients, they need an additional license or registration since futures trading activities is not fully accompanied by Type 1 regulated activities.Incorrect
Institutions which provide their fully owned subsidiaries with futures trading advice don’t need any license.
For institutions holding a license for Type 9 regulated activities to engage in futures trading as a result of discretionary investment for their clients, they don’t need any additional license or registration as well since futures trading activities is fully accompanied by discretionary activities.
For institutions holding a license for Type 1 regulated activities to trade an ETF which is listed on the SEHK and only trades futures on behalf of their clients, since the target traded is listed ETFs rather than futures, naturally, there is no need to obtain a license or registration with respect to Type 2 regulated activities.
For institutions holding a license for Type 1 regulated activities to engage in futures trading as a result of discretionary investment for their clients, they need an additional license or registration since futures trading activities is not fully accompanied by Type 1 regulated activities.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 363 of 770
363. Question
1 pointsQID2473:Kaohsiung Securities holds a license for Type 2 regulated activities. In which of the following condition should they obtain a license for Type 5 regulated activities when delivering advice?
Correct
Providing advice regarding futures trading with friends and charging a fee independently proves that it’s not solely associated with Type 2 regulated activities. Therefore, it is needed to obtain an additional license for Type 5 regulated activities.
Incorrect
Providing advice regarding futures trading with friends and charging a fee independently proves that it’s not solely associated with Type 2 regulated activities. Therefore, it is needed to obtain an additional license for Type 5 regulated activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 364 of 770
364. Question
1 pointsQID1223:In terms of Type 4 regulated activities, which of the following persons may NOT be exempted and must apply for a license or register to carry out regulated activities?
Correct
There are certain persons some of whose activities might otherwise fit the descriptions of Ras listed in Part 1, Schedule 5, SFO, but for the fact that these are specifically excluded from the
definitions of RAs given in Part 2 of the Schedule. Such persons will not need licensing in respect of those activities. They include:
(a) professional accountants, solicitors and counsel conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 or Type 9 Ras that are wholly incidental to their professions;
(d) persons licensed or registered to conduct Type 1 RA who carry out Type 4, Type 6 or Type 9 Ras solely for the purposes of their Type 1 RA (the “wholly incidental” exemption).Incorrect
There are certain persons some of whose activities might otherwise fit the descriptions of Ras listed in Part 1, Schedule 5, SFO, but for the fact that these are specifically excluded from the
definitions of RAs given in Part 2 of the Schedule. Such persons will not need licensing in respect of those activities. They include:
(a) professional accountants, solicitors and counsel conducting Type 4, Type 5, Type 6 or Type 9 Ras that are wholly incidental to their professions;
(d) persons licensed or registered to conduct Type 1 RA who carry out Type 4, Type 6 or Type 9 Ras solely for the purposes of their Type 1 RA (the “wholly incidental” exemption).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 365 of 770
365. Question
1 pointsQID353:Mr Wan is a registered representative of type 1 regulated activity of British Construction Bank, a registered institution. Mr Wan is constantly looking out for the portfolios of his retired customers and advises them on stock trading and other asset management activities, these activities are wholly incidental to his type 1 activity. In this case, should Mr Wan apply for a registration or license for the type 9 activities he conducts?
Correct
Part V SFO allows licensed persons conducting some regulated activities to conduct certain others, e.g. a Type 1 licence or registration covers Type 4, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated
activities as well if the conducting of those activities is wholly incidental to the conducting of the Type 1 regulated activity.Incorrect
Part V SFO allows licensed persons conducting some regulated activities to conduct certain others, e.g. a Type 1 licence or registration covers Type 4, Type 6 and Type 9 regulated
activities as well if the conducting of those activities is wholly incidental to the conducting of the Type 1 regulated activity.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 366 of 770
366. Question
1 pointsQID1417:Which of the following entities are NOT exempted from acquiring a license when giving advice on securities?
Correct
Persons exempted from requiring a licence to advise on securities generally include:
(a) solicitors, counsel, professional accountants, trust companies and persons licensed to carry out asset management who give such advice wholly incidental to their professions;
(b) financial journalists and broadcasters who give investment advice or issue analyses or reports on investments to the public on subscription or otherwise;
(c.) corporations giving such advice or issuing such analyses or reports solely to their wholly owned subsidiaries or holding companies holding all their issued shares or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding company
(d) persons licensed to deal in securities and give such advice wholly incidental to the carrying on of such dealing activity.Incorrect
Persons exempted from requiring a licence to advise on securities generally include:
(a) solicitors, counsel, professional accountants, trust companies and persons licensed to carry out asset management who give such advice wholly incidental to their professions;
(b) financial journalists and broadcasters who give investment advice or issue analyses or reports on investments to the public on subscription or otherwise;
(c.) corporations giving such advice or issuing such analyses or reports solely to their wholly owned subsidiaries or holding companies holding all their issued shares or other wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding company
(d) persons licensed to deal in securities and give such advice wholly incidental to the carrying on of such dealing activity.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 367 of 770
367. Question
1 pointsQID909:Which of the following individuals are more likely to be affected by the Licensing and registration part of the SFO?
I. Licensed Corporation
II. AFIs that is preparing to conduct regulated activities in the near future
III. Executive officers of a Registered Institution
IV. Professional InvestorsCorrect
Professional Investors do not need to be licensed. AFIs will need to be registered in order to conduct regulated activities.
Incorrect
Professional Investors do not need to be licensed. AFIs will need to be registered in order to conduct regulated activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.21
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Question 368 of 770
368. Question
1 pointsQID2735:In addition to buying and selling securities for clients, Monopoly Securities also provides discretionary account management services and securities margin financing services for clients’ securities accounts. Monopoly Securities can meet regulatory requirements through which of the following combinations of licenses?
I. Type 1 RA Licence
II. Type 9 RA Licence
III. Type 1 RA Licence + Type 9 RA Licence
IV. Type 1 RA Licence + Type 8 RA Licence + Type 9 RA Licence
Correct
As securities discretionary management services and securities margin financing services are wholly incidental to securities trading services. Therefore, Monopoly Securities does not need to have a license for type 9 regulated activities (asset management) and type 8 regulated activities (securities margin financing). But it’s perfectly okay to have them as well.
However, a licensed corporation holding a Type 9 regulated activity license only is not permitted to conduct securities trading activities, so this is a wrong answer.
Incorrect
As securities discretionary management services and securities margin financing services are wholly incidental to securities trading services. Therefore, Monopoly Securities does not need to have a license for type 9 regulated activities (asset management) and type 8 regulated activities (securities margin financing). But it’s perfectly okay to have them as well.
However, a licensed corporation holding a Type 9 regulated activity license only is not permitted to conduct securities trading activities, so this is a wrong answer.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.25
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Question 369 of 770
369. Question
1 pointsQID234:If a licensed representative ceased to be employed with his accredited licensed corporation, which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes the transfer of representative’s accreditation?
I. Both the representative and the corporation must notify the
SFC within 7 days after the cessation.
II. The licensed representative is allowed to transfer his accreditation to another licensed corporation within 180 days upon cessation.
III. If the licensed representative fails to transfer his accreditation to another licensed corporation after 180 days, his license is deemed to have been revoked upon cessation.
IV. The licensed representative may appeal against the termination
of his appointment and have his license restored.Correct
If a licensed representative ceases to be employed with his accredited licensed corporation, both the representative and the corporation must notify the SFC within seven business days
after the cessation. The licensed representative is allowed 180 days for transfer of his accreditation to another licensed corporation, failing which his licence is deemed to have
been revoked upon such cessation.Incorrect
If a licensed representative ceases to be employed with his accredited licensed corporation, both the representative and the corporation must notify the SFC within seven business days
after the cessation. The licensed representative is allowed 180 days for transfer of his accreditation to another licensed corporation, failing which his licence is deemed to have
been revoked upon such cessation.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.27
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Question 370 of 770
370. Question
1 pointsQID227:Which of the following are classified as distributors?
I. Registered Institutions
II. Insurers
III. Securities Dealers
IV. Independent Financial AdvisersCorrect
These are entities classified as distributors of financial services to the general public.
Incorrect
These are entities classified as distributors of financial services to the general public.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.3
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Question 371 of 770
371. Question
1 pointsQID862:Which of the following statements correctly describes responsible officers?
Correct
A responsible officer is a licensed representative who (i) actively participates in or supervises a regulated activity, (ii) is nominated by the licensed corporation as a responsible officer, and (iii) is approved by the SFC as a responsible officer. The definition of
responsible officer as given here is not stated in the SFO but has been provided by the SFC.Incorrect
A responsible officer is a licensed representative who (i) actively participates in or supervises a regulated activity, (ii) is nominated by the licensed corporation as a responsible officer, and (iii) is approved by the SFC as a responsible officer. The definition of
responsible officer as given here is not stated in the SFO but has been provided by the SFC.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.31
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Question 372 of 770
372. Question
1 pointsQID235:Which of the following individuals are Responsible Officers?
Correct
A responsible officer is a licensed representative who
(i) actively participates in or supervises a regulated activity,
(ii) is nominated by the licensed corporation as a responsible officer, and
(iii) is approved by the SFC as a responsible officer.Incorrect
A responsible officer is a licensed representative who
(i) actively participates in or supervises a regulated activity,
(ii) is nominated by the licensed corporation as a responsible officer, and
(iii) is approved by the SFC as a responsible officer.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.31
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Question 373 of 770
373. Question
1 pointsQID1329:Which of the following are duties of the responsible officers of a licensed corporation?
I. Ensuring that the intermediary is financially sound.
II. Ensuring that the intermediary is resourceful in staff and system to effectively, honestly and fairly conduct regulated activities.
III. Ensuring that the intermediary can profit continuously.
IV. Establishing appropriate standards of business conduct and procedures, and ensuring proper compliance by staff at all times.Correct
In general, the duties of responsible officers and executive officers who actively participate in, or supervise, the intermediary’s business may include:
(d) employing only staff who meet the licensing requirements of the SFC, and ensuring that they are sufficiently competent and experienced to perform their work;
(e.) ensuring the intermediary complies with the capital and financial reporting requirements of the SFC, exchange and clearing house;
(f) ensuring the intermediary and its staff comply at all times with the applicable laws, the rules, regulations, guidelines and codes of the SFC, the exchange and clearing house, and the professional bodies of which it is a memberIncorrect
In general, the duties of responsible officers and executive officers who actively participate in, or supervise, the intermediary’s business may include:
(d) employing only staff who meet the licensing requirements of the SFC, and ensuring that they are sufficiently competent and experienced to perform their work;
(e.) ensuring the intermediary complies with the capital and financial reporting requirements of the SFC, exchange and clearing house;
(f) ensuring the intermediary and its staff comply at all times with the applicable laws, the rules, regulations, guidelines and codes of the SFC, the exchange and clearing house, and the professional bodies of which it is a memberHint
Reference Chapter:1.4.31
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Question 374 of 770
374. Question
1 pointsQID1219:A responsible officer is a licensed representative; his duties include:
I. being nominated by the licensed corporation as a responsible officer.
II. being approved by the SFC as a responsible officer.
III. being approved by the HKMA as a responsible officer.
IV. actively participating in or supervising a regulated activity.Correct
A responsible officer is a licensed representative who:
(a) actively participates in or supervises a RA;
(b) is nominated by the licensed corporation as a responsible officer; and
(c.) is approved by the SFC as a responsible officer.Incorrect
A responsible officer is a licensed representative who:
(a) actively participates in or supervises a RA;
(b) is nominated by the licensed corporation as a responsible officer; and
(c.) is approved by the SFC as a responsible officer.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.31
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Question 375 of 770
375. Question
1 pointsQID1220:A responsible officer of regulated activities carried out by a licensed corporation needs to be:
I. nominated by the licensed corporation.
II. approved by the SFC.
III. approved by the HKMA.
IV. approved by the HKEX.Correct
A responsible officer is a licensed representative who:
(a) actively participates in or supervises a RA;
(b) is nominated by the licensed corporation as a responsible officer; and
(c.) is approved by the SFC as a responsible officer.Incorrect
A responsible officer is a licensed representative who:
(a) actively participates in or supervises a RA;
(b) is nominated by the licensed corporation as a responsible officer; and
(c.) is approved by the SFC as a responsible officer.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.31
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Question 376 of 770
376. Question
1 pointsQID229:If a registered representative wishes to become a responsible officer, it should
I. Obtain nomination from the SFC to become a RO
II. Obtain nomination from his principal to become an RO
III. Obtain approval of the SFC to become an RO
IV. Obtain approval of his principal to become an ROCorrect
A responsible officer is a licensed representative who
(ii) is nominated by the licensed corporation as a responsible officer, and
(iii) is approved by the SFC as a responsible officer.Incorrect
A responsible officer is a licensed representative who
(ii) is nominated by the licensed corporation as a responsible officer, and
(iii) is approved by the SFC as a responsible officer.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.31
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Question 377 of 770
377. Question
1 pointsQID2769:If the licensed representative’s employment is terminated, within how many business days should the licensed corporation notify the SFC?
Correct
If the licensed representative ceases to be employed, the licensed corporation shall notify the SFC within 7 business days.
Incorrect
If the licensed representative ceases to be employed, the licensed corporation shall notify the SFC within 7 business days.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.31
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Question 378 of 770
378. Question
1 pointsQID2770:If a licensed representative ceases to be employed, within how many days can the licensed representative be transferred to another licensed corporation?
Correct
If the licensed representative’s employment is terminated, the licensed representative may transfer to another licensed corporation within 180 days.
Incorrect
If the licensed representative’s employment is terminated, the licensed representative may transfer to another licensed corporation within 180 days.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.31
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Question 379 of 770
379. Question
1 pointsQID1222:At least how many executive officers should a registered institution have at all times to supervise the business of the RA concerned.
Correct
At least two executive officers must be appointed in respect of each type of RA, and at all times there must be at least one executive officer available to supervise the business of the RA concerned.
Incorrect
At least two executive officers must be appointed in respect of each type of RA, and at all times there must be at least one executive officer available to supervise the business of the RA concerned.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.32
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Question 380 of 770
380. Question
1 pointsQID1323:A licensed corporation should have at least how many SFC-approved responsible officer(s)?
Correct
Every licensed corporation must have at least two responsible officers approved by the Securities and Futures Commission (“SFC”).
Incorrect
Every licensed corporation must have at least two responsible officers approved by the Securities and Futures Commission (“SFC”).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.32
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Question 381 of 770
381. Question
1 pointsQID1324:Every executive director of a licensed corporation should be approved by the SFC before he can become a responsible officer for the licensed corporation. In the case of a licensed corporation, at least how many responsible officer(s) must be an executive director?
Correct
Every executive director of a licensed corporation is required to obtain the approval of the SFC as a responsible officer. At least one of the responsible officers must be an executive director.
Incorrect
Every executive director of a licensed corporation is required to obtain the approval of the SFC as a responsible officer. At least one of the responsible officers must be an executive director.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.32
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Question 382 of 770
382. Question
1 pointsQID242: A licensed corporation must have
Correct
every licensed corporation must have, for each regulated activity for which it is licensed, at least two responsible officers approved by the SFC as such; and at least one of them shall be an executive director of the licensed corporation.
Incorrect
every licensed corporation must have, for each regulated activity for which it is licensed, at least two responsible officers approved by the SFC as such; and at least one of them shall be an executive director of the licensed corporation.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.32
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Question 383 of 770
383. Question
1 pointsQID239:Under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO), which of the following conditions apply to responsible officers of a licensed corporation?
I. Every responsible officer other than a designated compliance officer must be an executive director.
II. There must be at least two responsible officers for every regulated activity engaged in by a licensed corporation.
III. There must be at least one responsible officer present at all times to supervise the regulated activity of a licensed corporation.
IV. The designated compliance officer must be a responsible officer.Correct
Each licensed corporation is required to:
(a) appoint not less than two responsible officers, at least one of whom must be an executivedirector;
(b) ensure that every individual executive director of the licensed corporation is approved as a responsible officer; and
(c) ensure that it has, for each RA, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the RA for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong.Incorrect
Each licensed corporation is required to:
(a) appoint not less than two responsible officers, at least one of whom must be an executivedirector;
(b) ensure that every individual executive director of the licensed corporation is approved as a responsible officer; and
(c) ensure that it has, for each RA, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the RA for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.32
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Question 384 of 770
384. Question
1 pointsQID1617:Kaohsiung Securities is a licensed corporation that violated the Securities and Futures Ordinance. Are the responsible officers liable for breaches by the corporation of certain fundamental regulatory requirements?
Correct
If an offence under the SFO committed by a licensed corporation is aided or abetted,counselled or procured by, or committed with the consent or is attributable to the recklessness of, an officer of the corporation, that officer will be guilty of the offence and be punishable accordingly.
There is a defence available to such an officer in this regard. The defence is expressly provided for under Part XVI, SFO and essentially discharges a member of management from liability if he can show that he honestly and reasonably believed the failure would not occur. Also if, upon becoming aware of the breach, he acted promptly in notifying the SFC and, until then, had honestly and reasonably believed that the failure would not occur.Incorrect
If an offence under the SFO committed by a licensed corporation is aided or abetted,counselled or procured by, or committed with the consent or is attributable to the recklessness of, an officer of the corporation, that officer will be guilty of the offence and be punishable accordingly.
There is a defence available to such an officer in this regard. The defence is expressly provided for under Part XVI, SFO and essentially discharges a member of management from liability if he can show that he honestly and reasonably believed the failure would not occur. Also if, upon becoming aware of the breach, he acted promptly in notifying the SFC and, until then, had honestly and reasonably believed that the failure would not occur.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.32
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Question 385 of 770
385. Question
1 pointsQID1003:Which of the following descriptions about RO is correct?
Correct
Licensed corporations should ensure that it has, for each RA, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the RA for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
Licensed corporations should ensure that it has, for each RA, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the RA for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.32
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Question 386 of 770
386. Question
1 pointsQID1221:Which of the following restrictions about responsible officers are correct?
I. A licensed corporation should appoint not less than two responsible officers.
II. At least one of the responsible officers should be the executive director of the licensed corporation.
III. All executive directors should be responsible officers.
IV. For each regulated activity, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the regulated activity for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong (s. 118(1)(a)(ii), SFO).Correct
Each licensed corporation is required to:
(a) appoint not less than two responsible officers, at least one of whom must be an executive director (see Note 1 below) (s. 125, SFO);
(b) ensure that every individual executive director of the licensed corporation is approved as a responsible officer (s. 125, SFO); and
(c.) ensure that it has, for each RA, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the RA for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong (s. 118(1)(a)(ii), SFO) (see Note 2 below).Incorrect
Each licensed corporation is required to:
(a) appoint not less than two responsible officers, at least one of whom must be an executive director (see Note 1 below) (s. 125, SFO);
(b) ensure that every individual executive director of the licensed corporation is approved as a responsible officer (s. 125, SFO); and
(c.) ensure that it has, for each RA, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the RA for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong (s. 118(1)(a)(ii), SFO) (see Note 2 below).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.32
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Question 387 of 770
387. Question
1 pointsQID236:Which of the following descriptions about the responsible officer of a licensed corporation are CORRECT?
I. Every executive director of a licensed corporation must be
approved by the SFC as a responsible officer.
II. Every licensed corporation must have, for each of the regulated activity for which it is licensed, at least two responsible officers approved by the SFC as such; and at least one of them shall be an executive director of the licensed corporation.
III. Any licensed corporation must carry out various regulated activities according to the license it was issued with; at least one person must be approved by the SFC as a responsible officer for the regulated activity the licensed corporation was issued a license to carry out, and at least one responsible officer must be established as the executive director of the licensed corporation.
IV. If a licensed corporation is licensed to carry out a number of various types of regulated activities, the responsible officer for each activity may not overlap.Correct
Each licensed corporation is required to:
(a) appoint not less than two responsible officers, at least one of whom must be an executivedirector;
(b) ensure that every individual executive director of the licensed corporation is approved as a responsible officer; and
(c) ensure that it has, for each RA, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the RA for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong.Incorrect
Each licensed corporation is required to:
(a) appoint not less than two responsible officers, at least one of whom must be an executivedirector;
(b) ensure that every individual executive director of the licensed corporation is approved as a responsible officer; and
(c) ensure that it has, for each RA, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the RA for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.32
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Question 388 of 770
388. Question
1 pointsQID238:Which of the following descriptions about a registered institution’s
executive office are is/are CORRECT?
I. A registered institution shall appoint at least 2 executive
officers in respect of each type of regulated activity, and there must be at least 1 executive officer available to supervise the business of the regulated activity at all times.
II. A registered institution shall appoint at least 1 executive officer in respect of each type of regulated activity, and there must be at least 1 executive officer available to supervise the business of the regulated activity at all times.
III. All executive officers of a registered institution must be the directors of the registered institution and must be approved by the SFC as responsible officers.
IV. If a registered institution is licensed to carry out many types of regulated activities, the executive officer for each regulated activity must not overlap.Correct
There must be at least two executive officers appointed by a registered institution in respect of each type of regulated activity, and at all times there must be at least one executive officer available to supervise the business of the regulated activity.
Incorrect
There must be at least two executive officers appointed by a registered institution in respect of each type of regulated activity, and at all times there must be at least one executive officer available to supervise the business of the regulated activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.32
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Question 389 of 770
389. Question
1 pointsQID237:A licensed corporation or registered institution should have
I. at least 2 RO and 1 Executive Director as RO
II. at all times there must be at least 1 executive officer available to supervise the business of the regulated activity
III. at least 1 RO, including 1 an Executive Director as RO
IV. at all times there must be at least 2 executive officer available to supervise the business of the regulated activityCorrect
Each licensed corporation is required to:
(a) appoint not less than two responsible officers, at least one of whom must be an executivedirector;
(b) ensure that every individual executive director of the licensed corporation is approved as a responsible officer; and
(c) ensure that it has, for each RA, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the RA for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong.Incorrect
Each licensed corporation is required to:
(a) appoint not less than two responsible officers, at least one of whom must be an executivedirector;
(b) ensure that every individual executive director of the licensed corporation is approved as a responsible officer; and
(c) ensure that it has, for each RA, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the RA for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.32
-
Question 390 of 770
390. Question
1 pointsQID2847:Which of the following is less likely to be the senior management of a licensed corporation?
Correct
The management of a licensed corporation includes
1. Directors
2. Responsible Officers
3. Managers-in-charge (MIC)Incorrect
The management of a licensed corporation includes
1. Directors
2. Responsible Officers
3. Managers-in-charge (MIC)Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.33
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Question 391 of 770
391. Question
1 pointsQID2865:Which of the followings are facts that RO of licenced corporation is not required to know?
Correct
Responsible Officers are not required to know who the shadow shareholders of the Licensed Corporation.
Incorrect
Responsible Officers are not required to know who the shadow shareholders of the Licensed Corporation.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.35
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Question 392 of 770
392. Question
1 pointsQID232:Which entity is primarily responsible for the regulation of an authorized financial institution that intends to carry out one or more regulated activities under the SFO?
Correct
AFIs (including banks) that are authorised and regulated by the HKMA and conduct the SFC regulated activities must be registered with the SFC as “Registered Institutions”, such status having been set up as a special category because of the special features of AFIs. They are jointly regulated by the HKMA and the SFC, with the HKMA being the front-line regulator that will apply all SFC regulatory criteria, including fitness and properness and business conduct, other than capital adequacy, the handling of client money and the audit requirements in supervising them.
Incorrect
AFIs (including banks) that are authorised and regulated by the HKMA and conduct the SFC regulated activities must be registered with the SFC as “Registered Institutions”, such status having been set up as a special category because of the special features of AFIs. They are jointly regulated by the HKMA and the SFC, with the HKMA being the front-line regulator that will apply all SFC regulatory criteria, including fitness and properness and business conduct, other than capital adequacy, the handling of client money and the audit requirements in supervising them.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.35
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Question 393 of 770
393. Question
1 pointsQID176:Which of the following institutions is required to become a “registered institution”?
Correct
The provisions of the SFO have different applications to the following different classes of person:
(b) “registered institution”, which refers to authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”) directly supervised by the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (“HKMA”) and registered with the SFC.Incorrect
The provisions of the SFO have different applications to the following different classes of person:
(b) “registered institution”, which refers to authorised financial institutions (“AFIs”) directly supervised by the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (“HKMA”) and registered with the SFC.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.35
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Question 394 of 770
394. Question
1 pointsQID2677:With regards to responsible officers of a licensed corporation, which of the following is correct?
Correct
Responsible Officers of a Lincened Corporation may or may not be directors. Its not required that only INED can become a responsible officer of a Licenced Corporation. Only Registered Institutions are required to employ Executive Officers. Each Licenced Corporation must have at least two Responsible Officers.
Incorrect
Responsible Officers of a Lincened Corporation may or may not be directors. Its not required that only INED can become a responsible officer of a Licenced Corporation. Only Registered Institutions are required to employ Executive Officers. Each Licenced Corporation must have at least two Responsible Officers.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.36
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Question 395 of 770
395. Question
1 pointsQID2651:Persons responsible for the overall management oversight function and key business line function should
Correct
Persons responsible for the overall management oversight function and key business line function should become both MIC or RO.
Incorrect
Persons responsible for the overall management oversight function and key business line function should become both MIC or RO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.38
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Question 396 of 770
396. Question
1 pointsQID2689:Under the Securities and Futures Ordinance, soliciting others to buy securities is classified as which type of regulated activity?
Correct
Soliciting others to buy securities is defined as “dealing in securities,” which is a Type 1 Regulated Activity as per the Securities and Futures Ordinance. This includes making or offering to make an agreement, or inducing or attempting to induce another person to enter into an agreement for acquiring, disposing of, subscribing for, or underwriting securities.
Incorrect
Soliciting others to buy securities is defined as “dealing in securities,” which is a Type 1 Regulated Activity as per the Securities and Futures Ordinance. This includes making or offering to make an agreement, or inducing or attempting to induce another person to enter into an agreement for acquiring, disposing of, subscribing for, or underwriting securities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.4
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Question 397 of 770
397. Question
1 pointsQID241:Why do licensed corporations need to determine the identity of substantial shareholder?
Correct
The status of substantial shareholder has special relevance to the application of the licensing regime. A person may not become or continue to be a substantial shareholder of a licensed corporation without first being approved by the SFC.
Incorrect
The status of substantial shareholder has special relevance to the application of the licensing regime. A person may not become or continue to be a substantial shareholder of a licensed corporation without first being approved by the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.40
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Question 398 of 770
398. Question
1 pointsQID240:A substantial shareholder of a licensed corporation needs to be approved by the
Correct
The status of substantial shareholder has special relevance to the application of the licensing regime. A person may not become or continue to be a substantial shareholder of a licensed corporation without first being approved by the SFC as such (s. 131 and s. 6, Schedule 1, SFO).
Incorrect
The status of substantial shareholder has special relevance to the application of the licensing regime. A person may not become or continue to be a substantial shareholder of a licensed corporation without first being approved by the SFC as such (s. 131 and s. 6, Schedule 1, SFO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.40
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Question 399 of 770
399. Question
1 pointsQID1004:Black Flower Oil has acquired 15% of shares of a licenced corporation, Millionaire Securities, in the past month. Until now, Black Flower Oil and Millionaire Securities have made no notification to the SFC about such acquisition. Is there anything wrong?
Correct
One must be approved by the SFC prior to becoming a substantial shareholder of a licenced corporation. Otherwise, it is against the SFO. Anyone with 10% of more of shares in a Licenced Corporation will be considered as a substantial shareholder.
Incorrect
One must be approved by the SFC prior to becoming a substantial shareholder of a licenced corporation. Otherwise, it is against the SFO. Anyone with 10% of more of shares in a Licenced Corporation will be considered as a substantial shareholder.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.41
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Question 400 of 770
400. Question
1 pointsQID243:Which of the following is/are substantial shareholders of, Millionaire Securities, a licensed corporation?
I. Mr. Ip, who has a 11% stake of Millionaire Securities.
II. Ms. Chan, who has 20% of the voting power of Millionaire
Securities.
III. Mr. Mok, who was granted the authority to manage the investments of his seriously-ill spouse, Ms. Eu. Ms. Eu has a
30% stake of Millionaire Securities.
IV. Ms. Lau, who inherited her family business, Black Flower Oil. She has a 35% stake of Black Flower Oil and the company holds a 15% stake of Millionaire Securities.Correct
A substantial shareholder of a corporation refer to a person who alone or together with his associates:
(a) has an interest of more than 10% of the total number of issued shares of the corporation;
(b) directly or indirectly has more than 10% of the voting power of the corporation at a general meeting; or
© is able to exercise 35% or more of the voting power of another corporation at a general meeting which in turn has more than 10% of the voting power of the corporation at a general meeting.
All of the individuals mentioned in this question comply with one or more of the criteria set for someone to become a substantial shareholder.Incorrect
A substantial shareholder of a corporation refer to a person who alone or together with his associates:
(a) has an interest of more than 10% of the total number of issued shares of the corporation;
(b) directly or indirectly has more than 10% of the voting power of the corporation at a general meeting; or
© is able to exercise 35% or more of the voting power of another corporation at a general meeting which in turn has more than 10% of the voting power of the corporation at a general meeting.
All of the individuals mentioned in this question comply with one or more of the criteria set for someone to become a substantial shareholder.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.41
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Question 401 of 770
401. Question
1 pointsQID2783:Mr. Ko owns 45% of the voting rights of Kaohsiung Enterprises. Recently Mr. Ko intends to increase his holding of shares of Kaohsiung Enterprises by 10% while Kaohsiung Enterprise holds 15% shares of Kaohsiung Securities, a licensed corporation. Should Mr. Ko obtain SFC’s approval before increasing his Kaohsiung shares holdings?
Correct
Since Kaohsiung Enterprises controls more than 10% of Kaohsiung Securities, Kaohsiung Enterprises is the substantial shareholder of Kaohsiung Securities. Mr. Ko controls more than 35% shares of Kaohsiung Enterprises, so he indirectly becomes a substantial shareholder of Kaohsiung Securities.
SFC’s approval is only required if a non-substantial shareholder becomes a substantial shareholder. As Mr. Ko has been a substantial shareholder of Kaohsiung Securities, there is no need for the approval of the SFC.
Incorrect
Since Kaohsiung Enterprises controls more than 10% of Kaohsiung Securities, Kaohsiung Enterprises is the substantial shareholder of Kaohsiung Securities. Mr. Ko controls more than 35% shares of Kaohsiung Enterprises, so he indirectly becomes a substantial shareholder of Kaohsiung Securities.
SFC’s approval is only required if a non-substantial shareholder becomes a substantial shareholder. As Mr. Ko has been a substantial shareholder of Kaohsiung Securities, there is no need for the approval of the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.45
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Question 402 of 770
402. Question
1 pointsQID149:Which of the following are potential barriers of becoming a director of a company?
I. Anyone aged 21 or below
II. Undischarged bankrupts
III. Persistent default in relation to the NCO
IV. A finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent companyCorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c) They must not be disqualified by court order; the four principal grounds for such an order being:
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the CO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c) They must not be disqualified by court order; the four principal grounds for such an order being:
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the CO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.46
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Question 403 of 770
403. Question
1 pointsQID1576:While the SFC is evaluating the directors of a fund manager, which of the following factors will not be taken into consideration?
Correct
An individual applicant should not, in Hong Kong or elsewhere, be an undischarged bankrupt or a recently discharged bankrupt, be currently involved in bankruptcy or similar proceedings or have failed to meet any judgement debt.
Incorrect
An individual applicant should not, in Hong Kong or elsewhere, be an undischarged bankrupt or a recently discharged bankrupt, be currently involved in bankruptcy or similar proceedings or have failed to meet any judgement debt.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.46
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Question 404 of 770
404. Question
1 pointsQID250:The fit and proper guidelines will judge a persons fit and properness by his/her,
I. financial status or solvency
II. historic investment profitability
III. academic attainment and competencies
IV. reputation and integrityCorrect
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. These relate to:
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience;
© ability to carry on the regulated activity competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Incorrect
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. These relate to:
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience;
© ability to carry on the regulated activity competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.46
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Question 405 of 770
405. Question
1 pointsQID153:iss Ko, an employee of Hai Nei Company, has committed an act of market misconduct while undertaking the company’s business and is facing charges. In which of the following scenarios would Mr. Wan, the director of Hoi Nei Company, be legally accountable?
Correct
Directors are additionally subject to other, more specific duties
imposed upon them by particular statutory provisions. For example, Twelfth Schedule, the CWUMPO provides for a fine and/or imprisonment for a director that authorises the issue of
a prospectus containing an untrue statement. Where a director breaches strict requirements of the NCO, such as failing to prepare financial statements when required to do so, liability
will also arise. It is therefore important that directors understand both the general and the specific responsibilities imposed upon them, and how to properly discharge them, in order to fulfil their roles as directors and to address their exposure to directors’ liabilities.Incorrect
Directors are additionally subject to other, more specific duties
imposed upon them by particular statutory provisions. For example, Twelfth Schedule, the CWUMPO provides for a fine and/or imprisonment for a director that authorises the issue of
a prospectus containing an untrue statement. Where a director breaches strict requirements of the NCO, such as failing to prepare financial statements when required to do so, liability
will also arise. It is therefore important that directors understand both the general and the specific responsibilities imposed upon them, and how to properly discharge them, in order to fulfil their roles as directors and to address their exposure to directors’ liabilities.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.46
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Question 406 of 770
406. Question
1 pointsQID861:The SFC will not take which of the following into consideration when measuring an applicants’ competence and integrity?
Correct
An individual applicant should meet age requirements (i.e. 18 years for representatives or equivalents) and competence qualifications as listed in the Fit and Proper Guidelines and amplified in the Guidelines on Competence. The competence tests involve experience and educational qualifications. They don’t include investment track records.
Incorrect
An individual applicant should meet age requirements (i.e. 18 years for representatives or equivalents) and competence qualifications as listed in the Fit and Proper Guidelines and amplified in the Guidelines on Competence. The competence tests involve experience and educational qualifications. They don’t include investment track records.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.47
-
Question 407 of 770
407. Question
1 pointsQID2664:Miss Mok is a shareholder of a licensed corporation. Since the licesed corporation is buying back its shares, Miss Mok holdings in the company has increased to over 10% which in turn makes her a substantial shareholder. Miss Mok is only aware of this after two weeks, what can she do?
Correct
She should notify the SFC in writing within 3 days of becoming aware of such incident.
Incorrect
She should notify the SFC in writing within 3 days of becoming aware of such incident.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.47
-
Question 408 of 770
408. Question
1 pointsQID1229:Applicants for licences or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements. The main categories of the fit and proper requirements as stated in the SFO include:
I. the net worth and financial status of the applicant.
II. The educational or other qualifications or experience (having regard to the nature of the functions to be performed).
III. The ability to carry on the regulated activity competently, honestly and fairly.
IV. The reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Correct
Both corporate (including officers e.g. directors, managers etc.) and individual applicants for licences or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements. There are four main categories of these fit and proper requirements (s. 129, SFO):
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience (having regard to the nature of the functions to be performed);
(c.) ability to carry on the RA competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Incorrect
Both corporate (including officers e.g. directors, managers etc.) and individual applicants for licences or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements. There are four main categories of these fit and proper requirements (s. 129, SFO):
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience (having regard to the nature of the functions to be performed);
(c.) ability to carry on the RA competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.48
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Question 409 of 770
409. Question
1 pointsQID1232:Which of the following are part of the competence and capability tests of the SFC and HKMA?
I. Experience.
II. Educational qualifications.
III. Performance in the Industry.
IV. An undischarged or recently discharged bankrupt, be currently involved in bankruptcy or similar proceedings or have failed to meet any judgment debt.Correct
The competence tests involve experience and educational qualifications.
Incorrect
The competence tests involve experience and educational qualifications.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.48
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Question 410 of 770
410. Question
1 pointsQID1231:An individual applicant should meet age requirements (i.e. 18 years for representatives or equivalents) and competence qualifications as listed in the Fit and Proper Guidelines and amplified in the Guidelines on Competence. The competence tests include which of the following?
I. A relevant person’s experience.
II. A relevant person’s educational qualifications.
III. A relevant person’s past performance in the industry.
IV. A relevant person has not breached any codes or guidelines promulgated by the SFC or other regulators.Correct
An individual applicant should meet age requirements (i.e. 18 years for representatives or equivalents) and competence qualifications as listed in the Fit and Proper Guidelines and amplified in the Guidelines on Competence. The competence tests involve experience and educational qualifications.
Incorrect
An individual applicant should meet age requirements (i.e. 18 years for representatives or equivalents) and competence qualifications as listed in the Fit and Proper Guidelines and amplified in the Guidelines on Competence. The competence tests involve experience and educational qualifications.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.48
-
Question 411 of 770
411. Question
1 pointsQID249:The fit and proper criteria for SFC licensing of corporations and individuals include matters relating to
I. Financial status or solvency
II. Competence
III. Capability
IV. Character.Correct
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. These relate to:
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience;
© ability to carry on the regulated activity competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Incorrect
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. These relate to:
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience;
© ability to carry on the regulated activity competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.48
-
Question 412 of 770
412. Question
1 pointsQID1230:Which of the following are categories of the fitness and properness requirements set by the SFO?
I. Net worth
II. Educational or other qualifications or experience
III. Ability to carry on the regulated activity competently, honestly and fairly
IV. Reputation, character, reliability and financial integrityCorrect
Both corporate (including officers e.g. directors, managers etc.) and individual applicants for licences or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements. There are four main categories of these fit and proper requirements (s. 129, SFO):
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience (having regard to the nature of the functions to be performed);
(c.) ability to carry on the RA competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Incorrect
Both corporate (including officers e.g. directors, managers etc.) and individual applicants for licences or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements. There are four main categories of these fit and proper requirements (s. 129, SFO):
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience (having regard to the nature of the functions to be performed);
(c.) ability to carry on the RA competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.48
-
Question 413 of 770
413. Question
1 pointsQID1233:Which of the following criteria does the SFC NOT taken into account of when considering an applicant’s character and integrity?
Correct
An individual applicant should satisfy the SFC (or the HKMA as appropriate) that he:
(b) has not breached any codes or guidelines promulgated by the SFC or other regulators;
(c) has not been subject to disciplinary action by professional associations;
(d) has not been disqualified by the court from acting as a director, as detailed in the Fit and Proper Guidelines; and
(e) has not been a director or substantial shareholder of, or been involved in managing, an insolvent corporation.
Therefore, only D is not considered by theSFC.Incorrect
An individual applicant should satisfy the SFC (or the HKMA as appropriate) that he:
(b) has not breached any codes or guidelines promulgated by the SFC or other regulators;
(c) has not been subject to disciplinary action by professional associations;
(d) has not been disqualified by the court from acting as a director, as detailed in the Fit and Proper Guidelines; and
(e) has not been a director or substantial shareholder of, or been involved in managing, an insolvent corporation.
Therefore, only D is not considered by theSFC.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.49
-
Question 414 of 770
414. Question
1 pointsQID230:British Construction Bank is an authorised financial institution. Amid the downfall of the Hong Kong banking sector, it would like start an asset management business and sell CIS fund products it manages to clients to generate revenue. Which type license of regulated activity should British Construction Bank apply for to conduct such activities?
Correct
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(c.) the registration of AFIs to engage in one or more of the 12 types of RA (“registeredinstitutions”) .
As an authorised financial institution, British Construction Bank must be registered with the SFC to conduct any SFC Regulated Activities. For managing funds and offering CIS fund products to clients, a Type 9 (asset management) license is required.Incorrect
Part V, SFO provides for the implementation of the licensing regime, including:
(c.) the registration of AFIs to engage in one or more of the 12 types of RA (“registeredinstitutions”) .
As an authorised financial institution, British Construction Bank must be registered with the SFC to conduct any SFC Regulated Activities. For managing funds and offering CIS fund products to clients, a Type 9 (asset management) license is required.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.5
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Question 415 of 770
415. Question
1 pointsQID330:Mr Ko is an asset manager working for Kaohsiung Securities, A licensed corporation. Mr Ko has managed a number of CIS, mostly bond funds. Mr Wan is a seasoned investor who has invested in funds that were managed by Mr Ko for a long time. He trusted Mr Ko and ask if Mr Ko can handle his personal investment which includes securities and futures. Mr Ko does not have enough time to manage Mr Wan’s portfolio and thus refer Stock broker from another company Mr Ip to handle Mr Wan’s request. Mr Wan then invests heavily with Mr Ip and has generated a substantial amount of commission for Mr Ip. Mr Ip thus promised to pay Mr Ko some introductory fee and Mr Ko agreed to it. Should Mr Ko apply for a licence for Type 1 regulated activity in this case?
Correct
One of the categories of persons conducting Type 1 regulated activity according to the SFC includes:
(f) a securities introducing agent.Incorrect
One of the categories of persons conducting Type 1 regulated activity according to the SFC includes:
(f) a securities introducing agent.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.5
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Question 416 of 770
416. Question
1 pointsQID1234:Which of the following descriptions about an intermediary’s ability to comply with the capital requirements are accurate?
I. Registered institutions should comply with HKMA’s capital adequacy requirements.
II. Licensed corporation should comply with SFC’s FRR.
III. Licensed corporation should comply with HKMA’s capital adequacy requirements.
IV. Registered Institutions should comply with SFC’s FRR.Correct
An intermediary should:
(a) be able to comply with the capital requirements: for licensed corporations the FRR, and for registered institutions the HKMA’s capital adequacy requirements.Incorrect
An intermediary should:
(a) be able to comply with the capital requirements: for licensed corporations the FRR, and for registered institutions the HKMA’s capital adequacy requirements.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.50
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Question 417 of 770
417. Question
1 pointsQID253:Kaohsiung Securities is a licensed corporation that conduct asset management businesses. Recently Kaohsiung Securities is having civil litigations overseas which might adversely affects its financial well being. Should Kaohsiung contact the SFC regarding such events?
Correct
An intermediary should:
(a) be able to comply with the capital requirements: for licensed corporations, the FRR; for registered institutions, the HKMA’s capital adequacy requirements; and
(b) not be subject to bankruptcy proceedings or have failed to meet a judgment debt.
In this case, if the Kaohsiung Securities will be adversely affected economically by an unfavorable judgment, it would be better to notify the China Securities Regulatory Commission in advance, so choose A.Incorrect
An intermediary should:
(a) be able to comply with the capital requirements: for licensed corporations, the FRR; for registered institutions, the HKMA’s capital adequacy requirements; and
(b) not be subject to bankruptcy proceedings or have failed to meet a judgment debt.
In this case, if the Kaohsiung Securities will be adversely affected economically by an unfavorable judgment, it would be better to notify the China Securities Regulatory Commission in advance, so choose A.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.50
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Question 418 of 770
418. Question
1 pointsQID259:The regulator must ensure that a licensed corporation has enough capital within the corporation (or available to it from external sources):
I. to support the level of its business activities
II. to meet its liabilities as they fall due
III. to compensate its clients for their losses due to market volatility
IV. to provide a buffer in the event of a sudden market changes, disruptions or loss of confidenceCorrect
Why are capital requirements necessary?
The capital market relies on investors’ confidence that intermediaries have sufficient capital:
(a) to support the level of their business activities;
(b) to meet their liabilities as they fall due; and
(c) to provide buffers in the event of sudden market changes, disruptions or loss of confidence.Incorrect
Why are capital requirements necessary?
The capital market relies on investors’ confidence that intermediaries have sufficient capital:
(a) to support the level of their business activities;
(b) to meet their liabilities as they fall due; and
(c) to provide buffers in the event of sudden market changes, disruptions or loss of confidence.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.50
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Question 419 of 770
419. Question
1 pointsQID811:Are Registered Institutions required to adhere to the FRR?
Correct
Licensed corporations (but not registered institutions) must meet the FRR set by the SFC.
Incorrect
Licensed corporations (but not registered institutions) must meet the FRR set by the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.50
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Question 420 of 770
420. Question
1 pointsQID758:The Fit and proper guidelines of the SFO are more likely to apply to which of the following individuals or entities?
I. Company that’s applying for a license or registration.
II. Representative of company that’s applying for a license or registration.
III. Executive Director of company that’s applying for a license or registration.
IV. Professional InvestorCorrect
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. These requirements apply to applicants and to licensed and registered persons on an ongoing basis. Compliance with the requirements will be monitored by the HKMA in the case of AFIs and their executive officers and staff, and by the SFC in the case of others.
Incorrect
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. These requirements apply to applicants and to licensed and registered persons on an ongoing basis. Compliance with the requirements will be monitored by the HKMA in the case of AFIs and their executive officers and staff, and by the SFC in the case of others.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.53
-
Question 421 of 770
421. Question
1 pointsQID2367:Mr. Wan got fined because of a public fight in Singapore last month. Mr. Wan is registering for a license now. He didn’t report this crime to avoid the hassle. Is there any wrong doing with Mr. Wan?
Correct
Mr. Wan’s concealment of information from the SFC was a violation of the Securities and Futures Ordinance.
The Code of Conduct applies to licensed or registered persons.Incorrect
Mr. Wan’s concealment of information from the SFC was a violation of the Securities and Futures Ordinance.
The Code of Conduct applies to licensed or registered persons.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.53
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Question 422 of 770
422. Question
1 pointsQID2819:The fit and proper guidelines are less considered when processing applications for licences or registrations
Correct
Factors to be considered in the Fit and Proper Guidelines:
1. The applicant’s financial situation
2. Whether the applicant has the ability to carry out the regulated activity competently and fairly
3. The character of the applicant
4. Applicant’s academic qualificationsHowever, applicants do not necessarily need a bachelor’s degree or above to meet the requirements, so it is the best out of the 4 options.
Incorrect
Factors to be considered in the Fit and Proper Guidelines:
1. The applicant’s financial situation
2. Whether the applicant has the ability to carry out the regulated activity competently and fairly
3. The character of the applicant
4. Applicant’s academic qualificationsHowever, applicants do not necessarily need a bachelor’s degree or above to meet the requirements, so it is the best out of the 4 options.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.53
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Question 423 of 770
423. Question
1 pointsQID251:The fit and proper guidelines will judge a person’s fitness and properness by his/her,
I. financial status or solvency
II. Historic investment performance
III. Educational or other qualifications or experience, ability to carry on the regulated activity competently, honestly and fairly; and
IV. Reputation, character, reliability and financial integrityCorrect
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. These relate to:
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience;
© ability to carry on the regulated activity competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Incorrect
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. These relate to:
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience;
© ability to carry on the regulated activity competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.53
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Question 424 of 770
424. Question
1 pointsQID252:Mr Wan would like to become a licenced representative and conduct securities dealing business. He has already acquired a pass in the Paper 1, Paper 7 and Paper 8 of the Licencing Exam. Which of the following experience of Mr Wan may not have an adverse effect
Correct
Option 1, 3 and 4 will adversely affect Mr. Wan to become a licensed representative given the following:
Individual applicants for licensing or registration should satisfy the SFC (or the HKMA as appropriate) that he:
(a) is of good character;
(b) has not breached any codes or guidelines promulgated by the SFC or other regulators;
(c) has not been subject to disciplinary action by professional associations;
(d) has not been disqualified by the court from acting as a director, as detailed in the Fit and Proper Guidelines; and
€ has not been a director or substantial shareholder of, or been involved in managing, an insolvent corporation.Incorrect
Option 1, 3 and 4 will adversely affect Mr. Wan to become a licensed representative given the following:
Individual applicants for licensing or registration should satisfy the SFC (or the HKMA as appropriate) that he:
(a) is of good character;
(b) has not breached any codes or guidelines promulgated by the SFC or other regulators;
(c) has not been subject to disciplinary action by professional associations;
(d) has not been disqualified by the court from acting as a director, as detailed in the Fit and Proper Guidelines; and
€ has not been a director or substantial shareholder of, or been involved in managing, an insolvent corporation.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.53
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Question 425 of 770
425. Question
1 pointsQID1005:In considering the licence application or registration of Type 2 applicants, the SFC will consider which of the following?
I. The academic qualification of the applicants
II. The applicants’ character
III. The applicant’s experience in the industry
IV. The applicants’ financial statusCorrect
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. These relate to:
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience (having regard to the nature of the functions to be performed);
© ability to carry on the regulated activity competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Incorrect
The corporate (including its officers e.g. directors, managers, etc.) and individual applicants for licensing or registration have to satisfy fitness and properness requirements stated in the Fit and Proper Guidelines. These relate to:
(a) financial status or solvency;
(b) educational or other qualifications or experience (having regard to the nature of the functions to be performed);
© ability to carry on the regulated activity competently, honestly and fairly; and
(d) reputation, character, reliability and financial integrity.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.53
-
Question 426 of 770
426. Question
1 pointsQID1665:SFC will not considered which of the following traits of an applicant’s when assessing the fit and properness of the applicant?
Correct
SFC will not considered an applicant’s profitability while assessing its fit and properness.
Incorrect
SFC will not considered an applicant’s profitability while assessing its fit and properness.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.53
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Question 427 of 770
427. Question
1 pointsQID1235:The Guidelines on CPT set out the SFC’s requirements that the conduct and arrangements of CPT programmes are responsibilities of which of the following organizations or persons?
Correct
The Guidelines on CPT set out the SFC’s requirements that, among other things,:
(a) corporations should conduct or arrange CPT programmes best suited for their staff to enhance their industry knowledge, skills and professionalismIncorrect
The Guidelines on CPT set out the SFC’s requirements that, among other things,:
(a) corporations should conduct or arrange CPT programmes best suited for their staff to enhance their industry knowledge, skills and professionalismHint
Reference Chapter:1.4.55
-
Question 428 of 770
428. Question
1 pointsQID2583:Which of the following will the SFC consider in the case of licensing a Type 1 representative?
i. Industry experience and/or educational level
ii. Must have 3 years of work experience in a Type 1 intermediary
iii. Whether or not he/she has been the management of an insolvent corporation
iv. Investment experienceCorrect
Normally, passes in the subjects of [Chinese subject and Mathematics] or [English subject and Mathematics] in the High School Examination is the minimum educational level requirement for become a licensed representative, may or may not with the aid of a certain years of work experience in the industry. Also, if one has been the management of an insolvent corporation recently, it may hold him/her back from obtaining the license. However, you do not need the experience of participating in a type 1 firm as a staff member nor the experience in investment.
Incorrect
Normally, passes in the subjects of [Chinese subject and Mathematics] or [English subject and Mathematics] in the High School Examination is the minimum educational level requirement for become a licensed representative, may or may not with the aid of a certain years of work experience in the industry. Also, if one has been the management of an insolvent corporation recently, it may hold him/her back from obtaining the license. However, you do not need the experience of participating in a type 1 firm as a staff member nor the experience in investment.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.55
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Question 429 of 770
429. Question
1 pointsQID257:Mr Ko is a licensed representative of a licensed corporation -Kaohsiung Securities and conduct type 9 activities as a representative. According to the CPT requirement of the SFC, what kind of requirements should Mr Ko satisfy to be fit and proper?
Correct
Under the SFC’s Guidelines on CPT: a licensed representative or relevant individual must undertake a minimum of ten CPT hours per calendar year (regardless of the number and types of regulated activities he or she engages in) while a responsible officer or executive officer must undertake a minimum of twelve CPT hours per calendar year (in which the two additional CPT hours should be related to regulatory compliance). So Mr Ko should ensure that he has at least 10 hours of CPT per year.
Incorrect
Under the SFC’s Guidelines on CPT: a licensed representative or relevant individual must undertake a minimum of ten CPT hours per calendar year (regardless of the number and types of regulated activities he or she engages in) while a responsible officer or executive officer must undertake a minimum of twelve CPT hours per calendar year (in which the two additional CPT hours should be related to regulatory compliance). So Mr Ko should ensure that he has at least 10 hours of CPT per year.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.55
-
Question 430 of 770
430. Question
1 pointsQID1577:Which of the following form of activity is not a prescribed method of attaining CPT hours under the Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training?
Correct
CPT may be achieved through attending courses, workshops, lectures and seminars; distance learning; self-study with submission of assignments to recognised institutions; research; publications; speeches and so on.
Incorrect
CPT may be achieved through attending courses, workshops, lectures and seminars; distance learning; self-study with submission of assignments to recognised institutions; research; publications; speeches and so on.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.56
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Question 431 of 770
431. Question
1 pointsQID148:Which of the following actions may result in disqualification as director by court order?
I. Ms. Chung was persistently in default in relation to the Companies Ordinance or when acting as a liquidator or receiver
II. Mr. Tse committed fraud concerning minor company matters, including the preparation of false accounts
III. Ms. Wang served as a director last year of an insolvent company that was liquidated due to the poor management of other directors
IV. Mr. Ng was convicted of an indictable offence involving fraud, dishonesty, or related to the formation or operation of companiesCorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must not be disqualified by a court order. The four primary grounds for such an order include conviction for an indictable offence involving fraud, dishonesty, or related to the formation or management of companies; persistent default concerning the Companies Ordinance or when acting as a liquidator or receiver; committing fraud in relation to company matters or engaging in fraudulent trading; and being deemed an unfit director while serving in an insolvent company.
Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must not be disqualified by a court order. The four primary grounds for such an order include conviction for an indictable offence involving fraud, dishonesty, or related to the formation or management of companies; persistent default concerning the Companies Ordinance or when acting as a liquidator or receiver; committing fraud in relation to company matters or engaging in fraudulent trading; and being deemed an unfit director while serving in an insolvent company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.56
-
Question 432 of 770
432. Question
1 pointsQID1666:Which of the following are not an acceptable method of CPT?
Correct
Reading Financial Publications is not an acceptable form of acquiring CPT hours.
Incorrect
Reading Financial Publications is not an acceptable form of acquiring CPT hours.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.56
-
Question 433 of 770
433. Question
1 pointsQID1217:Are registered institutions required to comply with the SFC’s regulatory criteria, including Fitness and Properness and Business Conduct?
Correct
AFIs (including banks) are jointly regulated by the
HKMA and the SFC, with the HKMA being the front-line regulator that will apply all SFC regulatory criteria, including fitness and properness and business conduct, other than capital
adequacy, the handling of client money and the audit requirements in supervising them.Incorrect
AFIs (including banks) are jointly regulated by the
HKMA and the SFC, with the HKMA being the front-line regulator that will apply all SFC regulatory criteria, including fitness and properness and business conduct, other than capital
adequacy, the handling of client money and the audit requirements in supervising them.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.58
-
Question 434 of 770
434. Question
1 pointsQID247:British Construction Securities is a securities broker of the UK. It wishes to conduct a series of bond dealing in Hong Kong on behalf of a client for a period of less than 3 months. Should British Construction Securities register or apply for a licence?
Correct
The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) may grant a temporary licence, subject to conditions, to a corporation which principally carries on its business overseas, allowing it to conduct one or more than one regulated activity (other than Type 3 and Type 7 to Type 9 regulated activities) in Hong Kong.
Therefore, if British Construction Securities wishes to come to Hong Kong to carry out a series of bond transactions for its clients, it can apply to the SFC for a temporary licence for Type 1 regulated activities.
Incorrect
The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) may grant a temporary licence, subject to conditions, to a corporation which principally carries on its business overseas, allowing it to conduct one or more than one regulated activity (other than Type 3 and Type 7 to Type 9 regulated activities) in Hong Kong.
Therefore, if British Construction Securities wishes to come to Hong Kong to carry out a series of bond transactions for its clients, it can apply to the SFC for a temporary licence for Type 1 regulated activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.58
-
Question 435 of 770
435. Question
1 pointsQID2806:What is the minimum age for a licensed representative?
Correct
The minimum age to become a licensed representative is 18.
Incorrect
The minimum age to become a licensed representative is 18.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.58
-
Question 436 of 770
436. Question
1 pointsQID810:M.D. Yu is a seasoned and successful investor. She always brags about her investment track record to her friends. Her friends have provided M.D. Yu with “Tea Money” (Cash for sundry expenses) and have asked M.D. Yu to refer her stock broker to them, allowing them to replicate M.D. Yu’s success. If M.D. Yu agrees to this practice, should M.D. Yu apply for a licence for these activities?
Correct
M.D. Yu should apply for a Type 1 License because she is acting as a securities introducing agent by referring her friends to her stock broker. This activity falls under Type 1 regulated activity (dealing in securities) as per the Securities and Futures Ordinance. Therefore, she needs a Type 1 License to legally conduct these activities.
Incorrect
M.D. Yu should apply for a Type 1 License because she is acting as a securities introducing agent by referring her friends to her stock broker. This activity falls under Type 1 regulated activity (dealing in securities) as per the Securities and Futures Ordinance. Therefore, she needs a Type 1 License to legally conduct these activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.6
-
Question 437 of 770
437. Question
1 pointsQID2916:According to the SFC’s “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, how many hours of continuous training must a licensed representative or relevant person attend each calendar year?
Correct
According to the SFC’s “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, a licensed representative or relevant person must attend at least 10 hours of continuous training each calendar year.
Incorrect
According to the SFC’s “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, a licensed representative or relevant person must attend at least 10 hours of continuous training each calendar year.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.66
-
Question 438 of 770
438. Question
1 pointsQID2866:Licenced Representatives and Relevant Individuals must ensure that they have more than how many hours of CPT per year?
Correct
Licenced Representatives and Relevant Individuals must ensure that they have more than 10 hours of CPT per year?
Incorrect
Licenced Representatives and Relevant Individuals must ensure that they have more than 10 hours of CPT per year?
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.66
-
Question 439 of 770
439. Question
1 pointsQID2869:RO and EO must ensure that they have more than how many hours of CPT per year directly related to their regulated activity?
Correct
RO and EO must ensure that they have more than 5 hours of CPT directly related to their regulated activity.
Incorrect
RO and EO must ensure that they have more than 5 hours of CPT directly related to their regulated activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.66
-
Question 440 of 770
440. Question
1 pointsQID2919:How many hours of sponsor-related continuous professional training must an individual practitioner engaged in sponsor work participate in each year?
Correct
According to the SFC’s “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, individual practitioners engaged in sponsor work must participate in no less than 2.5 hours of sponsor-related continuous professional training.
Incorrect
According to the SFC’s “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, individual practitioners engaged in sponsor work must participate in no less than 2.5 hours of sponsor-related continuous professional training.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.66
-
Question 441 of 770
441. Question
1 pointsQID2918:According to the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training” of the Securities and Futures Commission, how many hours of continuous training must a responsible officer or executive officer attend each calendar year?
Correct
According to the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training” of the Securities and Futures Commission, a responsible officer or executive officer must attend at least 12 hours of continuous training each calendar year.
Incorrect
According to the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training” of the Securities and Futures Commission, a responsible officer or executive officer must attend at least 12 hours of continuous training each calendar year.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.66
-
Question 442 of 770
442. Question
1 pointsQID2868:Licenced Representatives and Relevant Individuals must ensure that they have more than how many hours of CPT per year directly related to their regulated activity?
Correct
Licenced Representatives and Relevant Individuals must ensure that they have more than 5 hours of CPT directly related to their regulated activity.
Incorrect
Licenced Representatives and Relevant Individuals must ensure that they have more than 5 hours of CPT directly related to their regulated activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.66
-
Question 443 of 770
443. Question
1 pointsQID2867:RO and EO must ensure that they have more than how many hours of CPT per year?
Correct
RO and EO must ensure that they have more than 12 hours of CPT per year. (The 2 extra hours should be related to regulator compliance).
Incorrect
RO and EO must ensure that they have more than 12 hours of CPT per year. (The 2 extra hours should be related to regulator compliance).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.66
-
Question 444 of 770
444. Question
1 pointsQID2917:How many hours of continuous professional training related to professional ethics must a new individual practitioner complete within 12 months?
Correct
According to the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training” of the Securities and Futures Commission, new individual practitioners must complete 2 hours of continuous professional training related to professional ethics within 12 months.
Incorrect
According to the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training” of the Securities and Futures Commission, new individual practitioners must complete 2 hours of continuous professional training related to professional ethics within 12 months.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.66
-
Question 445 of 770
445. Question
1 pointsQID2923:In the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, which areas do general licensed persons need to undergo continuous training in?
Correct
According to “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, the relevant topics for the continuous training of general licensed persons include environment, social and governance, fintech, cybersecurity, etc.
Incorrect
According to “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, the relevant topics for the continuous training of general licensed persons include environment, social and governance, fintech, cybersecurity, etc.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.66
-
Question 446 of 770
446. Question
1 pointsQID2920:According to the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, which of the following is not included in the continuous training related topics for general licensed persons?
Correct
According to the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, the continuous training related topics for general licensed persons include applicable compliance guidelines, legal regulations and regulatory standards, market developments, newly launched financial products and risk management systems, and cybersecurity, etc., but do not include risk management and monitoring strategies, which is a topic for responsible officers.
Incorrect
According to the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, the continuous training related topics for general licensed persons include applicable compliance guidelines, legal regulations and regulatory standards, market developments, newly launched financial products and risk management systems, and cybersecurity, etc., but do not include risk management and monitoring strategies, which is a topic for responsible officers.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.68
-
Question 447 of 770
447. Question
1 pointsQID2921:According to “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, which of the following topics is not included in the continuous training for Responsible Officers?
Correct
According to “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, the topics related to the continuous training for Responsible Officers include business management, risk management and monitoring strategies, general management and supervision skills, macro and micro economic analysis, and financial reporting and quantitative analysis, etc., but do not include basic economic analysis, which is a topic for general Licensed Persons.
Incorrect
According to “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, the topics related to the continuous training for Responsible Officers include business management, risk management and monitoring strategies, general management and supervision skills, macro and micro economic analysis, and financial reporting and quantitative analysis, etc., but do not include basic economic analysis, which is a topic for general Licensed Persons.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.68
-
Question 448 of 770
448. Question
1 pointsQID2922:What could be the consequences if certain individuals do not comply with the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”?
Correct
If certain individuals do not comply with the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, including maintaining appropriate records, their fit and proper qualifications for licensing or registration may be questioned, and it may trigger disciplinary action by the Securities and Futures Commission or the Monetary Authority.
Incorrect
If certain individuals do not comply with the “Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training”, including maintaining appropriate records, their fit and proper qualifications for licensing or registration may be questioned, and it may trigger disciplinary action by the Securities and Futures Commission or the Monetary Authority.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.69
-
Question 449 of 770
449. Question
1 pointsQID2863:Can an OFC appoint more than 1 investment manager?
Correct
OFC can appoint more than 1 investment manager, however 1 investment manager must be licensed by or registered with the SFC to run Type 9 activity.
Incorrect
OFC can appoint more than 1 investment manager, however 1 investment manager must be licensed by or registered with the SFC to run Type 9 activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.8
-
Question 450 of 770
450. Question
1 pointsQID2527:Due to its characteristics, the virtual currency can be defined as:
I. shares
II. debt securities
III. collective investment schemes
IV. futuresCorrect
Due to its characteristics, the virtual currency can be defined as:
I. shares
II. debt securities
III. collective investment schemesIncorrect
Due to its characteristics, the virtual currency can be defined as:
I. shares
II. debt securities
III. collective investment schemesHint
Reference Chapter:1.4.8
-
Question 451 of 770
451. Question
1 pointsQID1575:Do trust companies that act as trustee for CIS need to apply for license?
Correct
When acting strictly in their core capacity as mentioned (e.g. a custodian taking custody of fund assets, or a lawyer advising on fund structure), Other intermediaries involved in the asset management industry include trustees, custodians and professionals such as lawyers, accountants and investment advisers are not engaging in any activity regulated by the SFO.
Incorrect
When acting strictly in their core capacity as mentioned (e.g. a custodian taking custody of fund assets, or a lawyer advising on fund structure), Other intermediaries involved in the asset management industry include trustees, custodians and professionals such as lawyers, accountants and investment advisers are not engaging in any activity regulated by the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.9
-
Question 452 of 770
452. Question
1 pointsQID2524:Are virtual assets regulated by the Securities and Futures Ordinance?
Correct
Some of the virtual assets are considered securities since they have the characteristics of securities. The collective investment schemes of virtual assets are considered securities.
Incorrect
Some of the virtual assets are considered securities since they have the characteristics of securities. The collective investment schemes of virtual assets are considered securities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.9
-
Question 453 of 770
453. Question
1 pointsQID2896:Are Private Equity (P.E.) firms required to have SFC licence?
Correct
Whether licences are necessary would depend on the scope and nature of the discretionary investment authority. The Company is required to have an Asset Management (Type 9) license when the company has sufficient authority to make investment decisions.
Incorrect
Whether licences are necessary would depend on the scope and nature of the discretionary investment authority. The Company is required to have an Asset Management (Type 9) license when the company has sufficient authority to make investment decisions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.9
-
Question 454 of 770
454. Question
1 pointsQID2530:Is the license required to trade futures contracts of virtual assets on behalf of clients?
Correct
Since the futures contracts of virtual assets are futures, type 2 license is required.
Incorrect
Since the futures contracts of virtual assets are futures, type 2 license is required.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.4.9
-
Question 455 of 770
455. Question
1 pointsQID49:Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Correct
Certain responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the particular responsibilities of the SFC, including vetting and authorising MPF products and related marketing materials. IA doesn’t regulate MPF products at all.
Incorrect
Certain responsibilities of the MPFA interlink with the particular responsibilities of the SFC, including vetting and authorising MPF products and related marketing materials. IA doesn’t regulate MPF products at all.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.
-
Question 456 of 770
456. Question
1 pointsQID1680:Should an intermediary impose a trading limit on staff members trading based on the staff member’s salary?
Correct
There are no relevant requirements.
Incorrect
There are no relevant requirements.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.
-
Question 457 of 770
457. Question
1 pointsQID1209:Which of the following organizations is responsible for front line conduct of market participants in the securities and futures business?
Correct
Except in relation to the management of business risk, and the enforcement of their own listing, trading, clearing and settlement rules, HKEX, the exchanges and the clearing houses are not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants, which is carried out by the SFC.
Incorrect
Except in relation to the management of business risk, and the enforcement of their own listing, trading, clearing and settlement rules, HKEX, the exchanges and the clearing houses are not responsible for front-line prudential and conduct regulation of market participants, which is carried out by the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.1
-
Question 458 of 770
458. Question
1 pointsQID1663:Are Registered Institutions bound by the code of conduct?
Correct
Registered Institutions need to adhere to the Code of Conduct.
Incorrect
Registered Institutions need to adhere to the Code of Conduct.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.1
-
Question 459 of 770
459. Question
1 pointsQID874:Do Keeping of Records Rules include telephone recordings?
Correct
Keeping of Records Rules exclude telephone recordings, which are covered in the Code of Conduct for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the Securities and Futures Commission (“Code of Conduct”).
Incorrect
Keeping of Records Rules exclude telephone recordings, which are covered in the Code of Conduct for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the Securities and Futures Commission (“Code of Conduct”).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.10
-
Question 460 of 770
460. Question
1 pointsQID2545:Should the same standards apply when the licensed corporations trade OTC derivatives with an independent third party or group affiliate?
Correct
The same standards should apply when the licensed corporations trade OTC derivatives with an independent third party or group affiliate in any circumstances.
Incorrect
The same standards should apply when the licensed corporations trade OTC derivatives with an independent third party or group affiliate in any circumstances.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.110
-
Question 461 of 770
461. Question
1 pointsQID3679:Which of the following statements accurately reflect the risk management requirements for licensed corporations dealing with OTCD transactions?
I. Risk management standards must be applied equally to transactions with group affiliates and independent third parties.
II. Licensed corporations can arrange OTCD transactions between clients and group affiliates that are not licensed persons in Hong Kong.
III. The exchange of IM and VM is optional when dealing with group affiliates.
IV. Risk disclosure requirements must be complied with when arranging transactions with group affiliates.Correct
Licensed corporations are required to apply the same risk management standards to all parties involved in OTCD transactions, whether they are group affiliates or independent third parties (I). They are also permitted to arrange OTCD transactions between clients and group affiliates that are not licensed persons in Hong Kong, as long as they comply with the applicable risk disclosure requirements (II and IV). The exchange of IM and VM is not optional and must be conducted as part of the risk management process, making option III incorrect.
Incorrect
Licensed corporations are required to apply the same risk management standards to all parties involved in OTCD transactions, whether they are group affiliates or independent third parties (I). They are also permitted to arrange OTCD transactions between clients and group affiliates that are not licensed persons in Hong Kong, as long as they comply with the applicable risk disclosure requirements (II and IV). The exchange of IM and VM is not optional and must be conducted as part of the risk management process, making option III incorrect.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.110
-
Question 462 of 770
462. Question
1 pointsQID3681:A licensed corporation has entered into a non-centrally cleared OTCD transaction with an independent third party. Which of the following actions should the licensed corporation take in accordance with the risk management requirements?
Correct
A licensed corporation should apply the same risk management standards to all parties involved in OTCD transactions, which include exchanging IM and VM to mitigate the risk of default, regardless of whether the counterparty is a group affiliate or an independent third party. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they suggest varying standards, the avoidance of margin collection, or conditional risk disclosure, which are not in line with the risk management practices required for OTCD transactions.
Incorrect
A licensed corporation should apply the same risk management standards to all parties involved in OTCD transactions, which include exchanging IM and VM to mitigate the risk of default, regardless of whether the counterparty is a group affiliate or an independent third party. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they suggest varying standards, the avoidance of margin collection, or conditional risk disclosure, which are not in line with the risk management practices required for OTCD transactions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.114
-
Question 463 of 770
463. Question
1 pointsQID3678:Which of the following best describes the purpose of exchanging Initial Margin (IM) and Variation Margin (VM) in OTCD transactions?
Correct
The purpose of exchanging IM and VM is to protect each party from the possibility of the other party defaulting on its obligations under the relevant OTCD transactions.
Incorrect
The purpose of exchanging IM and VM is to protect each party from the possibility of the other party defaulting on its obligations under the relevant OTCD transactions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.114
-
Question 464 of 770
464. Question
1 pointsQID2634:What is the purpose of the IM and VM margin requirements in OTCD trades?
Correct
The purpose of the IM and VM margin requirements in OTCD tradesto protect both the buyer and sellers from the possibility of the other party defaulting on its obligations.
Incorrect
The purpose of the IM and VM margin requirements in OTCD tradesto protect both the buyer and sellers from the possibility of the other party defaulting on its obligations.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.116
-
Question 465 of 770
465. Question
1 pointsQID3680:Which of the following OTCD transactions would generally be subject to the IM and VM requirements?
I. A centrally cleared OTCD transaction where margin has not been collected.
II. A non-centrally cleared OTCD transaction with a group affiliate.
III. A commodity forward transaction that does not meet the specific criteria for exemption.
IV. A currency contract specifically excluded by subsidiary legislation of the SFO.Correct
Centrally cleared OTCD transactions where margin has been collected are exempt from the IM and VM requirements (I is incorrect). Transactions with group affiliates are not exempt from the IM and VM requirements, provided they are non-centrally cleared OTCD transactions (II is correct). Commodity forward transactions that do not meet the specific criteria for exemption are subject to the IM and VM requirements (III is correct). Currency contracts specifically excluded by subsidiary legislation of the SFO are exempt (IV is incorrect).
Incorrect
Centrally cleared OTCD transactions where margin has been collected are exempt from the IM and VM requirements (I is incorrect). Transactions with group affiliates are not exempt from the IM and VM requirements, provided they are non-centrally cleared OTCD transactions (II is correct). Commodity forward transactions that do not meet the specific criteria for exemption are subject to the IM and VM requirements (III is correct). Currency contracts specifically excluded by subsidiary legislation of the SFO are exempt (IV is incorrect).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.117
-
Question 466 of 770
466. Question
1 pointsQID2636:Are the Initial Margin and Variation Margin rqeuirements of OTCD transactions are applicable to registered institutions?
Correct
OTCD transactions of registered institutions are not subjected to Initial Margin and Variation Margin Requirements.
Incorrect
OTCD transactions of registered institutions are not subjected to Initial Margin and Variation Margin Requirements.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.117
-
Question 467 of 770
467. Question
1 pointsQID3677:Which of the following transactions are exceptions to the IM and VM requirements for non-centrally cleared OTCD transactions?
I. Centrally cleared OTCD transactions where margin has been collected.
II. Physically settled foreign exchange transactions specified by subsidiary legislation of the SFO.
III.Certain commodity forward transactions IV. All currency contracts.Correct
Exceptions to the IM and VM requirements include centrally cleared OTCD transactions where margin has been collected, certain physically settled foreign exchange transactions specified by subsidiary legislation of the SFO, and certain commodity forward transactions. There is no general exemption for all currency contracts, which excludes option IV from being correct.”
Incorrect
Exceptions to the IM and VM requirements include centrally cleared OTCD transactions where margin has been collected, certain physically settled foreign exchange transactions specified by subsidiary legislation of the SFO, and certain commodity forward transactions. There is no general exemption for all currency contracts, which excludes option IV from being correct.”
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.119
-
Question 468 of 770
468. Question
1 pointsQID3676:Which of the following is NOT an exception to the general application of Initial Margin (IM) and Variation Margin (VM) requirements for non-centrally cleared over-the-counter derivatives (OTCD) transactions?
Correct
The Main Text specifies that certain commodity forward transactions are an exception to the IM and VM requirements, not all commodity forward transactions. Therefore, option D is not an exception and is the correct answer.
Incorrect
The Main Text specifies that certain commodity forward transactions are an exception to the IM and VM requirements, not all commodity forward transactions. Therefore, option D is not an exception and is the correct answer.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.119
-
Question 469 of 770
469. Question
1 pointsQID365:A licensed or registered person “should have and employ effectively the resources and procedures which are needed for the proper performance of its business activities”. It should have:
I. Staff with good track record and are well known in Hong Kong
II. Staff who are fit and proper to carry out their designated responsibilities
III. Adequate and diligent supervision of the staff appointed to conduct its business
IV. Satisfactory internal control procedures, financial resources and operational systems, procedures and technology which can reasonably be expected to protect from loss of both its own operations and any third parties it transacts with.Correct
A licensed or registered person “should have and employ effectively the resources and procedures which are needed for the proper performance of its business activities”. It should
have:
(a) staff who are fit and proper to carry out their designated responsibilities;
(b) adequate and diligent supervision of the staff appointed to conduct its business; and
© satisfactory internal control procedures, financial resources and operational systems, procedures and technology which can reasonably be expected to protect from loss of both its own operations and any third parties it transacts with.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person “should have and employ effectively the resources and procedures which are needed for the proper performance of its business activities”. It should
have:
(a) staff who are fit and proper to carry out their designated responsibilities;
(b) adequate and diligent supervision of the staff appointed to conduct its business; and
© satisfactory internal control procedures, financial resources and operational systems, procedures and technology which can reasonably be expected to protect from loss of both its own operations and any third parties it transacts with.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.12
-
Question 470 of 770
470. Question
1 pointsOTCD are not subjected to IM (initial margin) requirements if?
I. Where there is reasonable doubt (properly founded and supported by a written legal
opinion) about the enforceability of a netting agreement in respect of IM or VM, or collateral protection arrangements in respect of IM
II. In relation to intragroup transactions accounted for, and risk is managed, on a consolidated basis
III. Where the licensed person has notified the SFC it will perform “substituted compliance”.
IV. Where the licensed person are not subjected to counter-party risk.Correct
OTCD are not subjected to IM (initial margin) requirements if:
I. Where there is reasonable doubt (properly founded and supported by a written legal
opinion) about the enforceability of a netting agreement in respect of IM or VM, or collateral protection arrangements in respect of IM
II. In relation to intragroup transactions accounted for, and risk is managed, on a consolidated basis
III. Where the licensed person has notified the SFC it will perform “substituted compliance”.
IV. Where the licensed person are not subjected to counter-party risk.Incorrect
OTCD are not subjected to IM (initial margin) requirements if:
I. Where there is reasonable doubt (properly founded and supported by a written legal
opinion) about the enforceability of a netting agreement in respect of IM or VM, or collateral protection arrangements in respect of IM
II. In relation to intragroup transactions accounted for, and risk is managed, on a consolidated basis
III. Where the licensed person has notified the SFC it will perform “substituted compliance”.
IV. Where the licensed person are not subjected to counter-party risk.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.120
-
Question 471 of 770
471. Question
1 pointsQID2873:Which of the following assets are more likely to be accepted as collateral in a non centrally cleared OTC trade?
I. Stocks listed overseas
II. OTC traded Bonds
III. Stocks listed on the SEHK (affiliate of the licensee)
IV. Non-Investment grade bonds listed on the SEHKCorrect
The following collateral will not be accepted
I. Securities affiliated with the licensee (Stocks and bonds)
II. Securities strongly correlated with the licensee
III. Non investment grade securitiesThe purpose of collateral is to guarantee the performance of the counter party. If the risk is too closely tied to the risk of the party of the trade, it cannot serve such function.
Incorrect
The following collateral will not be accepted
I. Securities affiliated with the licensee (Stocks and bonds)
II. Securities strongly correlated with the licensee
III. Non investment grade securitiesThe purpose of collateral is to guarantee the performance of the counter party. If the risk is too closely tied to the risk of the party of the trade, it cannot serve such function.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.126
-
Question 472 of 770
472. Question
1 pointsQID366:According to the Code of Conduct, an intermediary should know:
I. A client’s investment objectives
II. A client’s investment experience
III. All investment intermediaries used by the client
IV. A client’s financial situationCorrect
It is important that in order to provide the best service to its client and to minimise risk to its client and itself, a licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to establish
the client’s:
(a) true and full identity;
(b) financial situation or strength;
(c.) investment experience; and
(d) investment objectives.Incorrect
It is important that in order to provide the best service to its client and to minimise risk to its client and itself, a licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to establish
the client’s:
(a) true and full identity;
(b) financial situation or strength;
(c.) investment experience; and
(d) investment objectives.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.14
-
Question 473 of 770
473. Question
1 pointsQID1677:The KYC principles do not require the intermediary to assess the client’s
Correct
The KYC principles do not require the intermediary to assess the client’s gift preferences.
Incorrect
The KYC principles do not require the intermediary to assess the client’s gift preferences.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.14
-
Question 474 of 770
474. Question
1 pointsQID367:According to the know your client principle, it is important that in order to provide the best service to its client and to minimize risk to its client and itself, a licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to establish the client’s
I. True and full identity
II. Financial situation or strength
III. Past investment returns
IV. Investment objectivesCorrect
It is important that in order to provide the best service to its client and to minimise risk to its client and itself, a licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to establish
the client’s:
(a) true and full identity;
(b) financial situation or strength;
(c.) investment experience; and
(d) investment objectives.Incorrect
It is important that in order to provide the best service to its client and to minimise risk to its client and itself, a licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to establish
the client’s:
(a) true and full identity;
(b) financial situation or strength;
(c.) investment experience; and
(d) investment objectives.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.14
-
Question 475 of 770
475. Question
1 pointsQID1336:According to the general principle of information about clients, an intermediary should understand a client’s:
I. Financial situation.
II. Investment experience.
III. Investment objectives.
IV. Tax history.Correct
A licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to establish the client’s:
(b) financial situation or strength;
(c.) investment experience; and
(d) investment objectives.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to establish the client’s:
(b) financial situation or strength;
(c.) investment experience; and
(d) investment objectives.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.14
-
Question 476 of 770
476. Question
1 pointsQID1335:An intermediary should establish which of the following details about the client?
I. Financial Status.
II. Investment Experience.
III. Investment Objectives.
IV. Past Investment Performance.Correct
A licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to establish the client’s:
(b) financial situation or strength;
(c.) investment experience; and
(d) investment objectives.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to establish the client’s:
(b) financial situation or strength;
(c.) investment experience; and
(d) investment objectives.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.14
-
Question 477 of 770
477. Question
1 pointsQID2589:The primary purpose of the Know Your Client process is:
Correct
Know Your Client is one of the 9 general principles under the Code of Conduct with the SFC. The primary aim is to minimise risks the client faces in investments and risks the intermediary itself will face.
Incorrect
Know Your Client is one of the 9 general principles under the Code of Conduct with the SFC. The primary aim is to minimise risks the client faces in investments and risks the intermediary itself will face.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.14
-
Question 478 of 770
478. Question
1 pointsQID368:Why is the Know Your Client (KYC) section particularly important in the code of conduct?
Correct
It is important that in order to provide the best service to its client and to minimise risk to its client and itself, a licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to know the client better.
Incorrect
It is important that in order to provide the best service to its client and to minimise risk to its client and itself, a licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to know the client better.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.14
-
Question 479 of 770
479. Question
1 pointsQID2870:Ensuring suitability is primarily the responsibility of the
Correct
The ensure suitability is primarily the responsibility of the Intermediary.
Incorrect
The ensure suitability is primarily the responsibility of the Intermediary.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.16
-
Question 480 of 770
480. Question
1 pointsQID835:Which of the following is not a derivative/ structural product of company A?
Correct
Answer A is not an structured product since the return of none of them is tied to the other in any way.
Incorrect
Answer A is not an structured product since the return of none of them is tied to the other in any way.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.18
-
Question 481 of 770
481. Question
1 pointsQID823:Mr Ko is a loyal and long-term customer of Kaohsiung Securities. He has been trading micro cap stocks in the past. Under the influence of advertisement, he wishes to invest in structural products. How should Kaohsiung Securities handle the situation?
Correct
As part of the know-your-client procedures, a licensed or registered person should assess the client’s knowledge of derivatives and characterise the client based on his knowledge of derivatives. Where a client without knowledge of derivatives wishes to invest in a derivative product that the licensed or registered person has not recommended, the risks should be
explained.Incorrect
As part of the know-your-client procedures, a licensed or registered person should assess the client’s knowledge of derivatives and characterise the client based on his knowledge of derivatives. Where a client without knowledge of derivatives wishes to invest in a derivative product that the licensed or registered person has not recommended, the risks should be
explained.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.18
-
Question 482 of 770
482. Question
1 pointsQID1014:Mr Liu is a seasoned securities investor. He wishes to invest in the futures market recently and thus tries to open a futures trading account with millionaire securities. Millionaires Securities should
Correct
Millionaires Securities should assess Mr Liu’s knowledge about derivatives and explain risk associated with trading derivatives.
Incorrect
Millionaires Securities should assess Mr Liu’s knowledge about derivatives and explain risk associated with trading derivatives.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.18
-
Question 483 of 770
483. Question
1 pointsQID1619:The Code of Conduct applies to
Correct
The Code of Conduct applies to all licensed and registered persons.
Incorrect
The Code of Conduct applies to all licensed and registered persons.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.2
-
Question 484 of 770
484. Question
1 pointsQID2871:Complex Products are
Correct
Complex Products are structurally complex and its risk and characteristics are hardly understood by investors. However, its still made available to retail investors.
Incorrect
Complex Products are structurally complex and its risk and characteristics are hardly understood by investors. However, its still made available to retail investors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.20
-
Question 485 of 770
485. Question
1 pointsQID371:According to the Code of Conduct, an intermediary should establish the identify of the client including the identity of:
Correct
Prior to executing any transaction for a client, a licensed or registered person is required to satisfy itself on reasonable grounds of the identity, address and contact details of the ultimate
originator and the ultimate beneficiary of a transaction and keep a record of the information used to establish the same.Incorrect
Prior to executing any transaction for a client, a licensed or registered person is required to satisfy itself on reasonable grounds of the identity, address and contact details of the ultimate
originator and the ultimate beneficiary of a transaction and keep a record of the information used to establish the same.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.23
-
Question 486 of 770
486. Question
1 pointsQID370:At which stages of the investment process should intermediaries confirm the identities of the customers?
I. Prior to executing any transaction.
II. Prior to opening an account.
III. After the transaction is completed.
IV. When the account is frozen.Correct
Prior to executing any transaction for a client, a licensed or registered person is required to satisfy itself on reasonable grounds of the identity, address and contact details of the ultimate
originator and the ultimate beneficiary of a transaction and keep a record of the information used to establish the same.Incorrect
Prior to executing any transaction for a client, a licensed or registered person is required to satisfy itself on reasonable grounds of the identity, address and contact details of the ultimate
originator and the ultimate beneficiary of a transaction and keep a record of the information used to establish the same.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.23
-
Question 487 of 770
487. Question
1 pointsQID369:The Code of Conduct for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the Securities and Futures Commission suggests that the identity of which of the following persons should be checked?
I. Persons ultimately responsible for originating transactions.
II. Persons who are the ultimate beneficiaries of the transactions.
III. The identity of the fund manager alone in the case of an investment fund unless an ultimate beneficiary gives the instructions.
IV. The identity of the individuals in the group in the case of an individual investor known to be operating an account for a group of persons.Correct
Prior to executing any transaction for a client, a licensed or registered person is required to satisfy itself on reasonable grounds of the identity, address and contact details of the ultimate
originator and the ultimate beneficiary of a transaction and keep a record of the information used to establish the same. In the case of a CIS or discretionary account, this will require the licensed or registered person to establish the identity of the CIS or account and its manager –the identities of the ultimate beneficiaries only need to be established where they are in fact giving the instructions.Incorrect
Prior to executing any transaction for a client, a licensed or registered person is required to satisfy itself on reasonable grounds of the identity, address and contact details of the ultimate
originator and the ultimate beneficiary of a transaction and keep a record of the information used to establish the same. In the case of a CIS or discretionary account, this will require the licensed or registered person to establish the identity of the CIS or account and its manager –the identities of the ultimate beneficiaries only need to be established where they are in fact giving the instructions.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.23
-
Question 488 of 770
488. Question
1 pointsQID1338:Which of the following descriptions of client agreement are correct?
I. Client agreement can be verbal or written.
II. The client agreement should be entered before the intermediary provides any services to the client.
III. The intermediary should provide the client with a copy of the client agreement.
IV. If the client is a professional investor, he may be waived from signing a client agreement.Correct
Clients Agreement may not be required for Professional Investors. A written client agreement should be entered into with a client before a intermediary person provides services to the client. The relevant risks drawn to his attention. A copy is to be provided to the client if the agreement is not entered into in a face-to-face meeting between staff of the licensed or registered person and the client.
Incorrect
Clients Agreement may not be required for Professional Investors. A written client agreement should be entered into with a client before a intermediary person provides services to the client. The relevant risks drawn to his attention. A copy is to be provided to the client if the agreement is not entered into in a face-to-face meeting between staff of the licensed or registered person and the client.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.25
-
Question 489 of 770
489. Question
1 pointsQID377:According to the Code of Conduct, a written client agreement should be entered into with a client before a licensed or registered person provides services to the client; the agreement should be written in:
Correct
A written client agreement should be entered into with a client before a licensed or registered person provides services to the client. The agreement should be in Chinese or English at the option of the client, and the relevant risks drawn to the attention of the client.
Incorrect
A written client agreement should be entered into with a client before a licensed or registered person provides services to the client. The agreement should be in Chinese or English at the option of the client, and the relevant risks drawn to the attention of the client.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.25
-
Question 490 of 770
490. Question
1 pointsQID1340:Which of the following requirements about account opening is NOT correct?
Correct
If the account opening documents cannot be executed in the presence of an employee of the licensed or registered person, the signing of the client agreement and sighting of related identity documents should be certified by another licensed person or registered person, a Justice of the Peace or a professional person such as a bank branch manager, certified public accountant, lawyer or notary public. Certification services recognized by the Electronic Transactions Ordinance may also be employed.
Incorrect
If the account opening documents cannot be executed in the presence of an employee of the licensed or registered person, the signing of the client agreement and sighting of related identity documents should be certified by another licensed person or registered person, a Justice of the Peace or a professional person such as a bank branch manager, certified public accountant, lawyer or notary public. Certification services recognized by the Electronic Transactions Ordinance may also be employed.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.25
-
Question 491 of 770
491. Question
1 pointsQID374:Should the intermediary enter a client agreement with the client?
Correct
A written client agreement should be entered into with a client before a licensed or registered person provides services to the client.
Incorrect
A written client agreement should be entered into with a client before a licensed or registered person provides services to the client.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.25
-
Question 492 of 770
492. Question
1 pointsQID1339:According to the Code of Conduct f, can intermediaries open an account for clients via a non-face-to-face approach?
Correct
If the client agreement is not entered into in a face-to-face meeting between the staff of the licensed or registered person and the client, any of the five methods discussed below are also acceptable to the SFC:
Certification by other persons; Certification services; Mail approach; Online onboarding of clients using a designated bank account in Hong Kong; Remote onboarding of overseas individual clients.Incorrect
If the client agreement is not entered into in a face-to-face meeting between the staff of the licensed or registered person and the client, any of the five methods discussed below are also acceptable to the SFC:
Certification by other persons; Certification services; Mail approach; Online onboarding of clients using a designated bank account in Hong Kong; Remote onboarding of overseas individual clients.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.25
-
Question 493 of 770
493. Question
1 pointsQID424:A Fund Manager should take all reasonable steps to establish client’s information including
I. The identity of the actual beneficiary
II. Client’s full and true identity
III. The beneficiary after the client’s death
IV. A fund manager is not allowed to access and attain the clients’ identityCorrect
A Fund Manager should take all reasonable steps to identify the client as in the Code of Conduct (paragraph 6.3).
Prior to executing any transaction for a client, a licensed or registered person is required to satisfy itself on reasonable grounds of the identity, address and contact details of the ultimate
originator and the ultimate beneficiary of a transaction and keep a record of the information used to establish the same.Incorrect
A Fund Manager should take all reasonable steps to identify the client as in the Code of Conduct (paragraph 6.3).
Prior to executing any transaction for a client, a licensed or registered person is required to satisfy itself on reasonable grounds of the identity, address and contact details of the ultimate
originator and the ultimate beneficiary of a transaction and keep a record of the information used to establish the same.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.25
-
Question 494 of 770
494. Question
1 pointsQID376:Which of the following documents are required if the client agreement is not entered into in a face-to-face meeting between staff of the licensed or registered person and the client but is made by post?
I. Copies of client ID
II. Signed client agreement
III. Asset Proof
IV. A cheque received by the licensed corporation for over $10,000 which has not bounced.Correct
Mail approach: the licensed or registered person verifies the identity of an individual client by the following procedures:
(a) obtains a copy of the client’s identity document;
(b) obtains a copy of the signed client agreement;
(c) obtains a cheque for an amount not less than HK$10,000 issued by the new client in his name, as shown in the identity document, which is drawn on the client’s account with a licensed bank in Hong Kong and duly paid; and
(d) ensures that the client’s signatures on the cheque and the client agreement are the same.Incorrect
Mail approach: the licensed or registered person verifies the identity of an individual client by the following procedures:
(a) obtains a copy of the client’s identity document;
(b) obtains a copy of the signed client agreement;
(c) obtains a cheque for an amount not less than HK$10,000 issued by the new client in his name, as shown in the identity document, which is drawn on the client’s account with a licensed bank in Hong Kong and duly paid; and
(d) ensures that the client’s signatures on the cheque and the client agreement are the same.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.26
-
Question 495 of 770
495. Question
1 pointsQID921:Intermediaries need not provide information on which of the following to clients during the signing of client agreement?
Correct
Unless there’s material conflict of interest, otherwise intermediaries need not provide information of the stocks and securities held by its staff members to the clients.
Incorrect
Unless there’s material conflict of interest, otherwise intermediaries need not provide information of the stocks and securities held by its staff members to the clients.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.27
-
Question 496 of 770
496. Question
1 pointsQID378:Which of the following provisions are included in client agreements as required by the Code of Conduct?
I. Full names and addresses of the client (verified by reliable
proof) and the licensed or registered person
II. Undertakings by the parties to notify material changes of information to each other
III. Full description of the services to be provided and the charges to be paid by the client with details of any special services
(e.g. margin financing or short-selling facilities and derivatives trading)
IV. The appropriate risk disclosure statementsCorrect
The Code of Conduct specifies the provisions which all client agreements are required to contain, including:
(a) full names and addresses of the client (verified by reliable proof) and the licensed or registered person;
(b) undertakings by the parties to notify material changes of information to each other;
(c.) full description of the services to be provided and the charges to be paid by the client, with details of any special services (e.g. margin financing or short-selling facilities and derivatives trading); and
(d) the appropriate risk disclosure statements as specified in Schedule 1, Code of Conduct.Incorrect
The Code of Conduct specifies the provisions which all client agreements are required to contain, including:
(a) full names and addresses of the client (verified by reliable proof) and the licensed or registered person;
(b) undertakings by the parties to notify material changes of information to each other;
(c.) full description of the services to be provided and the charges to be paid by the client, with details of any special services (e.g. margin financing or short-selling facilities and derivatives trading); and
(d) the appropriate risk disclosure statements as specified in Schedule 1, Code of Conduct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.27
-
Question 497 of 770
497. Question
1 pointsQID760:Which of the following arrangements will require a discretionary agreement?
Correct
A discretionary account is a client account in respect of which the client has authorised the licensed or registered person or any person employed by it (who must in turn be a licensed or registered person) to effect transactions on behalf of the account without the client’s prior approval for each transaction. The discretion may be absolute or subject to conditions (for example, that transactions be carried out by the licensed or registered person only under specified restrictions). Answer D is an example of a situation in which a discretionary account is set up.
Incorrect
A discretionary account is a client account in respect of which the client has authorised the licensed or registered person or any person employed by it (who must in turn be a licensed or registered person) to effect transactions on behalf of the account without the client’s prior approval for each transaction. The discretion may be absolute or subject to conditions (for example, that transactions be carried out by the licensed or registered person only under specified restrictions). Answer D is an example of a situation in which a discretionary account is set up.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.28
-
Question 498 of 770
498. Question
1 pointsQID840:Kaohsiung Securities has conducted a series of securities transactions to reduce losses for a client while the client was not in Hong Kong. When the client returns to Hong Kong and discovers such trades, has Kaohsiung Securities done anything wrong in such circumstances?
Correct
Unauthorised trades may have one or more of the following features:
(a) the client has not provided written authorisation to a third party or account executive to conduct trades on his (discretionary) account.Incorrect
Unauthorised trades may have one or more of the following features:
(a) the client has not provided written authorisation to a third party or account executive to conduct trades on his (discretionary) account.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.28
-
Question 499 of 770
499. Question
1 pointsQID2739:If the client does not complete the account opening process in person with the intermediary’s staff, which of the following persons can verify the client’s signature and relevant identity documents?
I. Another licensee or registered person
II. Justice of the Peace
III. Professionals (Bank Managers, Lawyers, Accountants, Notaries, Chartered Secretaries)
IV. Dependents of ClientsCorrect
If the client does not complete the account opening process in person in the presence of the intermediary staff, the following persons can verify the client’s signature and relevant identity documents
I. Another licensee or registered person
II. Justice of the Peace
III. Professionals (Bank Managers, Lawyers, Accountants, Notaries, Chartered Secretaries)Incorrect
If the client does not complete the account opening process in person in the presence of the intermediary staff, the following persons can verify the client’s signature and relevant identity documents
I. Another licensee or registered person
II. Justice of the Peace
III. Professionals (Bank Managers, Lawyers, Accountants, Notaries, Chartered Secretaries)Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.28
-
Question 500 of 770
500. Question
1 pointsQID379:Which of the following requirements on the establishment and operation of discretionary account are imposed by the Code of Conduct?
I. The client’s authority must be in writing
II. The authority should specify name of the person who is authorised to operate the account
III. The authority should be confirmed annually by the licensed or registered person with the client
IV. The setting up of discretionary accounts are subjected to the approval of the SFCCorrect
The Code of Conduct imposes the following requirements on the establishment and operation of discretionary accounts:
(a) the client’s authority must be in writing;
(b) the authority should specify the person who is authorised to operate the account, stating that the person is an employee or agent of the licensed or registered person, if the authority is granted to such person;
(d) the authority should be confirmed annually by the licensed or registered person with the client – for this purpose, it is permissible for the licensed or registered person to notify
the client before the expiry date that it will be automatically renewed unless the client specifically revokes it in writing before the expiry date.Incorrect
The Code of Conduct imposes the following requirements on the establishment and operation of discretionary accounts:
(a) the client’s authority must be in writing;
(b) the authority should specify the person who is authorised to operate the account, stating that the person is an employee or agent of the licensed or registered person, if the authority is granted to such person;
(d) the authority should be confirmed annually by the licensed or registered person with the client – for this purpose, it is permissible for the licensed or registered person to notify
the client before the expiry date that it will be automatically renewed unless the client specifically revokes it in writing before the expiry date.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.28
-
Question 501 of 770
501. Question
1 pointsQID1341:Which of the following descriptions about discretionary accounts are correct?
I. The client has authorised the licensed or registered person or any person employed by it (who must in turn be a licensed or registered person) to effect transactions on behalf of the account with the client’s prior approval for each transaction.
II. Discretionary account can be authorised verbally or in writing.
III. The authority should be confirmed annually by the licensed or registered person with the client.
IV. Senior management should approve the opening of the account.Correct
A discretionary account is a client account in respect of which the client has authorised the
licensed or registered person or any person employed by it (who must in turn be a licensed or
registered person) to effect transactions on behalf of the account without the client’s prior
approval for each transaction.
The Code of Conduct imposes the following requirements on the establishment and operation of discretionary accounts:
(a)the client’s authority must be in writing;
(d) the authority should be confirmed annually by the licensed or registered person with the client – for this purpose, it is permissible for the licensed or registered person to notify the client before the expiry date that it will be automatically renewed unless the client specifically revokes it in writing before the expiry date;
(f) senior management should approve the opening of the accountIncorrect
A discretionary account is a client account in respect of which the client has authorised the
licensed or registered person or any person employed by it (who must in turn be a licensed or
registered person) to effect transactions on behalf of the account without the client’s prior
approval for each transaction.
The Code of Conduct imposes the following requirements on the establishment and operation of discretionary accounts:
(a)the client’s authority must be in writing;
(d) the authority should be confirmed annually by the licensed or registered person with the client – for this purpose, it is permissible for the licensed or registered person to notify the client before the expiry date that it will be automatically renewed unless the client specifically revokes it in writing before the expiry date;
(f) senior management should approve the opening of the accountHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.29
-
Question 502 of 770
502. Question
1 pointsQID1621:Mr. Ko appreciates the capability of the fund manager Mr. Liu in Kaohsiung Securities, and hoped to authorize him to effect transactions on behalf of Mr. Ko himself for his stock account. Therefore, Kaohsiung executed a discretionary account agreement. Which term of the authority has a high possibility of violation of the Codes of Conduct?
Correct
The authority should specify which person is to be authorised to operate the account, the terms of the authority should be explained by the licensed or registered person or a person employed by it to the client.
Incorrect
The authority should specify which person is to be authorised to operate the account, the terms of the authority should be explained by the licensed or registered person or a person employed by it to the client.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.29
-
Question 503 of 770
503. Question
1 pointsQID372:Mr Ko has high praises for his friend Mr Wan’s abilities in investment. Mr Wan has promised to managed Mr Ko’s futures portfolio under discretion for free. He suggested Mr Ko to open an account for futures investment with Millionaire Securities, and help him make the investment. What kind of documents should Mr Ko offer to Millionaire Securities?
Correct
Mr Wan should get a signed client’s agreement from Mr Ko to ensure there is a client-licensee relationship established and he must also take into account that before a licensed or registered person accepts orders from a third party in respect of a client
account, the Code of Conduct requires the licensed or registered person and its staff to take reasonable steps to establish the true and full identity of the third party and keep a record of the third party’s identity information. A written authorisation from the client for the third party to operate the client’s account should be obtained.Incorrect
Mr Wan should get a signed client’s agreement from Mr Ko to ensure there is a client-licensee relationship established and he must also take into account that before a licensed or registered person accepts orders from a third party in respect of a client
account, the Code of Conduct requires the licensed or registered person and its staff to take reasonable steps to establish the true and full identity of the third party and keep a record of the third party’s identity information. A written authorisation from the client for the third party to operate the client’s account should be obtained.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.29
-
Question 504 of 770
504. Question
1 pointsQID373:Mr Wan is a professional investor and holds a securities investment account with standing authority with Millionaire Securities. One day, the stock market has crashed and Mr Was has suffered heavy losses. Since Mr Wan is busy with work, he asked his wife Mrs Wan to place orders with Millionaire Securities to sell all his stocks. Can Millionaire Securities accept orders issued by Mrs Wan?
Correct
The Code of Conduct requires the licensed or registered person and its staff to take reasonable steps to establish the true and full identity of the third party and keep a record of the third party’s identity information. A written authorisation from the client for the third party to operate the client’s account should be obtained.
Incorrect
The Code of Conduct requires the licensed or registered person and its staff to take reasonable steps to establish the true and full identity of the third party and keep a record of the third party’s identity information. A written authorisation from the client for the third party to operate the client’s account should be obtained.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.29
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Question 505 of 770
505. Question
1 pointsQID1624:A discretionary account should
I. Separate the investment decision-making process from the dealing process
II. Regularly review the performance of the account
III. Record client’s and other’s orders
IV. Executing a discretionary account agreementCorrect
The SFC’s ICG include the following suggested operational control techniques and procedures:
(a) executing a discretionary account agreement which includes the investment objectives and strategies of the client and the terms under which such discretion will be exercised;
(b) regularly reviewing the performance of the account;
(c.) providing the client with regular statements and timely ad hoc reports on account balance and transaction details; and
(d) clearly separating the investment decision-making process from the dealing process.Incorrect
The SFC’s ICG include the following suggested operational control techniques and procedures:
(a) executing a discretionary account agreement which includes the investment objectives and strategies of the client and the terms under which such discretion will be exercised;
(b) regularly reviewing the performance of the account;
(c.) providing the client with regular statements and timely ad hoc reports on account balance and transaction details; and
(d) clearly separating the investment decision-making process from the dealing process.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.29
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Question 506 of 770
506. Question
1 pointsQID357:The Code of Conduct applies to all persons licensed by or registered with the SFC,
Correct
The Code of Conduct is generally applicable to all licensed and registered persons。
Incorrect
The Code of Conduct is generally applicable to all licensed and registered persons。
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.3
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Question 507 of 770
507. Question
1 pointsQID2792:Regarding the establishment of business relationships with overseas individual clients in a remote manner, which one of the intermediaries’ practices is not appropriate?
Correct
Processes and technologies should be assessed every 1 year by a qualified, competent assessor.
Incorrect
Processes and technologies should be assessed every 1 year by a qualified, competent assessor.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.32
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Question 508 of 770
508. Question
1 pointsQID2801:The client agreement needs to contain:
I. Full names and addresses of clients and licensed and registered persons
II. Undertakings of both parties to notify each other of material changes in information
III. Details of charges to be charged and services available
IV. Risk Disclosure StatementCorrect
The client agreement needs to contain:
I. Full names and addresses of clients and licensed and registered persons
II. Undertakings of both parties to notify each other of material changes in information
III. Details of charges to be charged and services available
IV. Risk Disclosure StatementIncorrect
The client agreement needs to contain:
I. Full names and addresses of clients and licensed and registered persons
II. Undertakings of both parties to notify each other of material changes in information
III. Details of charges to be charged and services available
IV. Risk Disclosure StatementHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.33
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Question 509 of 770
509. Question
1 pointsQID2382:Which of the following is not discretionary transactions?
Correct
A discretionary account is a client account in respect of which the client has authorised the
licensed or registered person or any person employed by it (who must in turn be a licensed or registered person) to effect transactions on behalf of the account without the client’s prior
approval for each transaction.Incorrect
A discretionary account is a client account in respect of which the client has authorised the
licensed or registered person or any person employed by it (who must in turn be a licensed or registered person) to effect transactions on behalf of the account without the client’s prior
approval for each transaction.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.35
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Question 510 of 770
510. Question
1 pointsQID2938:If a Discretionary Account Manager is to be remunerated in the form of management fees and/or performance fees, what conditions are required?
Correct
If a Discretionary Account Manager is to be remunerated in the form of management fees and/or performance fees, a client agreement for the discretionary account must be established in clear language understood by the client before providing the relevant services.
Incorrect
If a Discretionary Account Manager is to be remunerated in the form of management fees and/or performance fees, a client agreement for the discretionary account must be established in clear language understood by the client before providing the relevant services.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.36
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Question 511 of 770
511. Question
1 pointsQID2426:Which of the following is incorrect regarding discretionary authorities?
Correct
The authority should specify the person who is authorised to operate the account, stating that the person is an employee or agent of the licensed or registered person, if the
authority is granted to such person. So the discretionary authorities can only be used by people designated on the authority.Incorrect
The authority should specify the person who is authorised to operate the account, stating that the person is an employee or agent of the licensed or registered person, if the
authority is granted to such person. So the discretionary authorities can only be used by people designated on the authority.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.36
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Question 512 of 770
512. Question
1 pointsQID2658:Should discretionary account agreements only be operated by Responsible Officers?
Correct
The Code of Conduct imposes the following requirements on the establishment and operation of discretionary accounts:
(a) the client’s authority must be in writing;
(b) the authority should specify the person who is authorised to operate the account, stating that the person is an employee or agent of the licensed or registered person, if the
authority is granted to such person;Incorrect
The Code of Conduct imposes the following requirements on the establishment and operation of discretionary accounts:
(a) the client’s authority must be in writing;
(b) the authority should specify the person who is authorised to operate the account, stating that the person is an employee or agent of the licensed or registered person, if the
authority is granted to such person;Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.36
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Question 513 of 770
513. Question
1 pointsQID109:Which of the following are characteristics of retail investors?
I. A larger sum of investment
II. Requires more protection
III. Retail investors usually refer to individuals or small businesses and companies that invest for themselves rather than on behalf of others
IV. Requires less protectionCorrect
Retail investors are usually defined to be individuals or small businesses and companies who invest in relatively small amounts of money for themselves rather than on behalf anyone else.
From a regulatory point of view, these investors need the most protection under the regulatory regime, as they are less sophisticated.Incorrect
Retail investors are usually defined to be individuals or small businesses and companies who invest in relatively small amounts of money for themselves rather than on behalf anyone else.
From a regulatory point of view, these investors need the most protection under the regulatory regime, as they are less sophisticated.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.4
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Question 514 of 770
514. Question
1 pointsQID337:Leslie Cheung is a professional investor and has amassed great fortunes by futures speculation in the past few decades. Recently Leslie suffered huge losses in his speculation in futures; therefore, he had to secure a loan to maintain his unsettled futures position and meet his margin call. Therefore, Leslie had secured a loan through Ponzi Credit, a money lender that is not registered or licensed by the SFC. By using the loan, Leslie had satisfied the margin requirement and settled the positions at a profit about a month later. All the loan has been settled and repaid. Is the practice of Ponzi Credit acceptable and legal?
Correct
As stated in the Schedule 5, SFO, securities margin financing means the provision of accommodation to acquire or hold securities. In this case, Ponzi Credit is providing accommodation to hold A futures contract, not a security.
Incorrect
As stated in the Schedule 5, SFO, securities margin financing means the provision of accommodation to acquire or hold securities. In this case, Ponzi Credit is providing accommodation to hold A futures contract, not a security.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.4
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Question 515 of 770
515. Question
1 pointsQID759:To an intermediary, which of the following is market risk?
Correct
Market risk in this context is the risk that an intermediary may suffer loss due to adverse movements in the market value of its assets or liabilities.
Incorrect
Market risk in this context is the risk that an intermediary may suffer loss due to adverse movements in the market value of its assets or liabilities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.4
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Question 516 of 770
516. Question
1 pointsQID2602:Kaohsiung securities is distributing the collective investment schemes of Kaohsiung Capital, their fellow company. What factors will be considered in judging the independency of the Kaohsiung securities?
I. monetary benefits received from distributing products to customers
II. non-monetary benefits received from distributing products to customers
III. the economic relationship with Kaohsiung Asset Management
IV. The controlling relationship with Kaohsiung Asset ManagementCorrect
Factors that will be considered in judging the independence include:
I. monetary benefits received from distributing products to customers
II. non-monetary benefits received from distributing products to customers
III. the economic relationship with Kaohsiung Asset Management
IV. The controlling relationship with Kaohsiung Asset ManagementIncorrect
Factors that will be considered in judging the independence include:
I. monetary benefits received from distributing products to customers
II. non-monetary benefits received from distributing products to customers
III. the economic relationship with Kaohsiung Asset Management
IV. The controlling relationship with Kaohsiung Asset ManagementHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.44
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Question 517 of 770
517. Question
1 pointsQID890:Which of the following sales related information needs to be disclosed to a client by a licensed or registered person prior to or at the point of entering into the transaction?
I. The capacity (principal or agent) in which a licensed or registered person is acting.
II. Any affiliation of the licensed or registered person with the product issuer
III. Disclosure of monetary and non-monetary benefits received by the intermediary
IV. Any terms and conditions in generic terms under which the client may receive a discount of fees and charges from a licensed or registered personCorrect
The following sales related information needs to be disclosed to a client by a licensed or registered person by the intermediary prior to or at the point of entering into the transaction
I. The capacity (principal or agent) in which a licensed or registered person is acting.
II. Any affiliation of the licensed or registered person with the product issuer
III. Disclosure of monetary and non-monetary benefits received by the intermediary
IV. Any terms and conditions in generic terms under which the client may receive a discount of fees and charges from a licensed or registered personIncorrect
The following sales related information needs to be disclosed to a client by a licensed or registered person by the intermediary prior to or at the point of entering into the transaction
I. The capacity (principal or agent) in which a licensed or registered person is acting.
II. Any affiliation of the licensed or registered person with the product issuer
III. Disclosure of monetary and non-monetary benefits received by the intermediary
IV. Any terms and conditions in generic terms under which the client may receive a discount of fees and charges from a licensed or registered personHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.44
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Question 518 of 770
518. Question
1 pointsQID386:A licensed or registered person should try to avoid conflict of interest between:
I. Two clients
II. A client and an issuer
III. A client and the intermediary
IV. A client and a staff memberCorrect
A licensed or registered person should try to avoid conflicts of interest, which may arise between:
(a) one client and another client; and/or
(b) a client and the licensed or registered person or its staff.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person should try to avoid conflicts of interest, which may arise between:
(a) one client and another client; and/or
(b) a client and the licensed or registered person or its staff.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.46
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Question 519 of 770
519. Question
1 pointsQID390:According to conflicts of interest principle, the intermediary should
I. Avoid front running
II. Avoid conflicts in connection with the handling of client orders
III. If the conflict of interest is unavoidable, the intermediary should disclose the conflict of interest to the client and adopt all reasonable measures to ensure the client can receive fair and proper treatment.
IV. Should not hold any non-public information which is likely to affect the price of the instruments when it is publicly released.Correct
When handling client orders, a licensed or registered person will also acquire client information of a non-public nature. This information should not be used for the benefit of the licensed or registered person or its staff, and the Code of Conduct requires a licensed or registered person to ensure that neither it nor its employees deal (whether for the benefit of the licensed or registered person, its employee or a client):
(a) ahead of transactions pending for other clients (“front running”); or
Where conflicts cannot be avoided, paragraph 10 requires the licensed or registered person not to advise or deal in relation to the transaction unless it has disclosed the conflict of interest to the client and has taken all reasonable steps to ensure fair treatment for the client.Incorrect
When handling client orders, a licensed or registered person will also acquire client information of a non-public nature. This information should not be used for the benefit of the licensed or registered person or its staff, and the Code of Conduct requires a licensed or registered person to ensure that neither it nor its employees deal (whether for the benefit of the licensed or registered person, its employee or a client):
(a) ahead of transactions pending for other clients (“front running”); or
Where conflicts cannot be avoided, paragraph 10 requires the licensed or registered person not to advise or deal in relation to the transaction unless it has disclosed the conflict of interest to the client and has taken all reasonable steps to ensure fair treatment for the client.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.46
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Question 520 of 770
520. Question
1 pointsQID1344:Which of the following orders should have the highest priority in Kaohsiung Securities’ dealing room (assuming the orders arrive at the same time)?
Correct
The Code of Conduct requires a licensed or registered person to handle client orders fairly and in which they are received. They should have priority over orders for the account of the licensed or registered person or for that of any employee or agent of the licensed or registered person.
Incorrect
The Code of Conduct requires a licensed or registered person to handle client orders fairly and in which they are received. They should have priority over orders for the account of the licensed or registered person or for that of any employee or agent of the licensed or registered person.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.48
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Question 521 of 770
521. Question
1 pointsQID389:According to the code of conduct, should client order has a higher priority over house order?
I. House accounts should have priority over client accounts
II. Client accounts should have priority over house accounts
III. Orders priorities should be based on when they are received.
IV. Staff accounts should have priority over client accountsCorrect
The Code of Conduct requires a licensed or registered person to handle client orders fairly and in the order in which they are received. They should have priority over orders for the account of the licensed or registered person, or for the account of any employee or agent of the licensed or registered person.
Incorrect
The Code of Conduct requires a licensed or registered person to handle client orders fairly and in the order in which they are received. They should have priority over orders for the account of the licensed or registered person, or for the account of any employee or agent of the licensed or registered person.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.48
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Question 522 of 770
522. Question
1 pointsQID1579:Among client trades, staff trades and house trades, which trades should be given highest priority?
Correct
Licensed and registered persons should fairly process cllients’ trading requests in the order in which they receive the trading instructions. Executions of trading requests of clients should have higher priority than the account of licensed or registered persons themselves, or any employees of licensed or registered persons or trading requests from the account of agents themselves.
Incorrect
Licensed and registered persons should fairly process cllients’ trading requests in the order in which they receive the trading instructions. Executions of trading requests of clients should have higher priority than the account of licensed or registered persons themselves, or any employees of licensed or registered persons or trading requests from the account of agents themselves.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.48
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Question 523 of 770
523. Question
1 pointsQID2840:According to the Fund Manager Code of Conduct, can the orders of intermediaries and clients be consolidated?
Correct
Under the Fund Manager Code of Conduct, orders from intermediaries and clients may be consolidated, but only in the best interests of clients.
Incorrect
Under the Fund Manager Code of Conduct, orders from intermediaries and clients may be consolidated, but only in the best interests of clients.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.49
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Question 524 of 770
524. Question
1 pointsQID2713:Which of the following statements about processing client orders is incorrect?
Correct
The best principles for trading:
1. Process in order first
2. If instructions are received at the same time, the client will take priority
3. If it is necessary to combine processing for clients, it should be divided equally on a pro-rata basis
4. If it is necessary to combine processing for the client with the company’s trades, the client should be satisfied firstIf the company’s own transactions and employee transaction instructions are received before the clients’ instructions, the time of receipt shall prevail and the transactions shall be processed in order.
Incorrect
The best principles for trading:
1. Process in order first
2. If instructions are received at the same time, the client will take priority
3. If it is necessary to combine processing for clients, it should be divided equally on a pro-rata basis
4. If it is necessary to combine processing for the client with the company’s trades, the client should be satisfied firstIf the company’s own transactions and employee transaction instructions are received before the clients’ instructions, the time of receipt shall prevail and the transactions shall be processed in order.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.49
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Question 525 of 770
525. Question
1 pointsQID2900:Kaoxiong Asset Management manages a CIS called Fund-A. The management of Kaoxiong has recently discovered that the house account of Kaoxiong has traded ahead of Fund-A in multiple transactions. How should Kaoxiong handle such a situation?
Correct
According to the FMCC, clients trades should have priority over house trades. If there are multiple occurrences of such incidents, it basically signifies that it’s a serious loop hole. It should contact the SFC immediately and also instigate an investigation to find out the root cause.
Incorrect
According to the FMCC, clients trades should have priority over house trades. If there are multiple occurrences of such incidents, it basically signifies that it’s a serious loop hole. It should contact the SFC immediately and also instigate an investigation to find out the root cause.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.49
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Question 526 of 770
526. Question
1 pointsQID1620:Clients of Kaohsiung Securities’ and Kaohsiung itself intended to purchase the stocks of Vitamilk. Kaohsiung aggregated those orders, but not all the orders could be filled, only part of the stocks were bought. Was there any wrongdoing in Kaohsiung?
Correct
Where a licensed or registered person has aggregated orders for several clients or orders for a client with orders for its own account, it must give priority to the orders of clients in any subsequent allocation if all the orders cannot be filled. In practice, the SFC would expect that, in allocating orders to several clients which cannot be fully satisfied, the licensed or registered person will avoid giving unfair preference to any one client.
Incorrect
Where a licensed or registered person has aggregated orders for several clients or orders for a client with orders for its own account, it must give priority to the orders of clients in any subsequent allocation if all the orders cannot be filled. In practice, the SFC would expect that, in allocating orders to several clients which cannot be fully satisfied, the licensed or registered person will avoid giving unfair preference to any one client.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.49
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Question 527 of 770
527. Question
1 pointsQID1675:The primary reference document that governs the relationship between the client and the intermediary is
Correct
The Code of Conduct applies to all licensed and registered persons. It concentrates on the external relationships of licensed or registered persons, particularly with clients.
Incorrect
The Code of Conduct applies to all licensed and registered persons. It concentrates on the external relationships of licensed or registered persons, particularly with clients.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.5
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Question 528 of 770
528. Question
1 pointsQID391:According to the Code of Conduct why did the SFC place great emphasis on rebate, soft dollar and connected transactions?
Correct
A licensed or registered person that acts for a client in the exercise of investment discretion may arrange to receive money (rebates) or goods or services (soft dollars) from a broker in consideration of directing transactions effected on behalf of the client to that broker, subject to the requirements set down by the Code of Conduct. A central concern behind the SFC’s requirements is reducing the risk of conflicts arising from these financial arrangements, which could result in a licensed or registered person not giving the client proper services.
Incorrect
A licensed or registered person that acts for a client in the exercise of investment discretion may arrange to receive money (rebates) or goods or services (soft dollars) from a broker in consideration of directing transactions effected on behalf of the client to that broker, subject to the requirements set down by the Code of Conduct. A central concern behind the SFC’s requirements is reducing the risk of conflicts arising from these financial arrangements, which could result in a licensed or registered person not giving the client proper services.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.51
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Question 529 of 770
529. Question
1 pointsQID1679:Kaoxiong Securities is looking for an execution broker to handle client orders to buy and sell US stocks. Multiple brokers have offer goods and services to attract Kaoxiong to entice Kaoxiong Securities, Kaoxiong Securities can accept which of the following soft dollar goods and services?
I. Clearing and custodial services.
II. Data and quotation services.
III. Travelling
IV. Office StationeryCorrect
Goods and services permitted by the SFC are:
(a) research and advisory services;
(b) economic and political analysis
(c) portfolio analysis, including valuations and performance measurement
(d) market analysis
(e) data and quotation services
(f) computer hardware and software incidental to the above goods and services
(g) clearing and custodial services
(h) investment-related publicationsIncorrect
Goods and services permitted by the SFC are:
(a) research and advisory services;
(b) economic and political analysis
(c) portfolio analysis, including valuations and performance measurement
(d) market analysis
(e) data and quotation services
(f) computer hardware and software incidental to the above goods and services
(g) clearing and custodial services
(h) investment-related publicationsHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.52
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Question 530 of 770
530. Question
1 pointsQID399:According to the Code of Conduct, licensees and registered representatives can accept rebates and soft-dollar benefits from broker in exchange for directing a client’s business. In most cases, broker might offer benefits to the asset management company, under which of the following circumstances such practice are allowed under the Code of Conduct?
Correct
The brokerage charges of the giver are not in excess of customary full-service brokerage rates and execute clients order on the best available terms.
Incorrect
The brokerage charges of the giver are not in excess of customary full-service brokerage rates and execute clients order on the best available terms.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.52
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Question 531 of 770
531. Question
1 pointsQID1346:Intermediaries can receive rebates and soft dollars. However, the rebate and soft dollars must satisfy which of the following conditions?
I. The client has acknowledged and agree to the rebate in writing.
II. Brokerage rates are not in excess of customary full-service brokerage rates.
III. The intermediaries should disclose the rebate and their approximate value to its clients.
IV. Such transaction must be conducted in the SEHK or the instruments of the transaction must be listed on the SEHK.Correct
The requirements in relation to the receipt of money or cash rebates are:
(a) the licensed or registered person must have described its practices in relation to rebates and the client consented in writing to the licensed or registered person receiving and retaining the rebates; this may be provided for in the client agreement or other investment management agreement. In addition, the licensed or registered person should disclose to its clients at least annually details of the goods and services received;
(b) brokerage rates are not in excess of customary full-service rates; and
(c) the rebates and their approximate values are disclosed to the client; such information must be provided to the client at least twice annually, or in each contract note.Incorrect
The requirements in relation to the receipt of money or cash rebates are:
(a) the licensed or registered person must have described its practices in relation to rebates and the client consented in writing to the licensed or registered person receiving and retaining the rebates; this may be provided for in the client agreement or other investment management agreement. In addition, the licensed or registered person should disclose to its clients at least annually details of the goods and services received;
(b) brokerage rates are not in excess of customary full-service rates; and
(c) the rebates and their approximate values are disclosed to the client; such information must be provided to the client at least twice annually, or in each contract note.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.52
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Question 532 of 770
532. Question
1 pointsQID2433:Why intermediaries who manage on behalf of their clients can only receive non-monetary benefits according to the rules designated in the Code of Conduct?
Correct
Intermediaries who manage on behalf of their clients can only receive non-monetary benefits according to the rules designated in the Code of Conduct in order to avoid the possible conflicts of interests.
Incorrect
Intermediaries who manage on behalf of their clients can only receive non-monetary benefits according to the rules designated in the Code of Conduct in order to avoid the possible conflicts of interests.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.52
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Question 533 of 770
533. Question
1 pointsQID763:Which of the following can be classified as operational risk?
Correct
This can be understood for our purposes as the risk of loss to the intermediary as a result of errors, omissions, inefficiencies and negligence in operations or in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, excluding the three other risks already covered. Fraud has been included as an operational risk, but it is arguable that it cannot be avoided altogether by installing internal controls. Answer A fulfils this description.
Incorrect
This can be understood for our purposes as the risk of loss to the intermediary as a result of errors, omissions, inefficiencies and negligence in operations or in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, excluding the three other risks already covered. Fraud has been included as an operational risk, but it is arguable that it cannot be avoided altogether by installing internal controls. Answer A fulfils this description.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.52
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Question 534 of 770
534. Question
1 pointsQID2483:If intermediaries found conflicts of interests with clients in a transaction, they should:
Correct
No matter whether the clients are professional investors, when there is conflicts of interests, they should disclose to their clients first, and engage in the transaction only if their clients agree.
Incorrect
No matter whether the clients are professional investors, when there is conflicts of interests, they should disclose to their clients first, and engage in the transaction only if their clients agree.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.52
-
Question 535 of 770
535. Question
1 pointsQID2603:When the asset managers manage portfolios for their customers, can they receive benefits from introducing brokerage business?
Correct
When managing portfolios for their customers, asset managers can receive rebates and non-monetary benefits under certain limits, and they should have written approval from their customers before they open the accounts.
Incorrect
When managing portfolios for their customers, asset managers can receive rebates and non-monetary benefits under certain limits, and they should have written approval from their customers before they open the accounts.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.55
-
Question 536 of 770
536. Question
1 pointsQID923:According to the Fund Manager Code of Conduct (FMCC), can fund managers accept gifts and soft dollars?
Correct
Fund Managers can accept certain gifts and soft dollars as long as there is no conflict of interest and its clients agree to such receptions in writing.
Incorrect
Fund Managers can accept certain gifts and soft dollars as long as there is no conflict of interest and its clients agree to such receptions in writing.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.55
-
Question 537 of 770
537. Question
1 pointsQID2605:When should disclosures concerning monetary and non-monetary benefits received by an intermediary be made?
Correct
The intermediaries should disclosures concerning monetary and non-monetary benefits prior to or at the point of entering into the transaction.
In the event that any required disclosure cannot be made in writing before a transaction is concluded, disclosure should be made on a verbal basis by the licensed or registered person and the disclosure should be provided in writing to the client as soon as practicable after the
conclusion of the transaction.Incorrect
The intermediaries should disclosures concerning monetary and non-monetary benefits prior to or at the point of entering into the transaction.
In the event that any required disclosure cannot be made in writing before a transaction is concluded, disclosure should be made on a verbal basis by the licensed or registered person and the disclosure should be provided in writing to the client as soon as practicable after the
conclusion of the transaction.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.56
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Question 538 of 770
538. Question
1 pointsQID1325:Which of the following is NOT the legal responsibility of a licenced corporation’s senior management?
Correct
Responsible officers, together with the senior management of a licensed corporation (and, in the case of a registered institution, the executive officers), assume primary responsibility for ensuring that the intermediary complies at all times with the SFC’s fit and proper guidelines in order to remain licensed or registered.
The SFO expressly introduces liability for responsible officers or persons involved in the management of the business of a licensed corporation, or executive officers of a registered institution, or persons involved in the management of the business constituting a RA of the registered institution, where they have consented to, connived at or been neglectful of misconduct by the licensed corporation or registered institution.Incorrect
Responsible officers, together with the senior management of a licensed corporation (and, in the case of a registered institution, the executive officers), assume primary responsibility for ensuring that the intermediary complies at all times with the SFC’s fit and proper guidelines in order to remain licensed or registered.
The SFO expressly introduces liability for responsible officers or persons involved in the management of the business of a licensed corporation, or executive officers of a registered institution, or persons involved in the management of the business constituting a RA of the registered institution, where they have consented to, connived at or been neglectful of misconduct by the licensed corporation or registered institution.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.59
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Question 539 of 770
539. Question
1 pointsQID2829:Which of the following is not included in the general principles of compliance in the Code of Conduct?
Correct
The general principles of compliance with regulations contained in the Code of Conduct include:
1. Obligations under the Financial Dispute Resolution Scheme
2. Complaints
3. Responsibility for acts of employees
4. Notification to the SFC
5. Cooperation under the Financial Dispute Resolution Scheme
6. Expert witnesses
7. Employee dealingsIncorrect
The general principles of compliance with regulations contained in the Code of Conduct include:
1. Obligations under the Financial Dispute Resolution Scheme
2. Complaints
3. Responsibility for acts of employees
4. Notification to the SFC
5. Cooperation under the Financial Dispute Resolution Scheme
6. Expert witnesses
7. Employee dealingsHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.59
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Question 540 of 770
540. Question
1 pointsQID209:Mr Wan is a staff member of British Construction Bank, a registered institution. Mr Wan has violated the code of conduct in a series of securities dealing. Can the SFC take any action towards Mr Wan?
Correct
Section 194, SFO provides that if a “regulated person” is guilty of “misconduct”, or is not a fit and proper person, the SFC may:
(a.) in the case of a licensed corporation or representative, revoke or suspend the licence in respect of all or part of the licensed regulated activity;
(b.) in the case of a responsible officer, revoke or suspend approval as a responsible officer;
(c.) publicly or privately reprimand the regulated person;
(d.) prohibit the regulated person from applying for a licence, registration, approval as a responsible officer or entry in the HKMA register, or to act as an executive officer.Incorrect
Section 194, SFO provides that if a “regulated person” is guilty of “misconduct”, or is not a fit and proper person, the SFC may:
(a.) in the case of a licensed corporation or representative, revoke or suspend the licence in respect of all or part of the licensed regulated activity;
(b.) in the case of a responsible officer, revoke or suspend approval as a responsible officer;
(c.) publicly or privately reprimand the regulated person;
(d.) prohibit the regulated person from applying for a licence, registration, approval as a responsible officer or entry in the HKMA register, or to act as an executive officer.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.6
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Question 541 of 770
541. Question
1 pointsQID2736:Which of the following is not a recommendation of the Code of Conduct and Internal Control Guidelines?
Correct
Staff transactions in their own accounts must be reported to senior management.
Incorrect
Staff transactions in their own accounts must be reported to senior management.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.61
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Question 542 of 770
542. Question
1 pointsQID2708:Which of the following statements are true about the licensed corporation’s written policy on employee transactions?
I. Employees may trade for their own accounts subject to policy restrictions established by the intermediary
II. Transactions by employees and related accounts should be reported to senior management
III. Employee transaction limits should only be based on rank
IV. Employees who trade through other intermediaries must provide the senior management of the employer with a copy of the transaction confirmation and account statementCorrect
Employee transaction limits should not be based on rank.
Incorrect
Employee transaction limits should not be based on rank.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.61
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Question 543 of 770
543. Question
1 pointsQID868:Kaohsiung Futures is a licenced corporation. Mr Ko is a licenced representative of Kaohsiung Futures. Since Kaohsiung Futures does not provide global futures broking service. Mr Ko wishes to trade global futures with another licenced corporation Millionaire Securities. Can Millionaire Securities open an account for Mr Ko?
Correct
A licensed or registered person must have a written policy issued to employees specifying whether or not they can deal or trade for their own accounts in securities or futures contracts. If employees are permitted to deal or trade, the policy should specify the following matters:
(g) that a licensed or registered person should not knowingly have another licensed or registered person’s employee as a client without the written consent of that employee’s principal.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person must have a written policy issued to employees specifying whether or not they can deal or trade for their own accounts in securities or futures contracts. If employees are permitted to deal or trade, the policy should specify the following matters:
(g) that a licensed or registered person should not knowingly have another licensed or registered person’s employee as a client without the written consent of that employee’s principal.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.61
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Question 544 of 770
544. Question
1 pointsQID401:How should an intermediary deal with employees’ dealings?
I. Employees must be given a directive in speaking to specify whether or not they can deal or trade for their accounts in securities and futures contracts.
II. Specify that the employees should identify all related accounts and report them to senior management.
III. Specify that employees should generally be required to deal through the licensed or registered person and its affiliates.
IV. Record employees dealings separately and identify these dealings in the licensed and registered person’s records.Correct
A licensed or registered person must have a written policy issued to employees specifying whether or not they can deal or trade for their own accounts in securities or futures contracts. If employees are permitted to deal or trade, the policy should specify the following matters:
(b) that employees should identify all related accounts and report them to senior management (“related accounts” refers to accounts of minor children and accounts in which employees have a beneficial interest.);
© that employees should generally be required to deal through the licensed or registered person or its affiliates;
(e.) that any transactions covered by this section should be separately recorded and identified in the licensed or registered person’s records.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person must have a written policy issued to employees specifying whether or not they can deal or trade for their own accounts in securities or futures contracts. If employees are permitted to deal or trade, the policy should specify the following matters:
(b) that employees should identify all related accounts and report them to senior management (“related accounts” refers to accounts of minor children and accounts in which employees have a beneficial interest.);
© that employees should generally be required to deal through the licensed or registered person or its affiliates;
(e.) that any transactions covered by this section should be separately recorded and identified in the licensed or registered person’s records.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.61
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Question 545 of 770
545. Question
1 pointsQID1347:To address staff dealing, an intermediary should:
I. Issue a written policy to employees specifying whether they can deal or trade with their own accounts.
II. Specify that transactions on employees’ and related accounts should be reported to and actively monitored by the senior management.
III. Specify that employees are allowed to deal in securities through other licensed or registered persons only with the approval of the management.
IV. The intermediary should not knowingly accept staff of other intermediaries as its clients without the consent of the principal of the client.Correct
A licensed or registered person must have a written policy issued to employees specifying whether or not they can deal or trade for their own accounts in securities or futures contracts. If employees are permitted to deal or trade, the policy should specify the following matters:
(a) the conditions on which employees may do so;
(b) that employees should identify all related accounts and report them to the senior management (“related accounts” refers to accounts of minor children and accounts in which employees have a beneficial interest.);
(d) that if employees are allowed to deal in securities through other licensed or registered persons, the licensed or registered person (principal) and the employees should arrange for duplicate trade confirmations and statements of account to be provided to the senior management of the licensed or registered person (principal);
(g) that a licensed or registered person should not knowingly have another licensed or registered person’s employee as a client without the written consent of that employee’s principal.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person must have a written policy issued to employees specifying whether or not they can deal or trade for their own accounts in securities or futures contracts. If employees are permitted to deal or trade, the policy should specify the following matters:
(a) the conditions on which employees may do so;
(b) that employees should identify all related accounts and report them to the senior management (“related accounts” refers to accounts of minor children and accounts in which employees have a beneficial interest.);
(d) that if employees are allowed to deal in securities through other licensed or registered persons, the licensed or registered person (principal) and the employees should arrange for duplicate trade confirmations and statements of account to be provided to the senior management of the licensed or registered person (principal);
(g) that a licensed or registered person should not knowingly have another licensed or registered person’s employee as a client without the written consent of that employee’s principal.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.61
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Question 546 of 770
546. Question
1 pointsQID403:How should an intermediary handle complaints from clients about the company’s frontline trading staff?
I. Handle complaints from clients in a timely and appropriate manner.
II. Investigate them and respond promptly.
III. If it is unable to investigate them and respond promptly, the intermediary should advise the client of any further steps available to him under the regulatory system including the right to refer the dispute to the FDRC.
IV. Review the subject matter of a complaint properly upon receipt.Correct
A licensed or registered person is required to:
(a) handle complaints from clients in a timely and appropriate manner;
(b) investigate them and respond promptly;
(c.) if it is unable to do so, advise the client of any further steps available to him under the regulatory system including the right to refer the dispute to the FDRC; and
(d) review the subject matter of a complaint properly upon receipt. If the subject matter relates to other clients, or raises issues of broader concern, the licensed or registered person should take steps to investigate and remedy the matter, even if such other clients.
Options I, II, III and IV reflect the requirements of the Code of Conduct for licensed individuals and corporations regarding the issue of handling customer complaints.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person is required to:
(a) handle complaints from clients in a timely and appropriate manner;
(b) investigate them and respond promptly;
(c.) if it is unable to do so, advise the client of any further steps available to him under the regulatory system including the right to refer the dispute to the FDRC; and
(d) review the subject matter of a complaint properly upon receipt. If the subject matter relates to other clients, or raises issues of broader concern, the licensed or registered person should take steps to investigate and remedy the matter, even if such other clients.
Options I, II, III and IV reflect the requirements of the Code of Conduct for licensed individuals and corporations regarding the issue of handling customer complaints.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.62
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Question 547 of 770
547. Question
1 pointsQID402:How should an intermediary handle complaint?
I. Nothing has to be done if the intermediary has not violated any code of conduct or ordinance.
II. The intermediary should investigate and respond promptly.
III. If the intermediary is unable to respond promptly, the intermediary should advise the client of any further steps available to him under the regulatory system including the right to refer the dispute to the FDR.
IV. The intermediary should review the subject matter of a complaint properly upon receipt. If the subject matter relates to other clients, or raises issues of broader concern, the licensed or registered person should take steps to investigate and remedy the matter, even if such other clients have not filed any complaint with the licensed or registered person and/or the FDRCCorrect
A licensed or registered person is required to:
(a) handle complaints from clients in a timely and appropriate manner;
(b) investigate them and respond promptly;
(c.) if it is unable to do so, advise the client of any further steps available to him under the regulatory system including the right to refer the dispute to the FDRC; and
(d) review the subject matter of a complaint properly upon receipt. If the subject matter relates to other clients, or raises issues of broader concern, the licensed or registered person should take steps to investigate and remedy the matter, even if such other clients.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person is required to:
(a) handle complaints from clients in a timely and appropriate manner;
(b) investigate them and respond promptly;
(c.) if it is unable to do so, advise the client of any further steps available to him under the regulatory system including the right to refer the dispute to the FDRC; and
(d) review the subject matter of a complaint properly upon receipt. If the subject matter relates to other clients, or raises issues of broader concern, the licensed or registered person should take steps to investigate and remedy the matter, even if such other clients.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.62
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Question 548 of 770
548. Question
1 pointsQID522:Products of Hong Kong Futures Exchange (HKFE) are traded through which of the following systems?
Correct
The Hong Kong Futures Automated Trading System is a transaction-based trading system
used for trading in HKFE products as well as options traded on the SEHK.Incorrect
The Hong Kong Futures Automated Trading System is a transaction-based trading system
used for trading in HKFE products as well as options traded on the SEHK.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.62
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Question 549 of 770
549. Question
1 pointsQID1328:Miss Chan is a responsible officer of Chang Jiang Securities. The staff of Chang Jiang Securities has violated the law and that has resulted in clients’ losses. Miss Chan has tried her best in preventing such incident from happening and was not aware of the misbehaviour of Chang Jiang Securities’ staff. What consequences will Miss Chan face?
Correct
There is a defence available to such an officer in this regard. The defence is expressly provided for under Part XVI, SFO and essentially discharges a member of management from liability if he can show that he honestly and reasonably believed the failure would not occur. Also if, upon becoming aware of the breach, he acted promptly in notifying the SFC and, until then, had honestly and reasonably believed that the failure would not occur.
Incorrect
There is a defence available to such an officer in this regard. The defence is expressly provided for under Part XVI, SFO and essentially discharges a member of management from liability if he can show that he honestly and reasonably believed the failure would not occur. Also if, upon becoming aware of the breach, he acted promptly in notifying the SFC and, until then, had honestly and reasonably believed that the failure would not occur.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.63
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Question 550 of 770
550. Question
1 pointsQID907:Is the principal liable for the acts of wrongdoing of his/her/its agent?
Correct
The principal liable for the acts of wrongdoing of his/her/its agent.
Incorrect
The principal liable for the acts of wrongdoing of his/her/its agent.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.63
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Question 551 of 770
551. Question
1 pointsQID1326:Mr. Ko is a responsible officer of Chang Jiang Securities and Chang Jiang Securities has failed to meet the requirements of the SFO. Mr. Ko was fully aware of the fact but he kept silent and allowed the operations of Chang Jiang to continue. What consequences will Mr. Ko face?
I. Being suspended or having his status as a Responsible Officer of Chang Jiang revoked.
II. Being suspended or having his authority to act as a Representative revoked.
III. Being publicly or privately reprimanded by the SFC.
IV. Prohibited from applying for licences, registrations, approvals and entry in the HKMA’s register.Correct
There are a number of provisions in the SFO which mean that both the responsible officers of a licensed corporation and the executive officers of a registered institution and the corporation itself are liable for breaches by the corporation of certain fundamental regulatory requirements:
(a) Section 194 provides that if a regulated person is guilty of misconduct or is not a fit and proper person, the SFC may:
(i) in the case of a responsible officer, revoke or suspend approval as a responsible officer;
(ii) in the case of a licensed person, revoke or suspend his licence in respect of all or part of the licensed RA;
(iii) publicly or privately reprimand the regulated person;
(iv) prohibit the regulated person from applying for licences, registrations, approvals and entry in the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (“HKMA”) register, or from acting as an executive officerIncorrect
There are a number of provisions in the SFO which mean that both the responsible officers of a licensed corporation and the executive officers of a registered institution and the corporation itself are liable for breaches by the corporation of certain fundamental regulatory requirements:
(a) Section 194 provides that if a regulated person is guilty of misconduct or is not a fit and proper person, the SFC may:
(i) in the case of a responsible officer, revoke or suspend approval as a responsible officer;
(ii) in the case of a licensed person, revoke or suspend his licence in respect of all or part of the licensed RA;
(iii) publicly or privately reprimand the regulated person;
(iv) prohibit the regulated person from applying for licences, registrations, approvals and entry in the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (“HKMA”) register, or from acting as an executive officerHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.63
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Question 552 of 770
552. Question
1 pointsQID1327:Mr. Ko is the responsible officer of Chang Jiang Securities. The staff of Chang Jiang Securities has violated the law and that has resulted in clients’ losses. Mr. Ko was fully aware of the incident but had allowed the misbehaviour of Chang Jiang Securities’ staff to occur. What consequences will Mr. Ko face?
I. Criminal Prosecution.
II. Fines.
III. Imprisonment.
IV. No Criminal Prosecution.Correct
There are a number of provisions in the SFO which mean that both the responsible officers of a licensed corporation and the executive officers of a registered institution and the corporation
itself are liable for breaches by the corporation of certain fundamental regulatory requirements:
Section 194 provides that if a regulated person is guilty of misconduct or is not a fit and proper person, the SFC may:
(i) in the case of a responsible officer, revoke or suspend approval as a responsible officer;
(ii) in the case of a licensed person, revoke or suspend his licence in respect of all or part of the licensed RA;
(iii) publicly or privately reprimand the regulated person;
(iv) prohibit the regulated person from applying for licences, registrations, approvals and entry in the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (“HKMA”) register, or from acting as an executive officer; and
(v) separately or in addition, order the regulated person to pay a penalty of up to HK$10 million or three times any profit gained or loss avoided as a result of his misconduct, whichever is the greater.If an offence under the SFO committed by a licensed corporation is aided or abetted, counselled or procured by, or committed with the consent or is attributable to the recklessness of, an officer of the corporation, that officer will be guilty of the offence and be punishable accordingly.
Incorrect
There are a number of provisions in the SFO which mean that both the responsible officers of a licensed corporation and the executive officers of a registered institution and the corporation
itself are liable for breaches by the corporation of certain fundamental regulatory requirements:
Section 194 provides that if a regulated person is guilty of misconduct or is not a fit and proper person, the SFC may:
(i) in the case of a responsible officer, revoke or suspend approval as a responsible officer;
(ii) in the case of a licensed person, revoke or suspend his licence in respect of all or part of the licensed RA;
(iii) publicly or privately reprimand the regulated person;
(iv) prohibit the regulated person from applying for licences, registrations, approvals and entry in the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (“HKMA”) register, or from acting as an executive officer; and
(v) separately or in addition, order the regulated person to pay a penalty of up to HK$10 million or three times any profit gained or loss avoided as a result of his misconduct, whichever is the greater.If an offence under the SFO committed by a licensed corporation is aided or abetted, counselled or procured by, or committed with the consent or is attributable to the recklessness of, an officer of the corporation, that officer will be guilty of the offence and be punishable accordingly.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.63
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Question 553 of 770
553. Question
1 pointsQID404:The Code of Conduct specifies that a licensed or registered person is required to make reports to the SFC immediately upon discovery of:
I. Material breaches or suspected material breaches (by the licensed or registered person or its employees or agents) of any law; or rules, regulations and codes administered or issued by the SFC; or the rules of the exchanges and clearing houses of which the licensed or registered person is a participant, or any other authorities which apply to it
II. Any disciplinary actions taken against it by regulators or other professional or trade bodies
III. Any material problems with its business systems or equipment
IV. Any determination or settlement of a complaint with the FDRSCorrect
The Code of Conduct specifies that a licensed or registered person is required to make reports to the SFC immediately upon discovery of:
(a) material breaches or suspected material breaches (by the licensed or registered person or its employees or agents) of any law;
© any disciplinary actions taken against it by regulators or other professional or trade bodies;
(d) any material problems with its business systems or equipment;
(f) any determination or settlement of a complaint with the FDRS.Incorrect
The Code of Conduct specifies that a licensed or registered person is required to make reports to the SFC immediately upon discovery of:
(a) material breaches or suspected material breaches (by the licensed or registered person or its employees or agents) of any law;
© any disciplinary actions taken against it by regulators or other professional or trade bodies;
(d) any material problems with its business systems or equipment;
(f) any determination or settlement of a complaint with the FDRS.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.64
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Question 554 of 770
554. Question
1 pointsQID2807:Which of the following events is not required for a licensed corporation to report to the SFC?
Correct
The Code of Conduct specifies that a licensed or registered person is required to make reportsto the SFC immediately upon discovery of:
(a) material breaches or suspected material breaches (by the licensed or registered person or its employees or agents) of any law; or rules, regulations and codes administered or issued by the SFC; or the rules of the exchanges and clearing houses of which the licensed or
registered person is a participant, or any other authorities which apply to it;
(b) any insolvency situations affecting it, its substantial shareholders or its directors;
(c) any disciplinary actions taken against it by regulators or other professional or trade bodies;
(d) any material problems with its business systems or equipment;
(e) any suspected material breach of market misconduct provisions under the SFO by its client; or
(f) any determination or settlement of a complaint with the FDRS.
Traffic accidents are not serious breaches or suspected serious breaches of the law and therefore do not need to be reported to the SFC.Incorrect
The Code of Conduct specifies that a licensed or registered person is required to make reportsto the SFC immediately upon discovery of:
(a) material breaches or suspected material breaches (by the licensed or registered person or its employees or agents) of any law; or rules, regulations and codes administered or issued by the SFC; or the rules of the exchanges and clearing houses of which the licensed or
registered person is a participant, or any other authorities which apply to it;
(b) any insolvency situations affecting it, its substantial shareholders or its directors;
(c) any disciplinary actions taken against it by regulators or other professional or trade bodies;
(d) any material problems with its business systems or equipment;
(e) any suspected material breach of market misconduct provisions under the SFO by its client; or
(f) any determination or settlement of a complaint with the FDRS.
Traffic accidents are not serious breaches or suspected serious breaches of the law and therefore do not need to be reported to the SFC.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.64
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Question 555 of 770
555. Question
1 pointsQID2606:The intermediaries or their staff should notify the SFC when seriously violating which of the following items?
I. any rules
II. rules of the SFC
III. code of the SFC
IV. guidelines of the SFCCorrect
The intermediaries or their staff should notify the SFC when seriously violating the following items:
I. any rules
II. rules of the SFC
III. code of the SFC
IV. guidelines of the SFCIncorrect
The intermediaries or their staff should notify the SFC when seriously violating the following items:
I. any rules
II. rules of the SFC
III. code of the SFC
IV. guidelines of the SFCHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.64
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Question 556 of 770
556. Question
1 pointsQID352:Licensee should notify the SFC under which of the following events?
I. Staff violating the Code of Conduct
II. Staff violating the FMCC
III. Staff violating the SFO
IV. Systemic failure of operation systems and toolsCorrect
All licensees are responsible to disclose any breach in any of the Codes enforced by the SFC.
Incorrect
All licensees are responsible to disclose any breach in any of the Codes enforced by the SFC.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.64
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Question 557 of 770
557. Question
1 pointsQID2510:Mr Ko is a fund manager, he found out that there are some front running activities, how should he handle it?
Correct
Any material violation of the Code of Conduct shoul d be reported to the SFC immediately.
Incorrect
Any material violation of the Code of Conduct shoul d be reported to the SFC immediately.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.64
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Question 558 of 770
558. Question
1 pointsQID1348:In the event of which of the following situations is the Responsible officer of the Licensed Corporation required to make reports to the SFC?
I. Any material problems with its business systems or equipment.
II. Material breaches or suspected material breaches of any law; or rules, regulations and codes administered or issued by the SFC; or the rules of the exchanges and clearing houses.
III. Any staff member facing criminal prosecutions.
IV. When the intermediary, its major shareholder or director is insolvent.Correct
The Code of Conduct specifies that a licensed or registered person is required to make reports to the SFC immediately upon discovery of:
(a) material breaches or suspected material breaches (by the licensed or registered person or its employees or agents) of any law; or rules, regulations and codes administered or issued by the SFC; or the rules of the exchanges and clearing houses of which the licensed or registered person is a participant, or any other authorities which apply to it;
(b) any insolvency situations affecting it, its substantial shareholders or its directors;
(d) any material problems with its business systems or equipmentIncorrect
The Code of Conduct specifies that a licensed or registered person is required to make reports to the SFC immediately upon discovery of:
(a) material breaches or suspected material breaches (by the licensed or registered person or its employees or agents) of any law; or rules, regulations and codes administered or issued by the SFC; or the rules of the exchanges and clearing houses of which the licensed or registered person is a participant, or any other authorities which apply to it;
(b) any insolvency situations affecting it, its substantial shareholders or its directors;
(d) any material problems with its business systems or equipmentHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.64
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Question 559 of 770
559. Question
1 pointsQID852:Kaohsiung Futures should notify the SFC in the occurrences of which of the following incidents?
I. A staff member of Kaohsiung Futures has materially breached any laws.
II. A staff member of Kaohsiung Futures has violated the rules, codes and guidelines issued by the SFC.
III. Kaohsiung Futures is failing to meet its liabilities and is about to wind-up.
IV. The directors of Kaohsiung Futures has committed an offence under the anti-bribery ordinance.Correct
The Code of Conduct specifies that a licensed or registered person is required to make reports to the SFC immediately upon discovery of:
(a) material breaches or suspected material breaches (by the licensed or registered person or its employees or agents) of any law; or rules, regulations and codes administered or issued
by the SFC; or the rules of the exchanges and clearing houses of which the licensed or registered person is a participant, or any other authorities which apply to it;
(b) any insolvency situations affecting it, its substantial shareholders or its directors;
(c) any disciplinary actions taken against it by regulators or other professional or trade bodies;
(d) any material problems with its business systems or equipment;
(e) any suspected material breach of market misconduct provisions under the SFO by its client; or
(f) any determination or settlement of a complaint with the FDRS..Incorrect
The Code of Conduct specifies that a licensed or registered person is required to make reports to the SFC immediately upon discovery of:
(a) material breaches or suspected material breaches (by the licensed or registered person or its employees or agents) of any law; or rules, regulations and codes administered or issued
by the SFC; or the rules of the exchanges and clearing houses of which the licensed or registered person is a participant, or any other authorities which apply to it;
(b) any insolvency situations affecting it, its substantial shareholders or its directors;
(c) any disciplinary actions taken against it by regulators or other professional or trade bodies;
(d) any material problems with its business systems or equipment;
(e) any suspected material breach of market misconduct provisions under the SFO by its client; or
(f) any determination or settlement of a complaint with the FDRS..Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.64
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Question 560 of 770
560. Question
1 pointsQID1580:Under which of the following circumstances should the licensed corporation notify the SFC?
I. Staff breaching the law
II. Responsible officer breaching the law
III. Material errors in the computer system resulting in dysfunctional operation
IV. Staff severely violating the Code of ConductCorrect
The Code of Conduct specifies situations that require a licensed or registered person to make reports to the SFC. These requirements reflect similar requirements in the SFO and subsidiary legislation. They include the reporting of:
(a) material breaches or suspected material breaches of any law, or of the rules, regulations, codes and guidelines administered or issued by the SFC or the exchanges and clearing houses of which the licensed or registered person is a participant, or any other regulatory authorities which apply to it, by itself or its employees;
(d) any material problems with its business systems or equipmentIncorrect
The Code of Conduct specifies situations that require a licensed or registered person to make reports to the SFC. These requirements reflect similar requirements in the SFO and subsidiary legislation. They include the reporting of:
(a) material breaches or suspected material breaches of any law, or of the rules, regulations, codes and guidelines administered or issued by the SFC or the exchanges and clearing houses of which the licensed or registered person is a participant, or any other regulatory authorities which apply to it, by itself or its employees;
(d) any material problems with its business systems or equipmentHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.64
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Question 561 of 770
561. Question
1 pointsQID2555:Miss. Sie is a manager at Kaohsiung Securities. The SFC is planning to invite Miss Sie as an expert witness. Should Miss Sie attend or not?
Correct
Invitees can decide at their own will whether to attend, and the employers cannot prohibit their employees from attending.
Incorrect
Invitees can decide at their own will whether to attend, and the employers cannot prohibit their employees from attending.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.66
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Question 562 of 770
562. Question
1 pointsQID358:Which of the following are the nine General Principles of the Code of Conduct?
I. Honesty and fairness
II. Diligence
III. Capabilities
IV. Information about clientsCorrect
All of these Options are 4 of the 9 principles stated in the Code of Conduct.
Incorrect
All of these Options are 4 of the 9 principles stated in the Code of Conduct.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.7
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Question 563 of 770
563. Question
1 pointsQID2600:Which of the following description is correct regarding managers-in-charge of core functions?
Correct
As long as the work is related to core functions, the SFC may consider some employees not reported as managers-in-charge of core functions.
Incorrect
As long as the work is related to core functions, the SFC may consider some employees not reported as managers-in-charge of core functions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.73
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Question 564 of 770
564. Question
1 pointsQID506:Mr. Yu is a senior stockbroker and has in-depth understanding of investments. He hopes to establish a securities company to enable customers to trade via the Internet. What measures should he take to facilitate this?
I. Ensure that there is at least one responsible officer or executive officer responsible for the overall management and supervision of the system.
II. Ensure that electronic records of all transactions are kept.
III. Ensure that the electronic trading system used and provided
for customers’ use is stable.
IV. Written internal policies and procedures on the operation of the electronic trading system is established and implemented by technical staff.Correct
A licensed or registered person should effectively manage and adequately supervise the design and operation of the electronic trading system it uses or provides to clients for use. Examples of measures include that:
(a) written internal policies and procedures on the operation of the system should be established and implemented by the licensed or registered person;
(b) at least one responsible officer or executive officer should be responsible for the overall
management and supervision of the system; and
© adequate qualified staff, technology and financial resources should be assigned to the
design and operation of the system.
Options I, II, III, IV are parts of the applications in this case. Internal policies should be defined by the management not technical staff.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person should effectively manage and adequately supervise the design and operation of the electronic trading system it uses or provides to clients for use. Examples of measures include that:
(a) written internal policies and procedures on the operation of the system should be established and implemented by the licensed or registered person;
(b) at least one responsible officer or executive officer should be responsible for the overall
management and supervision of the system; and
© adequate qualified staff, technology and financial resources should be assigned to the
design and operation of the system.
Options I, II, III, IV are parts of the applications in this case. Internal policies should be defined by the management not technical staff.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.79
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Question 565 of 770
565. Question
1 pointsQID500:Which of the following statements are CORRECT in explaining the relationship between the intermediaries and electronic trading?
I. Intermediaries is Responsible for the settlement and financial obligations of
orders sent to the market through its electronic trading system.
II. Intermediaries is Responsible for the implementation of policies, procedures and controls to supervise the orders.
III. Intermediaries should Effectively manage and adequately supervise the design and operation of the system used to ensure that the system’s integrity.
IV. Intermediaries should Monitor the capacity and the usage of the electronic trading system to ensure optimal efficiency.Correct
A licensed or registered person is responsible for:
(a) the settlement and financial obligations of orders sent to the market through its electronic trading system; and
(b) the implementation of policies, procedures and controls to supervise the orders in compliance with applicable regulatory requirements.
Also, a licensed or registered person should effectively manage and adequately supervise the design and operation of the electronic trading system it uses or provides to clients for use.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person is responsible for:
(a) the settlement and financial obligations of orders sent to the market through its electronic trading system; and
(b) the implementation of policies, procedures and controls to supervise the orders in compliance with applicable regulatory requirements.
Also, a licensed or registered person should effectively manage and adequately supervise the design and operation of the electronic trading system it uses or provides to clients for use.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.79
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Question 566 of 770
566. Question
1 pointsQID1331:Representations to clients, invitations and advertisements should be
I. Accurate
II. Without false, misleading or deceptive information
III. Timely
IV. Objective-DrivenCorrect
(a) Representations and information to clients should be accurate and not misleading.
Invitations and advertisements should not contain information that is false, misleading or deceptive; and they should not contain derogatory comments about products or services provided by others.Incorrect
(a) Representations and information to clients should be accurate and not misleading.
Invitations and advertisements should not contain information that is false, misleading or deceptive; and they should not contain derogatory comments about products or services provided by others.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.8
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Question 567 of 770
567. Question
1 pointsQID361:The principle of honesty and fairness in the Code of Conduct for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the Securities and Futures Commission is expressed in which of the following statements?
I. Representations should be accurate and not misleading.
II. Confirmation of transactions may be provided if clients ask for it.
III. Intermediaries and their staff should not receive advantages if they feel these would interfere with their proper conduct to their clients.
IV. Transactions may be carried out for discretionary clients without prior reference to clientsCorrect
A licensed or registered person “should act honestly, fairly and in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”. This principle is expanded in the Code of Conduct to the following:
(a) Representations and information to clients should be accurate and not misleading; also, a representative acting as an agent should not, without the permission of his principal, solicit or receive an advantage such as money, gift, employment, service or favour.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person “should act honestly, fairly and in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”. This principle is expanded in the Code of Conduct to the following:
(a) Representations and information to clients should be accurate and not misleading; also, a representative acting as an agent should not, without the permission of his principal, solicit or receive an advantage such as money, gift, employment, service or favour.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.8
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Question 568 of 770
568. Question
1 pointsQID362:Professional Investors David Wan is a client of Pharaoh Brokerage. On a Friday morning, David Wan called his broker Mr. Ko to inquire about Mr. Ko’s opinion on trading the stock of Highland Bean Curd. Mr. Ko was very busy; therefore, he decided to provide information of another comparable stock, Delta Bean Curd to David Wan for reference. David Wan then purchased Delta Bean Curd based on the information provided by Mr. Ko. It was later discovered by Mr. Ko that the information provided to Mr. Wan was not accurate. Did Mr. Ko have any wrongdoing in the case?
Correct
A licensed or registered person “should act honestly, fairly and in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”. This principle is expanded in the Code of Conduct to the following:
(a) Representations and information to clients should be accurate and not misleading. In this case, Mr. Ko provided misleading information to his client that led his client to make an uninformed decision.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person “should act honestly, fairly and in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”. This principle is expanded in the Code of Conduct to the following:
(a) Representations and information to clients should be accurate and not misleading. In this case, Mr. Ko provided misleading information to his client that led his client to make an uninformed decision.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.8
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Question 569 of 770
569. Question
1 pointsQID2432:”The information and statement provided to clients should be accurate and not misleading” belongs to which of the following general rule?
Correct
“The information and statement provided to clients should be accurate and not misleading” belongs to the honesty and fairness rule?
Incorrect
“The information and statement provided to clients should be accurate and not misleading” belongs to the honesty and fairness rule?
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.8
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Question 570 of 770
570. Question
1 pointsQID1332:According to the general principles of the Code of Conduct, when conducting its business, how should a licensed or registered person behave when conducting its business activities?
Correct
In conducting its business activities, a licensed or registered person should “act honestly, fairly, and in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”.
Incorrect
In conducting its business activities, a licensed or registered person should “act honestly, fairly, and in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.8
-
Question 571 of 770
571. Question
1 pointsQID360:Ms. Tsang is a professional investor who is enthusiastic about speculation. She is also a client of Kaohsiung Securities. Ms. Tsang provided additional remuneration to Kaohsiung Securities and requested the company to give priority in processing her orders. Kaohsiung Securities agrees to her request. Have Ms. Tsang and Kaohsiung Securities breached the Prevention of Bribery Ordinance and the Code of Conduct?
Correct
Yes, in this situation there is a breach of the PBO given that the company is accepting unfair advantages to give a client a priority or an advantage over any other clients.
Incorrect
Yes, in this situation there is a breach of the PBO given that the company is accepting unfair advantages to give a client a priority or an advantage over any other clients.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.8
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Question 572 of 770
572. Question
1 pointsQID2464:The fee of Rich Securities is higher than other securities brokerage, though the service is more versatile. Mr. Liao, a client, thinks that the fee of Rich Securities is too high and unfair. So he made a complaint towards the securities. Does Rich Securities need to re-examine its fee structure?
Correct
It’s reasonable and fair for intermediaries to charge fees. However, it doesn’t propose an objective number. Therefore, there is no violation of the Code of Conduct as long as the fee can be justified.
Incorrect
It’s reasonable and fair for intermediaries to charge fees. However, it doesn’t propose an objective number. Therefore, there is no violation of the Code of Conduct as long as the fee can be justified.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.8
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Question 573 of 770
573. Question
1 pointsQID1333:Which of the following areas are covered by the Honesty and Fairness principle of the Code of Conduct?
I. Representations and information to clients should be accurate and not misleading.
II. The intermediary should be aware of and comply with the provisions of the Prevention of Bribery Ordinance.
III. Charges to clients should be fair and reasonable.
IV. Invitations and advertisements should not contain information that is false, misleading or deceptive.Correct
In conducting its business activities, a licensed or registered person should “act honestly, fairly, and in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”. This principle is
expanded in the Code of Conduct to the following situations:
(a) Representations and information to clients should be accurate and not misleading.
(b) Charges to clients should be fair and reasonable.
(c) Invitations and advertisements should not contain information that is false, misleading or deceptive; and they should not contain derogatory comments about products or services provided by others.
(d) It should be aware of and comply with the provisions of the Prevention of Bribery Ordinance (“PBO”) and any related guidelines issued by the Independent Commission Against Corruption.Incorrect
In conducting its business activities, a licensed or registered person should “act honestly, fairly, and in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”. This principle is
expanded in the Code of Conduct to the following situations:
(a) Representations and information to clients should be accurate and not misleading.
(b) Charges to clients should be fair and reasonable.
(c) Invitations and advertisements should not contain information that is false, misleading or deceptive; and they should not contain derogatory comments about products or services provided by others.
(d) It should be aware of and comply with the provisions of the Prevention of Bribery Ordinance (“PBO”) and any related guidelines issued by the Independent Commission Against Corruption.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.8
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Question 574 of 770
574. Question
1 pointsQID359:What are the provisions of the Prevention of Bribery Ordinance (PBO) that are applicable to Intermediaries?
I. Intermediaries that solicit or accept unfair advantages which might induce him not to act in the best interests of his client is made an offence by the PBO.
II. It is not an offense for an intermediary to solicit or accept any non-monetary benefits.
III. Anyone who offer an advantage to an agent is also a criminal offence under the PBO.
IV.It is not an offense for any person to provide a non-pecuniary benefit to an agent.Correct
A licensed or registered person “should act honestly, fairly and in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”. This principle is expanded in the Code of Conduct to the following:
(d) The licensee should be aware of and comply with the provisions of the Prevention of Bribery Ordinance (“PBO”) and any related guidelines issued by the ICAC. Section 9, PBO makes it an offence for an agent such as a licensed or registered person to solicit or accept unfair advantages which might induce him not to act in the best interests of his client. It also makes it an offence to offer an advantage to an agent.Incorrect
A licensed or registered person “should act honestly, fairly and in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”. This principle is expanded in the Code of Conduct to the following:
(d) The licensee should be aware of and comply with the provisions of the Prevention of Bribery Ordinance (“PBO”) and any related guidelines issued by the ICAC. Section 9, PBO makes it an offence for an agent such as a licensed or registered person to solicit or accept unfair advantages which might induce him not to act in the best interests of his client. It also makes it an offence to offer an advantage to an agent.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.8
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Question 575 of 770
575. Question
1 pointsQID2671:Miss Wong is an Asset Manager, Miss Wong would like to execute orders through another broker Ming Ming Electronic Trading through Direct Market Access. According to the Code of Conduct, which of the following is correct?
Correct
Both the order initiator (client or asset manager) and the broker are required to be familiar with the conduct requirements of electronic trading in Code of Conduct.
Incorrect
Both the order initiator (client or asset manager) and the broker are required to be familiar with the conduct requirements of electronic trading in Code of Conduct.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.81
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Question 576 of 770
576. Question
1 pointsQID2482:Which of the following is not a professional investor for sure?
Correct
An individual professional investor should have a portfolio of no less than 8 million HKD. A couple who holds a portfolio of 10 million mutually without agreement can be considered as an individual professional investor. For two brothers who own a portfolio of 10 million HKD mutually without written agreement, since either one holds at most 5 million HKD of portfolio on average, they are not professional investors.
Incorrect
An individual professional investor should have a portfolio of no less than 8 million HKD. A couple who holds a portfolio of 10 million mutually without agreement can be considered as an individual professional investor. For two brothers who own a portfolio of 10 million HKD mutually without written agreement, since either one holds at most 5 million HKD of portfolio on average, they are not professional investors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.82
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Question 577 of 770
577. Question
1 pointsQID407:The main difference between Professional Investors (PIs) defined in Schedule 1, SFO and Professional Investors (PIs) defined in PI Rules is?
Correct
While the SFO sets out a list of persons who are to be regarded as PIs, it also empowers the SFC to make rules that define additional persons as PIs, and the SFC has for this purpose made the Securities and Futures (Professional Investor) Rules (“PI Rules”).
This gives rise to three classes of PIs, with slightly different legal and regulatory conditions applying to each class:
(a) PIs that are defined in Schedule 1, SFO (Institutional Professional Investors (“Institutional PIs”));
(b) PIs defined in the PI Rules that are corporates, trusts or partnerships (Corporate Professional Investors (“Corporate PIs”)); and
(c) PIs defined in the PI Rules who are individuals (Individual Professional Investors (“Individual Pis”)).Incorrect
While the SFO sets out a list of persons who are to be regarded as PIs, it also empowers the SFC to make rules that define additional persons as PIs, and the SFC has for this purpose made the Securities and Futures (Professional Investor) Rules (“PI Rules”).
This gives rise to three classes of PIs, with slightly different legal and regulatory conditions applying to each class:
(a) PIs that are defined in Schedule 1, SFO (Institutional Professional Investors (“Institutional PIs”));
(b) PIs defined in the PI Rules that are corporates, trusts or partnerships (Corporate Professional Investors (“Corporate PIs”)); and
(c) PIs defined in the PI Rules who are individuals (Individual Professional Investors (“Individual Pis”)).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.83
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Question 578 of 770
578. Question
1 pointsQID409:Are there material difference between Professional Investors defined by the SFO (Type 1) and the Professional Investors defined by the Securities and Futures (Professional Investor) Rules (Type 2)?
Correct
While the SFO sets out a list of persons who are to be regarded as PIs, it also empowers the SFC to make rules that define additional persons as PIs, and the SFC has for this purpose made the Securities and Futures (Professional Investor) Rules (“PI Rules”). The SFO classifies PI s as professionals involved in dealing with securities, the Code classifies them by their nature.
Professional Investors (PIs) defined in Schedule 1, SFO are mainly (authorised) financial institutions, governments, central banks, multilateral agencies and insurance companies. PIs defined in the PI Rules are required to have their assets assessed.Incorrect
While the SFO sets out a list of persons who are to be regarded as PIs, it also empowers the SFC to make rules that define additional persons as PIs, and the SFC has for this purpose made the Securities and Futures (Professional Investor) Rules (“PI Rules”). The SFO classifies PI s as professionals involved in dealing with securities, the Code classifies them by their nature.
Professional Investors (PIs) defined in Schedule 1, SFO are mainly (authorised) financial institutions, governments, central banks, multilateral agencies and insurance companies. PIs defined in the PI Rules are required to have their assets assessed.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.83
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Question 579 of 770
579. Question
1 pointsQID405:The SFO recognized that professional investors
I. do not need the same degree of protection that the ordinary retail investor might need
II. need a higher degree of protection than the ordinary retail investors because of the amount invested.
III. Are a class of investor covers persons who have investment experience, skills and knowledge, or the financial resources to command the advice of such experience and knowledge
IV. Should have a higher priority over ordinary retail investors because of the amount invested.Correct
The SFO provides for the concept of a PI, being a person in respect of whom different legal and regulatory requirements will apply in view of his knowledge, experience and financial
resources.
The Code of Conduct operates by specifying for a set of requirements that apply to all customers and then specifying which of them may be exempted in respect of the different
classes of PI.Incorrect
The SFO provides for the concept of a PI, being a person in respect of whom different legal and regulatory requirements will apply in view of his knowledge, experience and financial
resources.
The Code of Conduct operates by specifying for a set of requirements that apply to all customers and then specifying which of them may be exempted in respect of the different
classes of PI.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.83
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Question 580 of 770
580. Question
1 pointsQID410:Which of the following are the differences between PIs that are defined in Schedule 1, SFO and PIs defined in the PI Rules?
I. PIs that are defined in Schedule 1, SFO must be a corporation and not a person. Professional Investors (PIs) defined in PI Rules can be a corporation or a person.
II. PIs that are defined in Schedule 1, SFO are classified by nature of business while Professional Investors (PIs) defined in PI Rules are classified by net worth.
III. PIs that are defined in Schedule 1, SFO must have a higher level of net worth than PIs defined in the PI Rules.
IV. Since Professional Investors (PIs) defined in PI Rules may be individuals or main businesses and not investments, the intermediary should assess and be reasonably satisfied that the client is knowledgeable and has sufficient expertise and relevant investment experience in relevant products and markets.Correct
Option I, II and IV are the main differences between the definition of a PI according to Schedule 1, SFO and the classification of PIs stated in the Code of Conduct for licensed individuals and corporations.
Incorrect
Option I, II and IV are the main differences between the definition of a PI according to Schedule 1, SFO and the classification of PIs stated in the Code of Conduct for licensed individuals and corporations.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.83
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Question 581 of 770
581. Question
1 pointsQID111:Which of the following should be taken into consideration in classifying whether an investor is a professional investor or not?
I. Asset
II. Investment Experience
III. Principal business
IV. Historical investment performanceCorrect
The SFO provides for the concept of a PI, being a person in respect of whom different legal and regulatory requirements will apply in view of his knowledge, experience and financial resources.
According to their principal business, investment knowledge and experience, and total assets, they are divided into Institutional PIs, Corporate PIs, and Individual PIs.
So options I, II, and III are correct.Incorrect
The SFO provides for the concept of a PI, being a person in respect of whom different legal and regulatory requirements will apply in view of his knowledge, experience and financial resources.
According to their principal business, investment knowledge and experience, and total assets, they are divided into Institutional PIs, Corporate PIs, and Individual PIs.
So options I, II, and III are correct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.83
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Question 582 of 770
582. Question
1 pointsQID110:Which of the following correctly describes the level of regulatory protection required by Professional Investors?
Correct
PIs are generally regarded as highly experienced in making investments and investment decisions. Under the SFC’s regulations, PIs are not automatically provided the same regulatory protection as retail investors.
Incorrect
PIs are generally regarded as highly experienced in making investments and investment decisions. Under the SFC’s regulations, PIs are not automatically provided the same regulatory protection as retail investors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.83
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Question 583 of 770
583. Question
1 pointsQID2850:Which of the following are categories of professional investors defined by the SFC’s Professional Investor Rules?
Correct
Only corporate professional investors and individual professional investors are categorization defined by the SFC’s Professional Investor Rules. Institutional Professional Investors are definition set out by the SFO.
Incorrect
Only corporate professional investors and individual professional investors are categorization defined by the SFC’s Professional Investor Rules. Institutional Professional Investors are definition set out by the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.84
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Question 584 of 770
584. Question
1 pointsQID2669:The asset manager of a CIS should be
Correct
The manager of a CIS must be a registered institution or licensed corporation, therefore it must be an instituional PI.
Incorrect
The manager of a CIS must be a registered institution or licensed corporation, therefore it must be an instituional PI.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.85
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Question 585 of 770
585. Question
1 pointsQID413:Which of the following entities should not be included in PIs defined in the PI Rules?
Correct
Sovereign funds are not included in any of the categories established for Institutional, Corporate or Individual PIs under the Professional Investors rules.
Incorrect
Sovereign funds are not included in any of the categories established for Institutional, Corporate or Individual PIs under the Professional Investors rules.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.85
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Question 586 of 770
586. Question
1 pointsQID2704:Which of the following is an institutional professional investor within the meaning of the Securities and Futures Ordinance?
I. An MPF Scheme
II. Insurance companies
III. World Bank and International Monetary Fund
IV. Trust CompaniesCorrect
A trust company can also be an institutional professional investor but only if it serves a registered scheme, including MPF schemes and occupational retirement schemes or other similar overseas counterparts. Since the question did not elaborate, we cannot regard it as an institutional professional investor.
The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund are multilateral institutions.
Incorrect
A trust company can also be an institutional professional investor but only if it serves a registered scheme, including MPF schemes and occupational retirement schemes or other similar overseas counterparts. Since the question did not elaborate, we cannot regard it as an institutional professional investor.
The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund are multilateral institutions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.85
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Question 587 of 770
587. Question
1 pointsQID2668:Licenced Corporation is a
Correct
Licenced Corporation is an Institutional PI.
Incorrect
Licenced Corporation is an Institutional PI.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.85
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Question 588 of 770
588. Question
1 pointsQID406:According to the Securities and Futures Ordinance, which of the following is defined as professional investors?
Correct
It doesn’t matter how many billions. An insurance company is always a professional investor. Insurers authorised and regulated under the Insurance Ordinance and their regulated overseas counterparts are considered Institutional PIs.
An individual PI is an individual who has a portfolio of not less than HK$8 million.
Corporate PIs include trustee companies responsible for total assets of not less than HK$40 million, and corporations or partnerships having either a portfolio of not less than HK$8 million or total assets of not less than HK$40 million。Incorrect
It doesn’t matter how many billions. An insurance company is always a professional investor. Insurers authorised and regulated under the Insurance Ordinance and their regulated overseas counterparts are considered Institutional PIs.
An individual PI is an individual who has a portfolio of not less than HK$8 million.
Corporate PIs include trustee companies responsible for total assets of not less than HK$40 million, and corporations or partnerships having either a portfolio of not less than HK$8 million or total assets of not less than HK$40 million。Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.85
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Question 589 of 770
589. Question
1 pointsQID1349:Which of the following is NOT a professional investor?
Correct
Institutional PIs include:
(b) licensed corporations or registered institutions and similar investment service providers regulated overseas; also their wholly owned subsidiaries, holding companies (100% holding) and wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding companies;
(d) insurers authorised and regulated under the Insurance Companies Ordinance and their regulated overseas counterparts;
(g) governments, central banks and multilateral agencies.Incorrect
Institutional PIs include:
(b) licensed corporations or registered institutions and similar investment service providers regulated overseas; also their wholly owned subsidiaries, holding companies (100% holding) and wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding companies;
(d) insurers authorised and regulated under the Insurance Companies Ordinance and their regulated overseas counterparts;
(g) governments, central banks and multilateral agencies.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.85
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Question 590 of 770
590. Question
1 pointsQID735:Which of the following entities are professional investors?
I. Insurance Companies
II. Trustee of CIS
III. Fund Manager of CIS
IV. Professional Bodies and Charity (Example: HKSI)Correct
Pension funds, unit trusts and mutual funds, insurance companies, AFIs, private banks, fund managers and similar corporations and individuals are considered professional investors.
Incorrect
Pension funds, unit trusts and mutual funds, insurance companies, AFIs, private banks, fund managers and similar corporations and individuals are considered professional investors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.85
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Question 591 of 770
591. Question
1 pointsQID411:Which of the following company may not be a professional investor?
Correct
To be considered Institutional PIs the subsidiary should be wholly owned by the AFI.
Incorrect
To be considered Institutional PIs the subsidiary should be wholly owned by the AFI.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.85
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Question 592 of 770
592. Question
1 pointsQID412:Which of the following entities should be not be included in PIs that are defined in Schedule 1, SFO?
Correct
A trustee company that holds more than HK$40 million should be considered a Corporate PI.
Incorrect
A trustee company that holds more than HK$40 million should be considered a Corporate PI.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.86
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Question 593 of 770
593. Question
1 pointsQID891:Professional Investors can be classified as?
I. Individual PI
II. High Net Worth PI
III. Corporate PI
IV. Institutional PICorrect
Professional Investors can be classified as
I. Individual PI
II. Corporate PI
III. Institutional PI
Individual PI and Corporate PI are subjected to additional net worth and investment experience assessment to be treated as PI. Institutional PI s are entities which have investment as their primary business, they are not required to conduct any assessment before being treated as PI.Incorrect
Professional Investors can be classified as
I. Individual PI
II. Corporate PI
III. Institutional PI
Individual PI and Corporate PI are subjected to additional net worth and investment experience assessment to be treated as PI. Institutional PI s are entities which have investment as their primary business, they are not required to conduct any assessment before being treated as PI.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.86
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Question 594 of 770
594. Question
1 pointsQID1350:Which of the following entities is a professional investor?
I. Miss Chan, owning a portfolio of HKD 12 Million asset.
II. Yellow River Company, a trust company with HKD 20 Million Asset.
III. Chang Jiang Company, an investment company with HKD 50 Million Asset.
IV. New Prosper Company, a licensed corporation and in the business of asset management.Correct
Individual PIs are those who have a portfolio of not less than HK$8 million (or its equivalent).
Corporate PIs include:
(b) corporations or partnerships having either a portfolio of not less than HK$8 million or total assets of not less than HK$40 million (or their equivalents)
Institutional PIs include:
(b) licensed corporations or registered institutions and similar investment service providers regulated overseas; also their wholly owned subsidiaries, holding companies (100% holding) and wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding companiesIncorrect
Individual PIs are those who have a portfolio of not less than HK$8 million (or its equivalent).
Corporate PIs include:
(b) corporations or partnerships having either a portfolio of not less than HK$8 million or total assets of not less than HK$40 million (or their equivalents)
Institutional PIs include:
(b) licensed corporations or registered institutions and similar investment service providers regulated overseas; also their wholly owned subsidiaries, holding companies (100% holding) and wholly owned subsidiaries of the holding companiesHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.86
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Question 595 of 770
595. Question
1 pointsQID2872:Which of the following can apply to be Professional Investors?
I. A person owning 8.1 million HKD
II. A 60 year old wife and a 25 year old husband have a joint name account with 12 million HKD (with no agreement)
III. A 95 year old man and his 18 year old illegitimate son have a joint name account with 12 million HKD (with no agreement)
IV. A 70 year old man and his 21 year old sister have a joint name account with 50 million HKD (with no agreement)Correct
When
1. A Person
2. Person and his/her spouse
3. Person and his/her parents/children
Have more than 8 million HKD of investable asset under a joint name account (with no agreement) can be treated as a PI if they satisfy other requirements.Sibilings are not the above, and they do not have an agreement who the asset belongs to, therefore their assets in the joint name account must be divided by the number of account holders. In this example, the 50 million they have must be divided by 2 account holders, therefore, they are considered to have 25 million each, making them eligible to become PI if they can satisfy other conditions.
Incorrect
When
1. A Person
2. Person and his/her spouse
3. Person and his/her parents/children
Have more than 8 million HKD of investable asset under a joint name account (with no agreement) can be treated as a PI if they satisfy other requirements.Sibilings are not the above, and they do not have an agreement who the asset belongs to, therefore their assets in the joint name account must be divided by the number of account holders. In this example, the 50 million they have must be divided by 2 account holders, therefore, they are considered to have 25 million each, making them eligible to become PI if they can satisfy other conditions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.87
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Question 596 of 770
596. Question
1 pointsQID2907:Which of the following are less likely to be Professional Investors?
I. A person owning 8.1 million HKD
II. A 60 year old wife and a 25 year old husband have a joint name account with 12 million HKD (with no agreement)
III. A 95 year old man and his 18 year old illegitimate son have a joint name account with 12 million HKD (with no agreement)
IV. A 70 year old man and his 21 year old sister have a joint name account with 12 million HKD (with no agreement)Correct
When
1. A Person
2. Person and his/her spouse
3. Person and his/her parents/children
Have more than 8 million HKD of investable asset under a joint name account (with no agreement) can be treated as a PI if they satisfy other requirements.Incorrect
When
1. A Person
2. Person and his/her spouse
3. Person and his/her parents/children
Have more than 8 million HKD of investable asset under a joint name account (with no agreement) can be treated as a PI if they satisfy other requirements.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.87
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Question 597 of 770
597. Question
1 pointsQID2727:According to the Code of Conduct, intermediaries are not required to disclose or provide which of the following information to clients in the process of dealing with clients?
Correct
Information about the licensed or registered person includes:
(a) adequate and relevant information about its business, including contact details, services provided, and the identity and status of employees and others acting on its behalf with whom the client will have contact;
(b) clear information about which company the individual contact is acting for where a financial services group is concerned; and
(c) audited financial statements and information on corporate actions, which should be provided to the client upon request.
Intermediaries are not required to provide clients with information about the intermediary’s directors.Incorrect
Information about the licensed or registered person includes:
(a) adequate and relevant information about its business, including contact details, services provided, and the identity and status of employees and others acting on its behalf with whom the client will have contact;
(b) clear information about which company the individual contact is acting for where a financial services group is concerned; and
(c) audited financial statements and information on corporate actions, which should be provided to the client upon request.
Intermediaries are not required to provide clients with information about the intermediary’s directors.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.89
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Question 598 of 770
598. Question
1 pointsQID414:Information requirements about clients for assessment and compliance arrangements usually undertaken concerning the client onboarding process may be waived for Type 1 and Type 2 PIs. Which of the following information about clients do intermediaries not need to know?
I. Clients’ identity
II. Clients’ financial situation
III. Investment objectives
IV. Investment experienceCorrect
The Code of Conduct operates by specifying for a set of requirements that apply to all customers and then specifying which of them may be exempted in respect of the different
classes of PI. Subject to assessment and compliance arrangements usually undertaken in connection with the client on-boarding process, the requirements that may be waived are:
(b) information about clients:
(i) the need to establish the client’s financial situation, investment experience and investment objectives (except in relation to providing advice on corporate finance).Incorrect
The Code of Conduct operates by specifying for a set of requirements that apply to all customers and then specifying which of them may be exempted in respect of the different
classes of PI. Subject to assessment and compliance arrangements usually undertaken in connection with the client on-boarding process, the requirements that may be waived are:
(b) information about clients:
(i) the need to establish the client’s financial situation, investment experience and investment objectives (except in relation to providing advice on corporate finance).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.89
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Question 599 of 770
599. Question
1 pointsQID375:According to the Code of Conduct, is a licensed or registered person required to enter into a written agreement with the client before providing services to the client?
Correct
A written client agreement should be entered into with a client before a licensed or registered person provides services to the client. In the case of PIs written agreements are not necessary because the person is qualified to understand the risks involved on the transactions he will undertake.
Incorrect
A written client agreement should be entered into with a client before a licensed or registered person provides services to the client. In the case of PIs written agreements are not necessary because the person is qualified to understand the risks involved on the transactions he will undertake.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.89
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Question 600 of 770
600. Question
1 pointsQID1334:The statement “A licensed or registered person should take reasonable steps to execute client orders promptly and in accordance with clients’ instructions. Client orders should not be held up or withdrawn for the convenience of the licensed or registered person or persons other than the client placing the order” describes which principle of the Code of Conduct guidelines?
Correct
Some of the specified practical situations of diligence are:
(a) “prompt execution” – a licensed or registered person should take reasonable steps to execute client orders promptly and in accordance with clients’ instructions. Client orders should not be held up or withdrawn for the convenience of the licensed or registered person or persons other than the client placing the orderIncorrect
Some of the specified practical situations of diligence are:
(a) “prompt execution” – a licensed or registered person should take reasonable steps to execute client orders promptly and in accordance with clients’ instructions. Client orders should not be held up or withdrawn for the convenience of the licensed or registered person or persons other than the client placing the orderHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.9
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Question 601 of 770
601. Question
1 pointsQID388:The Code of Conduct requires a licensed or registered person to handle trading instructions according to what principle?
Correct
The Code of Conduct requires a licensed or registered person to handle client orders fairly and in the order in which they are received. They should have priority over orders for the account of the licensed or registered person, or for the account of any employee or agent of the licensed or registered person.
Incorrect
The Code of Conduct requires a licensed or registered person to handle client orders fairly and in the order in which they are received. They should have priority over orders for the account of the licensed or registered person, or for the account of any employee or agent of the licensed or registered person.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.9
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Question 602 of 770
602. Question
1 pointsQID351:Ms. Yu is a medical doctor and a professional investor. She calls her futures broker and issues a short selling order, short selling Hang Seng Index futures. Mr. Ko, after in-depth analysis, feels that the index is rather volatile and driven by favourable news, and he estimates that the Hang Seng Futures Index will rise, leading to a loss and even the loss of Ms. Yu’s deposit. How should Mr. Ko handle Ms. Yu’s order?
Correct
“clients should be advised with due skill, care and diligence – advice and recommendations should be based on thorough analysis and take into account available alternatives”. This means that in this case the licensee should disclose all these risks and facts to the client to ensure he’s making an informed decision.
Incorrect
“clients should be advised with due skill, care and diligence – advice and recommendations should be based on thorough analysis and take into account available alternatives”. This means that in this case the licensee should disclose all these risks and facts to the client to ensure he’s making an informed decision.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.9
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Question 603 of 770
603. Question
1 pointsQID364:“The application of best execution, prompt execution and fair allocation” is a description of which general principles of the code of conduct?
Correct
General Principle 2 – diligence
A licensed or registered person “should act with due skill, care and diligence, in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”. Some of the specific practical situations are:
(a) “prompt execution” – a licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to execute client orders promptly and in accordance with clients’ instructions. Client orders should not be held up or withdrawn for the convenience of the licensed or registered
person or persons other than the client placing the order;
(b) “best execution” – a licensed or registered person should execute client orders on the best available terms;
(c) “prompt and fair allocation” – orders executed for clients should be promptly and fairly allocated to those clients; and
(d) advice to clients with due skill, care and diligence – advice and recommendations should be based on thorough analysis and take into account available alternatives.Incorrect
General Principle 2 – diligence
A licensed or registered person “should act with due skill, care and diligence, in the best interests of its clients and the integrity of the market”. Some of the specific practical situations are:
(a) “prompt execution” – a licensed or registered person should take all reasonable steps to execute client orders promptly and in accordance with clients’ instructions. Client orders should not be held up or withdrawn for the convenience of the licensed or registered
person or persons other than the client placing the order;
(b) “best execution” – a licensed or registered person should execute client orders on the best available terms;
(c) “prompt and fair allocation” – orders executed for clients should be promptly and fairly allocated to those clients; and
(d) advice to clients with due skill, care and diligence – advice and recommendations should be based on thorough analysis and take into account available alternatives.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.9
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Question 604 of 770
604. Question
1 pointsQID820:According to the Code of Conduct, the definition of “best execution” is to?
Correct
“best execution” – a licensed or registered person should execute client orders on the best available terms.
Incorrect
“best execution” – a licensed or registered person should execute client orders on the best available terms.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.9
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Question 605 of 770
605. Question
1 pointsQID821:When should the intermediary time-stamp records of orders?
Correct
Order handling procedures should cover:
(a) the recording and immediate time stamping of records of orders for clients and other orders (such as house or staff orders).Incorrect
Order handling procedures should cover:
(a) the recording and immediate time stamping of records of orders for clients and other orders (such as house or staff orders).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.9
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Question 606 of 770
606. Question
1 pointsQID363:“Prompt Execution”, “Best Execution”, “Prompt and Fair Allocation “are practical situation of which of the following principle?
Correct
These are practical situations stated in General Principle 2, diligence (paragraph 3).
Incorrect
These are practical situations stated in General Principle 2, diligence (paragraph 3).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.9
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Question 607 of 770
607. Question
1 pointsQID2381:Ms. Huang is a client of Kaohsiung Securities. She is very dissatisfied with the speed at which Kaohsiung Securities execute orders. Therefore, she proactively offers a commission higher than the current standard to Kaohsiung Securities to request priority in processing her orders. Can Kaohsiung Securities accept this offer?
Correct
No, the Code of Conduct states that orders executed for clients should be promptly and fairly
allocated to those clients.
Accepting additional commissions and giving priority to Ms. Huang’s orders is unfair to other customers and may cause their losses.Incorrect
No, the Code of Conduct states that orders executed for clients should be promptly and fairly
allocated to those clients.
Accepting additional commissions and giving priority to Ms. Huang’s orders is unfair to other customers and may cause their losses.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.9
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Question 608 of 770
608. Question
1 pointsQID887:Are High net worth individuals (HNWI) identical to Professional Investors (PI)?
Correct
Certain HNWIs are Professional Investors (PI) subject to specific conditions. Both natural persons and legal persons can be a Professional Investors (PI).
Incorrect
Certain HNWIs are Professional Investors (PI) subject to specific conditions. Both natural persons and legal persons can be a Professional Investors (PI).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.91
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Question 609 of 770
609. Question
1 pointsQID2481:Recently, because Mr. Huang was in the last stage of a cancer, he married Mr. Tsai. Mr. Huang works at Kaohsiung Securities as a professional investor. He recently opened a futures account for Mr. Tsai. Should Kaohsiung Securities ask Mr. Tasi to sign a risk disclosure statement?
Correct
Signing a risk disclosure statement is needed except for a professional investor client.
Incorrect
Signing a risk disclosure statement is needed except for a professional investor client.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.93
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Question 610 of 770
610. Question
1 pointsQID408:Mrs. Ko is a seasoned investor and has held a joint account with her spouse Mr. Ko at Hanoi Securities for bond speculation purposes. Mrs. Ko has ample investment experience (being classified as professional investor) and Mr. Ko is not knowledgeable in the field. On a Monday morning, broker Mr. Ip called Mr. Ko and suggested Mr. Ko to invest in some low risk bond investments that are only available to professional investors. Did Mr. Ip had any wrong doing?
Correct
To apply exemptions to a Corporate or Individual PI, the licensed or registered person must
inform the client of the consequences of being treated as a PI, that treatment as a PI is in
relation only to a particular product and market, explain its right to withdraw as a PI at any
time, and obtain the client’s written consent. The confirmation of PI status and a written
reminder to the client of the risks and consequences of being treated as a PI should be
undertaken annually.
Where the foregoing has been complied with, the licensed or registered person is exempted
from complying with the information for clients requirements.
For Individual Pis, information about clients is not exempt, including:
(i) the need to establish the client’s financial situation, investment experience and
investment objectives (except in relation to providing advice on corporate finance);
(ii) the need to ensure the suitability of a recommendation or positive invitation; and
(iii) the need to assess the client’s knowledge of derivatives.Incorrect
To apply exemptions to a Corporate or Individual PI, the licensed or registered person must
inform the client of the consequences of being treated as a PI, that treatment as a PI is in
relation only to a particular product and market, explain its right to withdraw as a PI at any
time, and obtain the client’s written consent. The confirmation of PI status and a written
reminder to the client of the risks and consequences of being treated as a PI should be
undertaken annually.
Where the foregoing has been complied with, the licensed or registered person is exempted
from complying with the information for clients requirements.
For Individual Pis, information about clients is not exempt, including:
(i) the need to establish the client’s financial situation, investment experience and
investment objectives (except in relation to providing advice on corporate finance);
(ii) the need to ensure the suitability of a recommendation or positive invitation; and
(iii) the need to assess the client’s knowledge of derivatives.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.93
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Question 611 of 770
611. Question
1 pointsQID2607:Vitasoy is a beverage producer, and a client of Kaohsiung securities as well. Kaohsiung securities considered Vitasoy as a Corporate Professional Investor several years ago when opening the account. In recent years, Vitasoy doesn’t participate in tradings of derivatives. Lately, Vitasoy wants to trade derivatives only available to professional investors. Should Kaohsiung securities re-assess for Vitasoy?
Correct
Only institutional professional investors don’t require any assessment. since Vitasoy has been two years without trading derivatives, assessment is needed to examine Vitasoy’s knowledge about derivatives in order to trade them.
Incorrect
Only institutional professional investors don’t require any assessment. since Vitasoy has been two years without trading derivatives, assessment is needed to examine Vitasoy’s knowledge about derivatives in order to trade them.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.95
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Question 612 of 770
612. Question
1 pointsQID2480:If the client didn’t open their account in person, attention should be given to whether the client understands:
Correct
If the client didn’t open their account in person, attention should be given to whether the client understands the risk disclosure statement.
Incorrect
If the client didn’t open their account in person, attention should be given to whether the client understands the risk disclosure statement.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.97
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Question 613 of 770
613. Question
1 pointsQID1678:How should an intermediary satisfy the provisions of Risk Disclosure statements in the Code of Conduct?
Correct
A client agreement should contain risk disclosure statements, and declarations by a member of the staff of the licensed or registered person that he has provided the client with the appropriate risk disclosure statements in a language of the client’s choice (English or Chinese) and invited the client to read the risk disclosure statements, ask questions and take independent advice if he so wishes. The client is required to sign and date his acknowledgment of these matters.
Therefore, intermediaries must issue risk disclosure statements to the client and acquire signed acknowledgment.Incorrect
A client agreement should contain risk disclosure statements, and declarations by a member of the staff of the licensed or registered person that he has provided the client with the appropriate risk disclosure statements in a language of the client’s choice (English or Chinese) and invited the client to read the risk disclosure statements, ask questions and take independent advice if he so wishes. The client is required to sign and date his acknowledgment of these matters.
Therefore, intermediaries must issue risk disclosure statements to the client and acquire signed acknowledgment.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.97
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Question 614 of 770
614. Question
1 pointsQID381:Which of the following is the reason for the need to issue risk disclosure statements?
Correct
A client agreement should contain risk disclosure statements, and declarations by a member of the staff of the licensed or registered persons that he has provided the client with the appropriate risk disclosure statements in a language of the client’s choice (English or Chinese) and invited the client to read the risk disclosure statements, ask questions and take independent advice if the client wishes. The client is required to sign and date his acknowledgement of these matters.
Incorrect
A client agreement should contain risk disclosure statements, and declarations by a member of the staff of the licensed or registered persons that he has provided the client with the appropriate risk disclosure statements in a language of the client’s choice (English or Chinese) and invited the client to read the risk disclosure statements, ask questions and take independent advice if the client wishes. The client is required to sign and date his acknowledgement of these matters.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.97
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Question 615 of 770
615. Question
1 pointsQID380:With regard to the risk disclosure statements, an intermediary should satisfy which of the following requirements?
Correct
A client agreement should contain risk disclosure statements, and declarations by a member of the staff of the licensed or registered persons that he has provided the client with the appropriate risk disclosure statements in a language of the client’s choice (English or Chinese) and invited the client to read the risk disclosure statements, ask questions and take independent advice if the client wishes. The client is required to sign and date his acknowledgement of these matters.
Incorrect
A client agreement should contain risk disclosure statements, and declarations by a member of the staff of the licensed or registered persons that he has provided the client with the appropriate risk disclosure statements in a language of the client’s choice (English or Chinese) and invited the client to read the risk disclosure statements, ask questions and take independent advice if the client wishes. The client is required to sign and date his acknowledgement of these matters.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.97
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Question 616 of 770
616. Question
1 pointsQID384:The client agreement should contain a risk disclosure statement and the purpose of the disclosure statement is to ensure that:
Correct
A client agreement should contain risk disclosure statements, and declarations by a member of the staff of the licensed or registered persons that he has provided the client with the appropriate risk disclosure statements in a language of the client’s choice (English or Chinese) and invited the client to read the risk disclosure statements, ask questions and take independent advice if the client wishes. The purpose of this is to ensure the client understands the risk being undertaken when trading on a stock exchange.
Incorrect
A client agreement should contain risk disclosure statements, and declarations by a member of the staff of the licensed or registered persons that he has provided the client with the appropriate risk disclosure statements in a language of the client’s choice (English or Chinese) and invited the client to read the risk disclosure statements, ask questions and take independent advice if the client wishes. The purpose of this is to ensure the client understands the risk being undertaken when trading on a stock exchange.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.97
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Question 617 of 770
617. Question
1 pointsQID1342:Which of the following should be included in the risk disclosure statements?
I. Risk of securities trading.
II. Risk of trading GEM stocks.
III. Risk of margin trading.
IV. Risk of trading Nasdaq stocks on the SEHK.Correct
The risk disclosure statements deal with the particular risks of carrying out the respective activities, the need for obtaining professional advice and the degree of protection given by limits the client may put on trades:
(a) Risk of securities trading
(c.) Risk of trading Growth Enterprise Market (“GEM”) stocks
(g) Risk of margin tradingIncorrect
The risk disclosure statements deal with the particular risks of carrying out the respective activities, the need for obtaining professional advice and the degree of protection given by limits the client may put on trades:
(a) Risk of securities trading
(c.) Risk of trading Growth Enterprise Market (“GEM”) stocks
(g) Risk of margin tradingHint
Reference Chapter:1.5.98
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Question 618 of 770
618. Question
1 pointsQID1015:Risk disclosure statements about futures and options trading should include:
I. The risk of loss in trading futures contracts or options is substantial, losses might be in excess of the initial margin funds.
II. Stop loss order may not necessarily avoid loss.
III. If the required funds are not provided within the prescribed time, your position may be liquidated.
IV. Futures and options are only suitable for professional investors.Correct
Risk disclosure statement about futures and options trading should include:
I. The risk of loss in trading futures contracts or options is substantial, losses might be in excess of the initial margin funds.
II. Stop loss order may not necessarily avoid loss.
III. If the required funds are not provided within the prescribed time, your position may be liquidated.Incorrect
Risk disclosure statement about futures and options trading should include:
I. The risk of loss in trading futures contracts or options is substantial, losses might be in excess of the initial margin funds.
II. Stop loss order may not necessarily avoid loss.
III. If the required funds are not provided within the prescribed time, your position may be liquidated.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.98
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Question 619 of 770
619. Question
1 pointsQID826:The material difference between the Main Board and GEM is?
Correct
“GEM, or the Growth Enterprise Market, is positioned as a ‘buyer beware’ market specifically designed to accommodate companies that may carry higher investment risks. This designation stems from the nature of companies listed on GEM, which are typically in earlier stages of development and, as such, might not yet have stable financial histories or proven business models. Consequently, securities traded on GEM are often more susceptible to market volatility compared to those on the Main Board, which features more established companies with proven track records. The heightened risk profile of GEM securities makes this market particularly suitable for professional and sophisticated investors who understand the risks involved and are prepared to accept potentially greater fluctuations in their investments
Incorrect
“GEM, or the Growth Enterprise Market, is positioned as a ‘buyer beware’ market specifically designed to accommodate companies that may carry higher investment risks. This designation stems from the nature of companies listed on GEM, which are typically in earlier stages of development and, as such, might not yet have stable financial histories or proven business models. Consequently, securities traded on GEM are often more susceptible to market volatility compared to those on the Main Board, which features more established companies with proven track records. The heightened risk profile of GEM securities makes this market particularly suitable for professional and sophisticated investors who understand the risks involved and are prepared to accept potentially greater fluctuations in their investments
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.98
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Question 620 of 770
620. Question
1 pointsQID865:Kaohsiung Futures is a licenced corporation and primarily deals with overseas futures contracts. Kaohsiung Futures has an associated entity that is a trustee in Japan. Clients must deposit his/her securities collateral with the trustee before dealing in futures contracts. Should Kaohsiung Futures notify the client of such arrangements?
Correct
This is called a Risk of attaching to client assets received or held outside Hong Kong. This refers to the possible differences between overseas laws and those of Hong Kong, where assets received or held overseas may not have protection under Hong Kong law. This information must be disclosed to the clients and the risk must be explained.
Incorrect
This is called a Risk of attaching to client assets received or held outside Hong Kong. This refers to the possible differences between overseas laws and those of Hong Kong, where assets received or held overseas may not have protection under Hong Kong law. This information must be disclosed to the clients and the risk must be explained.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.98
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Question 621 of 770
621. Question
1 pointsQID2845:The specific risks in a Risk Disclosure Statement do not include?
Correct
The risks specified in the Risk Disclosure Statement do not include the risks of trading in OTC derivatives.
Incorrect
The risks specified in the Risk Disclosure Statement do not include the risks of trading in OTC derivatives.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.98
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Question 622 of 770
622. Question
1 pointsQID1343:“This refers to extra exposure due to trading in small amounts (on margin) where the underlying risk may be for large amounts; the risk that a client may lose his initial margin very quickly and will have to meet extra margin calls at short notice, failing which the position may be liquidated at a loss, leaving the client liable for the deficit. The placement of ‘stop-loss’ orders may not be effective in limiting a loss due to market conditions. The statement asks the client to consider the suitability of investing in these instruments” describes which risk?
Correct
(b) Risk of trading futures and options (in addition to a short statement, a more detailed model statement is provided for use at the option of the licensed or registered person; refer to the Code of Conduct for details).
This refers to extra exposure due to trading in small amounts (on margin) where the underlying risk may be for large amounts; the risk that a client may lose his initial margin very quickly and will have to meet extra margin calls at short notice, failing which the position may be liquidated at a loss, leaving the client liable for the deficit. The placement of “stop-loss” orders may not be effective in limiting a loss due to market conditions. The statement asks the client to consider the suitability of investing in these instruments.Incorrect
(b) Risk of trading futures and options (in addition to a short statement, a more detailed model statement is provided for use at the option of the licensed or registered person; refer to the Code of Conduct for details).
This refers to extra exposure due to trading in small amounts (on margin) where the underlying risk may be for large amounts; the risk that a client may lose his initial margin very quickly and will have to meet extra margin calls at short notice, failing which the position may be liquidated at a loss, leaving the client liable for the deficit. The placement of “stop-loss” orders may not be effective in limiting a loss due to market conditions. The statement asks the client to consider the suitability of investing in these instruments.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.5.98
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Question 623 of 770
623. Question
1 pointsQID478:According to the Internal Control Guidelines,
I. An intermediary should establish a risk management function consisting of suitably qualified and experienced professionals.
II. An intermediary should establish procedures to limit the exposure of the intermediary to risk of suffering loss, as a result of client default or changing market conditions, to acceptable levels.
III. An intermediary should establish comprehensive risk-focused review at suitable intervals, and wherever there are significant changes in the business operations or staff.
IV. An intermediary should establish a system of regular reporting of exposures and significant variances to senior management.Correct
The control guidelines for risk management, according to the ICG, provide for the establishment of:
(a) a risk management function consisting of suitably qualified and experienced professionals;
(b) procedures to limit the exposure of the intermediary to risk of suffering loss, as a result of client default or changing market conditions, to acceptable levels;
© comprehensive risk-focused reviews at suitable intervals, and whenever there are significant changes in the business, operations or staff, to limit the exposure of the intermediary to loss as a result of fraud, other dishonest acts, errors, omissions, interruptions or other operational or control failures;
(d) regular reporting of exposures and significant variances to senior management.Incorrect
The control guidelines for risk management, according to the ICG, provide for the establishment of:
(a) a risk management function consisting of suitably qualified and experienced professionals;
(b) procedures to limit the exposure of the intermediary to risk of suffering loss, as a result of client default or changing market conditions, to acceptable levels;
© comprehensive risk-focused reviews at suitable intervals, and whenever there are significant changes in the business, operations or staff, to limit the exposure of the intermediary to loss as a result of fraud, other dishonest acts, errors, omissions, interruptions or other operational or control failures;
(d) regular reporting of exposures and significant variances to senior management.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.
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Question 624 of 770
624. Question
1 pointsQID1507:Some of the essential features of good regulatory practices in the asset management industry include which of the following?
I. A strong culture of providing proper disclosure of information to clients and staff.
II. Promotion of a high level of self-monitoring and ethical practices.
III. Identification of objectives for clients which will enhance their returns and those of the business in the short term.
IV. Promotion of close cooperation and exchanges of information and consultation with the regulators with the objective of enhancing the effectiveness of regulation and the efficiency of
the business operations.Correct
– to ensure that whenever the intermediary or its staff have a material interest in a transaction with a client, the fact is disclosed to the client prior to executing the transaction
– its assumption of full responsibility for the operations including the development, implementation and ongoing effectiveness of the internal controls, and adherence to them
– Effective record retention policies are operated to ensure that all relevant legal and regulatory requirements are complied with, and that information likely to be required by the intermediary, auditors, the SFC and other authorised parties is held in the records.Incorrect
– to ensure that whenever the intermediary or its staff have a material interest in a transaction with a client, the fact is disclosed to the client prior to executing the transaction
– its assumption of full responsibility for the operations including the development, implementation and ongoing effectiveness of the internal controls, and adherence to them
– Effective record retention policies are operated to ensure that all relevant legal and regulatory requirements are complied with, and that information likely to be required by the intermediary, auditors, the SFC and other authorised parties is held in the records.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.
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Question 625 of 770
625. Question
1 pointsQID1351:Normally, the Internal Control Guideless is concerned with the establishment of satisfactory internal control and management systems (together referred to as “internal controls” hereafter) so as to provide reasonable assurance of:
I. its ability to carry on the business in an orderly and efficient manner.
II. the safeguarding of the assets of its clients and its own.
III. the maintenance of proper records and the reliability of financial and other information used within and published by the business.
IV . the compliance with all applicable laws and regulatory requirements.Correct
In particular, the ICG is concerned with the establishment of satisfactory internal control and management systems (together referred to as “internal controls” hereafter) so as to provide reasonable assurance of:
(a) its ability to carry on the business in an orderly and efficient manner;
(b) safeguarding the assets of its clients and its own;
(c.) the maintenance of proper records and the reliability of financial and other information used within and published by the business; and
(d) compliance with all applicable laws and regulatory requirements.Incorrect
In particular, the ICG is concerned with the establishment of satisfactory internal control and management systems (together referred to as “internal controls” hereafter) so as to provide reasonable assurance of:
(a) its ability to carry on the business in an orderly and efficient manner;
(b) safeguarding the assets of its clients and its own;
(c.) the maintenance of proper records and the reliability of financial and other information used within and published by the business; and
(d) compliance with all applicable laws and regulatory requirements.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.1
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Question 626 of 770
626. Question
1 pointsQID768:What is the requirement of the Internal Control Guidelines towards small businesses?
Correct
The SFC has indicated that, in applying the ICG or other related guidelines, it will use a pragmatic approach, which means it will look at the reality and the substance of a situation and not apply the ICG in a rigid or bureaucratic way. The usual illustration of this approach is of a small business. In such a case, the SFC will not expect to see a complicated system of segregation of functions, and compliance and internal audit departments with many people employed in them. It will be satisfied if other controls are in place to compensate for the reduced size and staff.
Incorrect
The SFC has indicated that, in applying the ICG or other related guidelines, it will use a pragmatic approach, which means it will look at the reality and the substance of a situation and not apply the ICG in a rigid or bureaucratic way. The usual illustration of this approach is of a small business. In such a case, the SFC will not expect to see a complicated system of segregation of functions, and compliance and internal audit departments with many people employed in them. It will be satisfied if other controls are in place to compensate for the reduced size and staff.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.1
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Question 627 of 770
627. Question
1 pointsQID459:Which of the following are the main objectives for intermediaries in adopting internal controls?
I. To reasonably guarantee orderly and efficient operations
II. To ensure that clients’ assets are protected
III To save complete and reliable records
IV. To comply with all applicable laws and regulationsCorrect
The four options state the four primary objectives targeted by an internal control system as defined by the ICG.
Incorrect
The four options state the four primary objectives targeted by an internal control system as defined by the ICG.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.1
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Question 628 of 770
628. Question
1 pointsQID769:Which of the following is not an objective of implementing Internal Control Guidelines by the intermediary?
Correct
Internal controls refer to the entire system of policies, procedures, checks, controls and division of responsibilities which a licensed or registered person has installed to run the business. Internal controls are used by a licensed or registered person to provide itself with reasonable assurance that it is able to:
(a) operate its business in an orderly and efficient manner;
(b) safeguard the assets of its clients and its own;
(c.) maintain proper records, and reliable financial and other information that it produces; and
(d) comply with all applicable laws and regulatory requirements. Answer C is not included on this list.Incorrect
Internal controls refer to the entire system of policies, procedures, checks, controls and division of responsibilities which a licensed or registered person has installed to run the business. Internal controls are used by a licensed or registered person to provide itself with reasonable assurance that it is able to:
(a) operate its business in an orderly and efficient manner;
(b) safeguard the assets of its clients and its own;
(c.) maintain proper records, and reliable financial and other information that it produces; and
(d) comply with all applicable laws and regulatory requirements. Answer C is not included on this list.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.1
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Question 629 of 770
629. Question
1 pointsQID1676:The primary reference document that governs an intermediary internal control and governance is
Correct
The ICG, issued by the SFC pursuant to s. 399, SFO, sets out the SFC’s expectations concerning a licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness in relation to the manner in which it structures, manages and operates the RAs for which it is licensed or registered. Therefore, the ICG is concerned with establishing satisfactory internal control and management systems (together referred to as “internal controls” hereafter) and is the primary reference document for the internal operations and monitoring of intermediaries.
Incorrect
The ICG, issued by the SFC pursuant to s. 399, SFO, sets out the SFC’s expectations concerning a licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness in relation to the manner in which it structures, manages and operates the RAs for which it is licensed or registered. Therefore, the ICG is concerned with establishing satisfactory internal control and management systems (together referred to as “internal controls” hereafter) and is the primary reference document for the internal operations and monitoring of intermediaries.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.1
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Question 630 of 770
630. Question
1 pointsQID1016:Internal Control Guidelines are applicable to
Correct
Internal Control Guidelines are applicable to Licensed Corporations and Registered Institutions.
Incorrect
Internal Control Guidelines are applicable to Licensed Corporations and Registered Institutions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.1
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Question 631 of 770
631. Question
1 pointsQID920:Which of the following descriptions about the Code of Conduct and Internal Control Guidelines is incorrect?
Correct
The Code of Conduct applies to all licensed and registered persons. It concentrates on the
external relationships of licensed or registered persons, particularly with clients.
Internal Control Guidelines- Internal Operations.
Please note, some provisions of the ICG focus on the external relationship of the intermediaries. Yet some provisions of the COC focus on internal operations of the intermediaries.Incorrect
The Code of Conduct applies to all licensed and registered persons. It concentrates on the
external relationships of licensed or registered persons, particularly with clients.
Internal Control Guidelines- Internal Operations.
Please note, some provisions of the ICG focus on the external relationship of the intermediaries. Yet some provisions of the COC focus on internal operations of the intermediaries.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.1
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Question 632 of 770
632. Question
1 pointsQID469:According to the Internal Control Guidelines, with regards to the Information management, intermediaries should ensure that:
Correct
Some features of good information management include the following:
The information management system’s design specifications and implementation programme are sufficiently documented and regularly reviewed for adequacy and effectiveness.Incorrect
Some features of good information management include the following:
The information management system’s design specifications and implementation programme are sufficiently documented and regularly reviewed for adequacy and effectiveness.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.12
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Question 633 of 770
633. Question
1 pointsQID468:Which of the following are key points of proper information management?
I. Operating information management system in a confidential and monitored environment
II. Preventing errors, omissions or unauthorised data processing
III. Eradicating unauthorised data insertion, amendments and deletion
IV. Printing clients’ statements and transaction records in paperCorrect
Some of the features of good information management are as follows:
(a) The firm’s operating and information management systems (including electronic data processing systems) should be adequate and operated in a secure and controlled environment.
(b) Adequate and effective electronic data processing and data security policies and procedures are implemented to prevent or detect:
(i) errors, omissions or unauthorised insertions, alterations or deletions of information.Incorrect
Some of the features of good information management are as follows:
(a) The firm’s operating and information management systems (including electronic data processing systems) should be adequate and operated in a secure and controlled environment.
(b) Adequate and effective electronic data processing and data security policies and procedures are implemented to prevent or detect:
(i) errors, omissions or unauthorised insertions, alterations or deletions of information.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.12
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Question 634 of 770
634. Question
1 pointsQID928:A staff member tried to correct an error by accessing the company’s computer system. It was later discovered that the staff member did not have the authorization required to access those files. Under these circumstances, what should the responsible officer do?
Correct
In the case above, there are no illegal activities. Unauthorised access demonstrated the weaknesses of the computer system. Therefore, the responsible officer should review and repair the computer system in conjunction to reviewing the company’s authorisation policy.
Incorrect
In the case above, there are no illegal activities. Unauthorised access demonstrated the weaknesses of the computer system. Therefore, the responsible officer should review and repair the computer system in conjunction to reviewing the company’s authorisation policy.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.12
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Question 635 of 770
635. Question
1 pointsQID470:The licensed corporation’s information management system including electronic data processing, should be
I. Adequate
II. Matching International Standards
III. Operated in a secure and controlled environment
IV. Restrict access only to restricted personnel.Correct
These are features that a good information management system should include:
(a) Adequate and effective electronic data processing and data security policies and procedures are implemented.
(b) Information, whether in physical or electronic form, should be managed by qualified and experienced staff.
(c.) The firm’s operating and information management systems (including electronic data processing systems) should be adequate and operated in a secure and controlled environment.Incorrect
These are features that a good information management system should include:
(a) Adequate and effective electronic data processing and data security policies and procedures are implemented.
(b) Information, whether in physical or electronic form, should be managed by qualified and experienced staff.
(c.) The firm’s operating and information management systems (including electronic data processing systems) should be adequate and operated in a secure and controlled environment.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.12
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Question 636 of 770
636. Question
1 pointsQID472:Mr. Ko is an employee at Bangkok Investment Company. He altered some information in the client’s records without authorization. According to the Internal Control Guidelines (ICG) and the Keeping of Records Rule, how should the company deal with Mr. Ko?
Correct
For good information management, adequate and effective electronic data processing and data security policies and procedures are implemented to prevent or detect:
(i) errors, omissions or unauthorised insertions, alterations or deletions of information;
(ii) intrusion into the data processing system and into the database; or
(iii) unauthorised access to and/or extraction of confidential information such as that belonging to clients or which is price-sensitive.Incorrect
For good information management, adequate and effective electronic data processing and data security policies and procedures are implemented to prevent or detect:
(i) errors, omissions or unauthorised insertions, alterations or deletions of information;
(ii) intrusion into the data processing system and into the database; or
(iii) unauthorised access to and/or extraction of confidential information such as that belonging to clients or which is price-sensitive.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.14
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Question 637 of 770
637. Question
1 pointsQID473:Senior management should require and assist the compliance staff to establish effective and comprehensive compliance procedures. Which of the following aspects is not covered?
Correct
Senior management should:
Require and assist the compliance staff to establish effective and comprehensive compliance procedures covering:
(i) legal and regulatory requirements including licensing, registration and financial resources requirements;
(ii) record keeping (see the Securities and Futures (Keeping of Records) Rules in Topic 4);
(iii) business practices;
(iv) prevention of money laundering (see section 3 of this Topic);
(v) internal controls; and
(vi) client, proprietary and staff dealings; which will provide it with assurance that the intermediary complies with all requirements at all times.
The review of investment performance is not included on these rules.Incorrect
Senior management should:
Require and assist the compliance staff to establish effective and comprehensive compliance procedures covering:
(i) legal and regulatory requirements including licensing, registration and financial resources requirements;
(ii) record keeping (see the Securities and Futures (Keeping of Records) Rules in Topic 4);
(iii) business practices;
(iv) prevention of money laundering (see section 3 of this Topic);
(v) internal controls; and
(vi) client, proprietary and staff dealings; which will provide it with assurance that the intermediary complies with all requirements at all times.
The review of investment performance is not included on these rules.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.14
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Question 638 of 770
638. Question
1 pointsQID1017:Compliance functions of intermediaries should
Correct
Compliance functions of intermediaries should be independent of other functions and report directly to senior management.
Incorrect
Compliance functions of intermediaries should be independent of other functions and report directly to senior management.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.14
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Question 639 of 770
639. Question
1 pointsQID507:Which of the following functions are related to the compliance function of a licensed corporation?
I. The review of record keeping
II. The review of prevention of money laundering
III. The review of client, proprietary and staff dealings
IV. The review of Compliance with all legal and regulator requirementsCorrect
All of these functions are essential as stated in different regulations and guidelines such as the Code of Conduct, the FMCC, AMLO, PDPO, and others.
Incorrect
All of these functions are essential as stated in different regulations and guidelines such as the Code of Conduct, the FMCC, AMLO, PDPO, and others.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.14
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Question 640 of 770
640. Question
1 pointsQID474:Which of the following descriptions of the “Internal Operations
Guideline” regarding audit is correct?
I. Independently audit and assess management, internal control, adequacy of operations, effectiveness and efficiency
II. Work together with internal accounting personnel to audit and assess management, internal controls, adequacy of operations, effectiveness and efficiency.
III. Report audit findings directly to senior management or the
Audit Committee
IV. Prepare report which will be disclosed to shareholders during an Annual General MeetingCorrect
The objective of the audit area of the ICG is to establish and operate an audit policy and review function which independently examines, evaluates and reports on the adequacy, effectiveness and efficiency of the intermediary’s management, internal controls and operations.
Senior management should ensure that there is adequate planning, control and recording of the audit and review work performed, and provide for timely reporting of findings, conclusions and recommendations to senior management, including follow-up action relating to any weaknesses found.Incorrect
The objective of the audit area of the ICG is to establish and operate an audit policy and review function which independently examines, evaluates and reports on the adequacy, effectiveness and efficiency of the intermediary’s management, internal controls and operations.
Senior management should ensure that there is adequate planning, control and recording of the audit and review work performed, and provide for timely reporting of findings, conclusions and recommendations to senior management, including follow-up action relating to any weaknesses found.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.16
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Question 641 of 770
641. Question
1 pointsQID2439:According to the internal control guidelines, the ideal auditor should:
Correct
According to the internal control guidelines, the ideal auditor should perform independently and be hired by staffs or outside consultants.
Incorrect
According to the internal control guidelines, the ideal auditor should perform independently and be hired by staffs or outside consultants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.16
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Question 642 of 770
642. Question
1 pointsQID2707:A good internal audit function according to the Internal Control Guidelines does not include
Correct
A good audit must include external auditors and must be independent of the internal audit. Internal audits should coordinate with external auditors. Internal audit should make recommendations and conclusions on deficiencies in the audit process for senior management’s reference and take follow up actions in person.
Incorrect
A good audit must include external auditors and must be independent of the internal audit. Internal audits should coordinate with external auditors. Internal audit should make recommendations and conclusions on deficiencies in the audit process for senior management’s reference and take follow up actions in person.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.16
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Question 643 of 770
643. Question
1 pointsQID980:Licensed corporation should ensure that investment advice given to clients is
Correct
Licensed corporation should ensure that investment advice given to clients is suitable for clients.
Incorrect
Licensed corporation should ensure that investment advice given to clients is suitable for clients.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.18
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Question 644 of 770
644. Question
1 pointsQID1605:Mr. Liu is the only shareholder of Vitamilk and the director of Millionaire Financial Investment. Another director of Millionaire Financial Investment suggested to acquire some of Vitamilk real estates at the board of directors meeting. Does Mr. Liu have to declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest?
Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.18
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Question 645 of 770
645. Question
1 pointsQID1018:How should an intermediary handle house trades and client trades?
Correct
House trades and client trades should be handled separately to avoid leakage of confidential data.
Incorrect
House trades and client trades should be handled separately to avoid leakage of confidential data.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.18
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Question 646 of 770
646. Question
1 pointsQID479:Intermediaries advising on investments for remuneration should:
Correct
According to the ICG, intermediaries advising on investments for remuneration should implement special procedures, including the following measures:
(a) They should document the rationale underlying the investment advice given and provide copies to the client. The recommendations made must be suitable, taking into account the clients’ particular investment experience, objectives and financial position.Incorrect
According to the ICG, intermediaries advising on investments for remuneration should implement special procedures, including the following measures:
(a) They should document the rationale underlying the investment advice given and provide copies to the client. The recommendations made must be suitable, taking into account the clients’ particular investment experience, objectives and financial position.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.18
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Question 647 of 770
647. Question
1 pointsQID475:Effective policies, procedures and operational controls should be put in place in the asset management business for internal control purposes, which of the following are examples of such policies?
I. The establishment of precise terms and conditions for operating discretionary client accounts
II. The making of investment recommendations after thorough analysis as regards suitability for the clients, the use of comprehensive contractual advisory agreements with advisory clients, and protection of client and firm’s assets.
III. The delegation of work from compliance staff members to other operational staff members for enhanced compliance efficiency
IV. Disclosure to the client of a material conflict of interests existed in a deal after the deal has been finalized and executed.Correct
As stated on the ICG, in terms of Operational Controls, the Senior management is required to establish policies and procedures in order to:
(a) Establish precise terms and conditions for operating discretionary accounts.
(b) Ensure that any investment advice given for remuneration is supported by a contractual advisory agreement, and investment recommendations are made after thorough analysis, are suitable for the client and are properly documented.Incorrect
As stated on the ICG, in terms of Operational Controls, the Senior management is required to establish policies and procedures in order to:
(a) Establish precise terms and conditions for operating discretionary accounts.
(b) Ensure that any investment advice given for remuneration is supported by a contractual advisory agreement, and investment recommendations are made after thorough analysis, are suitable for the client and are properly documented.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.18
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Question 648 of 770
648. Question
1 pointsQID476:Operational controls should ensure that
I. All investment advice are based on contractual advisory agreements.
II. Remuneration for any investment advice given is supported by a contractual advisory agreement.
III. Ensure investment recommendations are made after thorough analysis and are suitable for the client.
IV. Properly record related information; ensure that
reconciliations of records with external records and reports are carried out, errors, omissions and discrepancies are followed-up and that the reconciliations are reviewed by an independent senior staff.Correct
As stated on the ICG, in terms of Operational Controls, the Senior management is required to establish policies and procedures in order to:
(a) Ensure that any investment advice given for remuneration is supported by a contractual advisory agreement, and investment recommendations are made after thorough analysis, are suitable for the client and are properly documented.
(b) Ensure that regular reconciliations of the intermediary’s records with external records and reports are carried out so that:
(i) errors, omissions, and discrepancies are followed up; and
(ii) the reconciliations are reviewed by independent senior staff.Incorrect
As stated on the ICG, in terms of Operational Controls, the Senior management is required to establish policies and procedures in order to:
(a) Ensure that any investment advice given for remuneration is supported by a contractual advisory agreement, and investment recommendations are made after thorough analysis, are suitable for the client and are properly documented.
(b) Ensure that regular reconciliations of the intermediary’s records with external records and reports are carried out so that:
(i) errors, omissions, and discrepancies are followed up; and
(ii) the reconciliations are reviewed by independent senior staff.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.18
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Question 649 of 770
649. Question
1 pointsQID2440:The purpose of risk management doesn’t include:
Correct
Risks is not able to be fully removed.
Incorrect
Risks is not able to be fully removed.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.19
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Question 650 of 770
650. Question
1 pointsQID484:Which of the following risks occurs when “a product may not be realizable in the short term without material loss, or that a market is illiquid and it is not possible to sell, or that a person is unable to meet his liabilities in the short term” ?”
Correct
Liquidity risk is the risk that a product may not be realisable in the short term without material loss, or that a market is illiquid and it is not possible to sell, or that a person is unable to meet his liabilities in the short term.
Incorrect
Liquidity risk is the risk that a product may not be realisable in the short term without material loss, or that a market is illiquid and it is not possible to sell, or that a person is unable to meet his liabilities in the short term.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.20
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Question 651 of 770
651. Question
1 pointsQID482:The SFC uses risk criteria in assessing the internal control of the intermediaries it regulates. Which of the following risks is NOT included?
Correct
The SFC uses risk criteria in assessing the intermediaries it regulates. Risks can be defined in many ways and some specific types of risk, such as credit, market, iquidity and operational risks, are considered here.
Business risk is not a risk category defined by the ICG.Incorrect
The SFC uses risk criteria in assessing the intermediaries it regulates. Risks can be defined in many ways and some specific types of risk, such as credit, market, iquidity and operational risks, are considered here.
Business risk is not a risk category defined by the ICG.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.20
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Question 652 of 770
652. Question
1 pointsQID485:Which of the following is considered an operational risk for a licensed corporation?
I. Losses suffered dueto adverse movements in the market value of its assets.
II. Losses suffered by clients due to poor maintenance of the
license corporation’s computer system.
III. Inability of the license corporation’s accounting department to
receive deposits owed by clients.
IV. Inability of the licensed corporation’s sales network to deal
with large volumes of bonds trading.Correct
This can be understood for our purposes as the risk of loss to the intermediary as a result of errors, omissions, inefficiencies and negligence in operations or in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, excluding the three other risks already covered.
Option I is market risk.Incorrect
This can be understood for our purposes as the risk of loss to the intermediary as a result of errors, omissions, inefficiencies and negligence in operations or in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, excluding the three other risks already covered.
Option I is market risk.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.20
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Question 653 of 770
653. Question
1 pointsQID1356:According to the Internal Control Guidelines, which of the following are methods of managing risks?
I. A risk management function consisting of suitably qualified and experienced professionals
II. Procedures to limit the exposure of the intermediary to risk of suffering loss, as a result of client default or changing market conditions, to an acceptable level
III. Trading and position limits for proprietary trading and their monitoring at the end of the trading day, the limits to be reviewed on a timely basis for their effectiveness
IV. A risk policy defined by the senior management, including the maintenance of risk measurement and reporting methodologies appropriate to the business strategy, size, complexity of operations and the risk profile of the intermediary’s business.Correct
The control guidelines provide for the establishment of:
(a) a risk management function consisting of suitably qualified and experienced professionals;
(b) procedures to limit the exposure of the intermediary to risk of suffering loss, as a result of client default or changing market conditions, to acceptable levels;
(c.) trading and position limits for proprietary trading and their monitoring at the end of the trading day, the limits to be reviewed on a timely basis for their effectiveness;
(f) a risk policy defined by senior management, including maintenance of risk measurement and reporting methodologies appropriate to the business strategy, size, complexity of operations and the risk profile of the intermediary’s business.Incorrect
The control guidelines provide for the establishment of:
(a) a risk management function consisting of suitably qualified and experienced professionals;
(b) procedures to limit the exposure of the intermediary to risk of suffering loss, as a result of client default or changing market conditions, to acceptable levels;
(c.) trading and position limits for proprietary trading and their monitoring at the end of the trading day, the limits to be reviewed on a timely basis for their effectiveness;
(f) a risk policy defined by senior management, including maintenance of risk measurement and reporting methodologies appropriate to the business strategy, size, complexity of operations and the risk profile of the intermediary’s business.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.20
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Question 654 of 770
654. Question
1 pointsQID477:Risk management procedures should limit the exposure of intermediary to risk of suffering loss to acceptable levels a result of?
I. Propriety trading
II. Client default
III. Changing market conditions
IV. Management defaultCorrect
In terms of risk management, the ICG establishes that:
(a) there should be procedures to limit the exposure of the intermediary to risk of suffering loss, as a result of client default or changing market conditions, to acceptable levels;
(b) there should be trading and position limits for proprietary trading and their monitoring at the end of the trading day, the limits to be reviewed on a timely basis for effectiveness.Incorrect
In terms of risk management, the ICG establishes that:
(a) there should be procedures to limit the exposure of the intermediary to risk of suffering loss, as a result of client default or changing market conditions, to acceptable levels;
(b) there should be trading and position limits for proprietary trading and their monitoring at the end of the trading day, the limits to be reviewed on a timely basis for effectiveness.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.20
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Question 655 of 770
655. Question
1 pointsQID483:The definition of credit risk is?
Correct
Credit risk is the danger that a client or counterparty may default on his obligations to the intermediary or be unable to perform his part of a contract.
Incorrect
Credit risk is the danger that a client or counterparty may default on his obligations to the intermediary or be unable to perform his part of a contract.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.20
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Question 656 of 770
656. Question
1 pointsQID2592:Which of the following are elements of a good risk management system?
I. Hiring experienced and well-qualified staff as the risk management role
II. Take as reference the risk management system of an institution in the industry with the similar business model
III. set up a direct reporting mechanism for the risk management roles to report to senior management
IV. Hire more than one accountantCorrect
The control guidelines proposes thata risk management role should be taken by an experienced and suitably qualified professional. Reporting mechanism should be set up so the management can directly learn the problems from the risk management department. II and IV are not on the guidelines.
Incorrect
The control guidelines proposes thata risk management role should be taken by an experienced and suitably qualified professional. Reporting mechanism should be set up so the management can directly learn the problems from the risk management department. II and IV are not on the guidelines.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.20
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Question 657 of 770
657. Question
1 pointsQID1352:What is the legal status of the Internal Control Guidelines?
Correct
As with other codes issued by the SFC, the ICG does not have the force of law, but breaches of the ICG may be relevant to a person’s ongoing fitness and properness and may also be taken into account by a court in connection with any proceedings under the SFO.
Incorrect
As with other codes issued by the SFC, the ICG does not have the force of law, but breaches of the ICG may be relevant to a person’s ongoing fitness and properness and may also be taken into account by a court in connection with any proceedings under the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.3
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Question 658 of 770
658. Question
1 pointsQID2390:According to Management, Supervision and Internal Control Guidelines for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the Securities and Futures Commission, the SFC requests small companies?
Correct
According to Management, Supervision and Internal Control Guidelines for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the Securities and Futures Commission, the SFC has no rule about the number of compliance staffs. Just maintain effective supervision and compliance policies. Therefore, the SFC requests small companies to rely on policies and supervisions to compensate for their lack of scale and the number of employees.
Incorrect
According to Management, Supervision and Internal Control Guidelines for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the Securities and Futures Commission, the SFC has no rule about the number of compliance staffs. Just maintain effective supervision and compliance policies. Therefore, the SFC requests small companies to rely on policies and supervisions to compensate for their lack of scale and the number of employees.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.3
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Question 659 of 770
659. Question
1 pointsQID2737:Which of the following is not a recommendation of the Internal Control Guidelines?
Correct
Internal control guidelines must take into account the size of the intermediary and the scope of its business. Small businesses are not likely to have as complex a system of functional segregation as large corporations.
Incorrect
Internal control guidelines must take into account the size of the intermediary and the scope of its business. Small businesses are not likely to have as complex a system of functional segregation as large corporations.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.3
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Question 660 of 770
660. Question
1 pointsQID1682:Mr Ip is the responsible officer of Millionaire Securities, he believed that the requirements of the Internal Control Guidelines are too strict therefore decided not to comply with it. Has Mr Ip done anything wrong?
Correct
the ICG does not have the force of law, but breachesof the ICG may be relevant to a person’s ongoing fitness and properness and may also be takeninto account by a court in connection with any proceedings under the SFO.
Therefore, violating the internal control guidelines is not equivalent to violating the SFO and will not be punishable by imprisonment, but it may affect Mr. lp’s suitability as a fit and proper person.Incorrect
the ICG does not have the force of law, but breachesof the ICG may be relevant to a person’s ongoing fitness and properness and may also be takeninto account by a court in connection with any proceedings under the SFO.
Therefore, violating the internal control guidelines is not equivalent to violating the SFO and will not be punishable by imprisonment, but it may affect Mr. lp’s suitability as a fit and proper person.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.3
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Question 661 of 770
661. Question
1 pointsQID1491:”The SFC adopts a pragmatic approach when regulating the industry” describes which of the following codes or guidelines the Securities and Futures Commission applies?
Correct
The SFC has indicated that, in applying the ICG or other related guidelines, it will use a pragmatic approach, which means it will look at the reality and the substance of a situation and not apply the ICG in a rigid or bureaucratic way.
Incorrect
The SFC has indicated that, in applying the ICG or other related guidelines, it will use a pragmatic approach, which means it will look at the reality and the substance of a situation and not apply the ICG in a rigid or bureaucratic way.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.3
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Question 662 of 770
662. Question
1 pointsQID453:Which of the following are not the eight key areas of the Internal Control Guidelines:
Correct
The key areas are management and supervision, segregation of duties and functions, personnel and training, information management, compliance, audit, operational controls and risk management. Operations is not the name of an area covered by the ICG.
Incorrect
The key areas are management and supervision, segregation of duties and functions, personnel and training, information management, compliance, audit, operational controls and risk management. Operations is not the name of an area covered by the ICG.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.4
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Question 663 of 770
663. Question
1 pointsQID457:Which of the following is not the eight key areas of the Internal Control Guidelines:
Correct
Capabilities is not one of the eight key areas covered by the ICG.
Incorrect
Capabilities is not one of the eight key areas covered by the ICG.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.4
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Question 664 of 770
664. Question
1 pointsQID456:The Internal Control Guidelines do not contain which areas of Internal Control?
Correct
While Audit is an area covered by the ICG, Profitability Audit is not.
Incorrect
While Audit is an area covered by the ICG, Profitability Audit is not.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.4
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Question 665 of 770
665. Question
1 pointsQID455:According to the Internal Control Guidelines, which of the following is NOT included in the 8 key areas?
Correct
Sales and marketing is not an area covered by the ICG.
Incorrect
Sales and marketing is not an area covered by the ICG.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.4
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Question 666 of 770
666. Question
1 pointsQID454:The Internal Control Guidelines contains which areas of Internal Control?
I. Segregation of objectives and functions
II. Personnel and training
III. Information management
IV. ComplianceCorrect
The ICG identifies eight key areas of internal control:
(a) management and supervision;
(b) segregation of duties and functions;
(c) personnel and training;
(d) information management;
(e) compliance;
(f) audit;
(g) operational controls; and
(h) risk management.
Option I is incorrect. The correct name for that area is segregation of duties and functions.Incorrect
The ICG identifies eight key areas of internal control:
(a) management and supervision;
(b) segregation of duties and functions;
(c) personnel and training;
(d) information management;
(e) compliance;
(f) audit;
(g) operational controls; and
(h) risk management.
Option I is incorrect. The correct name for that area is segregation of duties and functions.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.4
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Question 667 of 770
667. Question
1 pointsQID2388:What’s the purpose of the Management, Supervision and Internal Control Guidelines for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the Securities and Futures Commission?
Correct
The objective of the Management, Supervision and Internal Control Guidelines for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the Securities and Futures Commission is to establish and operate an effective
management and organisational structure which ensures that the business is conducted in a sound, efficient and effective manner.Incorrect
The objective of the Management, Supervision and Internal Control Guidelines for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the Securities and Futures Commission is to establish and operate an effective
management and organisational structure which ensures that the business is conducted in a sound, efficient and effective manner.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.5
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Question 668 of 770
668. Question
1 pointsQID460:For the management and supervision of internal controls, senior Management must ensure which of the following measures are in place to comply with the ICG?
I. Clear lines of management and authority and levels of authorization.
II. Assign key function to suitably qualified experienced and capable staff members
III. Ensure key functions are personally managed and executed
IV. Ensure all compliance staff report to the responsible officer
directly.Correct
From the standpoint of the management and supervision area of the ICG, Senior Management should ensure that:
(a) its assumption of full responsibility for all operations, including the development, implementation and ongoing effectiveness of internal controls, and adherence to them;
(b) establishing regular communication of control information to various levels of senior management as it relates to:
(i) the firm’s policies, procedures, operations and financial position;
(ii) qualitative and quantitative risks and detected weaknesses;
(iii) any non-compliance with laws and regulations; and
(iv) any deviations from the business objectives;
(c) identification of clear reporting lines and assignment of supervisory and reporting responsibilities;
(d) setting up detailed definitions of authorities for key positions, policies and procedures for necessary authorisations, and their communication throughout the business;
(e) assignment of management and supervisory functions to suitably qualified and experienced persons.Incorrect
From the standpoint of the management and supervision area of the ICG, Senior Management should ensure that:
(a) its assumption of full responsibility for all operations, including the development, implementation and ongoing effectiveness of internal controls, and adherence to them;
(b) establishing regular communication of control information to various levels of senior management as it relates to:
(i) the firm’s policies, procedures, operations and financial position;
(ii) qualitative and quantitative risks and detected weaknesses;
(iii) any non-compliance with laws and regulations; and
(iv) any deviations from the business objectives;
(c) identification of clear reporting lines and assignment of supervisory and reporting responsibilities;
(d) setting up detailed definitions of authorities for key positions, policies and procedures for necessary authorisations, and their communication throughout the business;
(e) assignment of management and supervisory functions to suitably qualified and experienced persons.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.6
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Question 669 of 770
669. Question
1 pointsQID2825:Which of the following is a characteristic described within the scope of the Internal Control Guidelines’ key area “Management and Supervision”?
I. Internal control systems should be developed by senior management
II. The company should clearly define reporting lines and assign supervisory and reporting responsibilities
III. Management and supervisory functions should be performed by experienced and qualified persons
IV. Compensation for management and staff should be fair and competitiveCorrect
Characteristics described in the Internal Control Guidelines’ “Management and Supervision” key area include:
I. Internal control systems should be developed by senior management
II. The company should clearly define reporting lines and assign supervisory and reporting responsibilities
III. Management and supervisory functions should be performed by experienced and qualified persons
IV. The company should regularly communicate with other senior management at all levels regarding the monitoring data
V. Senior Management should properly delegate the work to the necessary authorityIncorrect
Characteristics described in the Internal Control Guidelines’ “Management and Supervision” key area include:
I. Internal control systems should be developed by senior management
II. The company should clearly define reporting lines and assign supervisory and reporting responsibilities
III. Management and supervisory functions should be performed by experienced and qualified persons
IV. The company should regularly communicate with other senior management at all levels regarding the monitoring data
V. Senior Management should properly delegate the work to the necessary authorityHint
Reference Chapter:1.6.6
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Question 670 of 770
670. Question
1 pointsQID154:Millionaire Securities has recently been convicted of certain acts of market misconduct. Mr. Ip, the director of Millionaire Securities, was unaware of these illegal acts but had diligently tried to oversee and regulate the company’s operations. Under these circumstances, is Mr. Ip guilty?
Correct
The court may give relief to a director or directors if they have, in causing the breach, been shown to have acted honestly and reasonably.
Incorrect
The court may give relief to a director or directors if they have, in causing the breach, been shown to have acted honestly and reasonably.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.6
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Question 671 of 770
671. Question
1 pointsQID979:Who should assume full responsibility for all operations of a licensed corporation?
Correct
Senior management including responsible officers should assume full responsibility for all operations of a licensed corporation.
Incorrect
Senior management including responsible officers should assume full responsibility for all operations of a licensed corporation.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.6
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Question 672 of 770
672. Question
1 pointsQID1353:According to the Internal Control Guidelines, good functioning and effective supervision should include the following features:
I. Senior management’s assumption of full responsibility for all operations, including the development, implementation and ongoing effectiveness of internal controls, and adherence to them.
II. Senior management establishing clear reporting lines and assignment of supervisory and reporting responsibilities.
III. Senior management setting up detailed definitions of authorities for key positions, policies and procedures for necessary authorisations, and their communication throughout the business.
IV. Senior management ensuring the assignment of management and supervisory functions to suitably qualified and experienced persons.Correct
The main features of senior management’s role in such a structure are:
(a) its assumption of full responsibility for all operations, including the development, implementation and ongoing effectiveness of internal controls, and adherence to them;
(c.) identification of clear reporting lines and assignment of supervisory and reporting responsibilities;
(d) setting up detailed definitions of authorities for key positions, policies and procedures for necessary authorisations, and their communication throughout the business;
(e.) assignment of management and supervisory functions to suitably qualified and experienced persons.Incorrect
The main features of senior management’s role in such a structure are:
(a) its assumption of full responsibility for all operations, including the development, implementation and ongoing effectiveness of internal controls, and adherence to them;
(c.) identification of clear reporting lines and assignment of supervisory and reporting responsibilities;
(d) setting up detailed definitions of authorities for key positions, policies and procedures for necessary authorisations, and their communication throughout the business;
(e.) assignment of management and supervisory functions to suitably qualified and experienced persons.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.6
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Question 673 of 770
673. Question
1 pointsQID1355:Which of the following are indicated as features of good management, Supervision and Internal Control Guidelines (ICG) issued by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC)?
Options:
I. The development of a robust and effective internal control system for efficiently operating the business.
II. Fostering excellent senior management through a reward system, including incentivisation through executive share option schemes.
III. Setting detailed written definitions of authorities for key positions and clearly functional and reporting responsibilities for managerial roles.
IV. Establishing a committee system for different operational areas, with meetings held at least weekly and supervised directly by board members, including non-executive directors.Correct
Internal controls refer to the entire system of policies, procedures, checks, controls and division of responsibilities which a licensed or registered person has installed to run the business. Internal controls are used by a licensed or registered person to provide itself with reasonable assurance that it is able to:
(a) operate its business in an orderly and efficient manner;
(b) safeguard the assets of its clients and its own;
© maintain proper records, and reliable financial and other information that it produces; and
(d) comply with all applicable laws and regulatory requirementsIncorrect
Internal controls refer to the entire system of policies, procedures, checks, controls and division of responsibilities which a licensed or registered person has installed to run the business. Internal controls are used by a licensed or registered person to provide itself with reasonable assurance that it is able to:
(a) operate its business in an orderly and efficient manner;
(b) safeguard the assets of its clients and its own;
© maintain proper records, and reliable financial and other information that it produces; and
(d) comply with all applicable laws and regulatory requirementsHint
Reference Chapter:1.6.6
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Question 674 of 770
674. Question
1 pointsQID2435:Is it correct that if there is a problem in licensed corporations, the manager of the compliance department should take the most responsibility?
Correct
If there is a problem in licensed corporations, the senior management should take full responsibility. The Responsible Officer may bear partial responsibility, however the director is ultimately responsible.
Incorrect
If there is a problem in licensed corporations, the senior management should take full responsibility. The Responsible Officer may bear partial responsibility, however the director is ultimately responsible.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.6
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Question 675 of 770
675. Question
1 pointsQID1622:Which of the following is not an advantage of segregation of duties?
Correct
There are a lot of advantages for segregation of duties, however, it may lead increase of cost.
Incorrect
There are a lot of advantages for segregation of duties, however, it may lead increase of cost.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.7
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Question 676 of 770
676. Question
1 pointsQID2447:Why is there segregation of functions?
Correct
The main purpose of the segregation of functions is to avoid the overuse of power such that staffs affect the interests of companies in favour of their individual interests.
Incorrect
The main purpose of the segregation of functions is to avoid the overuse of power such that staffs affect the interests of companies in favour of their individual interests.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.7
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Question 677 of 770
677. Question
1 pointsQID458:Kaohsiung Capital is a boutique firm that offers advice to local listed companies, which includes advice on Listing Rules and the Takeover and Mergers Codes. It is a boutique firm with only a few employees. Should Kaohsiung Capital adhere to the same segregation of duties requirements as bigger and more well established firms do?
Correct
The SFC has indicated that, in applying the ICG or other related guidelines, it will use a pragmatic approach, which means it will look at the reality and the substance of a situation and not apply the ICG in a rigid or bureaucratic way. The usual illustration of this approach is of a small business. In such a case, the SFC will not expect to see a complicated system of segregation of functions, and compliance and internal audit departments with many people employed in them. It will be satisfied if other controls are in place to compensate for the reduced size and staff.
Incorrect
The SFC has indicated that, in applying the ICG or other related guidelines, it will use a pragmatic approach, which means it will look at the reality and the substance of a situation and not apply the ICG in a rigid or bureaucratic way. The usual illustration of this approach is of a small business. In such a case, the SFC will not expect to see a complicated system of segregation of functions, and compliance and internal audit departments with many people employed in them. It will be satisfied if other controls are in place to compensate for the reduced size and staff.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.7
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Question 678 of 770
678. Question
1 pointsQID465:What is the primary objective of segregation of duties and functions?
I. Avoid overlooking of errors
II. Avoid opportunities for abuse
III. Avoid manipulation
IV. Avoid being investigated by the SFCCorrect
Incompatible duties and functions should be segregated, particularly those which, when performed by the same person, may provide opportunities for abuse or result in the overlooking of errors, thereby exposing the intermediary and its clients to risks.
Incorrect
Incompatible duties and functions should be segregated, particularly those which, when performed by the same person, may provide opportunities for abuse or result in the overlooking of errors, thereby exposing the intermediary and its clients to risks.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.7
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Question 679 of 770
679. Question
1 pointsQID464:What are the objectives behind the segregation of important duties and functions?
I. To enhance workplace efficiency through division of labour
II. To minimize errors
III. To improve overall profitability of the business
IV. To prevent opportunities for abuseCorrect
Incompatible duties and functions should be segregated, particularly those which, when performed by the same person, may provide opportunities for abuse or result in the overlooking of errors, thereby exposing the intermediary and its clients to risks.
Incorrect
Incompatible duties and functions should be segregated, particularly those which, when performed by the same person, may provide opportunities for abuse or result in the overlooking of errors, thereby exposing the intermediary and its clients to risks.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.7
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Question 680 of 770
680. Question
1 pointsQID446:Kaohsiung Finance is a corporate finance adviser. In which of the following situations is it required to implement a system of functional barriers (Chinese walls)?
Correct
When a corporate finance adviser is part of a group conducting other activities, it should ensure that there is an effective system of functional barriers (Chinese walls) to prevent leakage of confidential or price-sensitive information between its activities as a corporate finance adviser and its other business activities. The system should include physical separation between, and different staff employed for, the various business activities.
Incorrect
When a corporate finance adviser is part of a group conducting other activities, it should ensure that there is an effective system of functional barriers (Chinese walls) to prevent leakage of confidential or price-sensitive information between its activities as a corporate finance adviser and its other business activities. The system should include physical separation between, and different staff employed for, the various business activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.8
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Question 681 of 770
681. Question
1 pointsQID467:According to the ICG, incompatible duties and functions should be segregated, which of the following duties should not be carried out by front line staff?
I. Policy Making
II. Compliance and Audit
III. Risk Management
IV. SalesCorrect
Features of satisfactory segregation of duties (and functional separation) are as follows:
Policy making, supervisory, advisory, compliance and internal audit functions should, where practicable, not be performed by staff with line operational duties.
Also, where possible, compliance and internal audit should be separate from and independent of the operational functions, and report directly to senior management.Incorrect
Features of satisfactory segregation of duties (and functional separation) are as follows:
Policy making, supervisory, advisory, compliance and internal audit functions should, where practicable, not be performed by staff with line operational duties.
Also, where possible, compliance and internal audit should be separate from and independent of the operational functions, and report directly to senior management.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.8
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Question 682 of 770
682. Question
1 pointsQID1354:According to the Internal Control Guidelines, a satisfactory segregation of duties should include which of the following features?
I. Policy making, supervisory, advisory, compliance and internal audit functions should not, where practicable, be performed by staff with line operational duties.
II. Functions such as sales, dealing, accounting and settlement should be segregated from each other.
III. Research and corporate finance functions should also be segregated from each other.
IV. Compliance and internal audit should be separated from and independent of operational functions, and reports are made directly to the SFC.Correct
The main features of satisfactory segregation of duties (and functional separation) are as follows:
(a) policy making, supervisory, advisory, compliance and internal audit functions should not, where practicable, be performed by staff with line operational duties;
(b) wherever practical, functions such as sales, dealing, accounting and settlement should be segregated from each other;
(c.) research functions should also be segregated from sales and dealing to avoid conflicts of interest. Where practical, research and corporate finance functions should also be segregated from each otherIncorrect
The main features of satisfactory segregation of duties (and functional separation) are as follows:
(a) policy making, supervisory, advisory, compliance and internal audit functions should not, where practicable, be performed by staff with line operational duties;
(b) wherever practical, functions such as sales, dealing, accounting and settlement should be segregated from each other;
(c.) research functions should also be segregated from sales and dealing to avoid conflicts of interest. Where practical, research and corporate finance functions should also be segregated from each otherHint
Reference Chapter:1.6.8
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Question 683 of 770
683. Question
1 pointsQID466:Staff members with line operational duties should not perform which of the following duties simultaneously if practicable
I. Internal Audit
II. Supervisory
III. Compliance
IV. Risk managementCorrect
Features of satisfactory segregation of duties (and functional separation) are as follows:
Policy making, supervisory, advisory, compliance and internal audit functions should, where practicable, not be performed by staff with line operational duties.
Also, where possible, compliance and internal audit should be separate from and independent of the operational functions, and report directly to senior management.Incorrect
Features of satisfactory segregation of duties (and functional separation) are as follows:
Policy making, supervisory, advisory, compliance and internal audit functions should, where practicable, not be performed by staff with line operational duties.
Also, where possible, compliance and internal audit should be separate from and independent of the operational functions, and report directly to senior management.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.8
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Question 684 of 770
684. Question
1 pointsQID2747:Which of the following departments need to report directly to senior management?
Correct
Internal audit and compliance functions need to report directly to senior management.
Incorrect
Internal audit and compliance functions need to report directly to senior management.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.8
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Question 685 of 770
685. Question
1 pointsQID481:When dealing with confidential information that is price-sensitive, what should be done to ensure that such information is not leaked to operating staff?
Correct
Chinese walls should be established to ensure that price-sensitive information is not leaked to operating staff who may be able to misuse the information; for example, corporate finance
advisory staff may have advance information on a potential takeover which can be used by other staff to deal for profit in the market.Incorrect
Chinese walls should be established to ensure that price-sensitive information is not leaked to operating staff who may be able to misuse the information; for example, corporate finance
advisory staff may have advance information on a potential takeover which can be used by other staff to deal for profit in the market.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.6.8
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Question 686 of 770
686. Question
1 pointsQID505:British Construction Bank is an authorised financial institution. Amid the downfall of the Hong Kong banking sector, it has decided to promote its personal loan service by acquiring a list of clients and contacts from its wholly owned subsidiary British Construction Securities, a licensed corporation. Should British Construction Securities provide such information to British Construction Bank?
Correct
Where the data is collected from the data subject, he should be informed, at the prescribed times, of the purpose for which the data is to be used, the classes of persons to whom the data may be transferred and of his rights to access and to request the correction of the data. Also, personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for a new purpose.
Incorrect
Where the data is collected from the data subject, he should be informed, at the prescribed times, of the purpose for which the data is to be used, the classes of persons to whom the data may be transferred and of his rights to access and to request the correction of the data. Also, personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for a new purpose.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.
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Question 687 of 770
687. Question
1 pointsQID808:The PDPO is applicable to which of the following individuals?
I. The user of personal data
II. The collector of personal data
III. The holder of personal data
IV. The processor of personal dataCorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data. It applies to any data user who, in relation to personal data, means a person who alone or jointly, or in common with other persons, controls the collection, holding, processing or use of the data.
Incorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data. It applies to any data user who, in relation to personal data, means a person who alone or jointly, or in common with other persons, controls the collection, holding, processing or use of the data.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.1
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Question 688 of 770
688. Question
1 pointsQID805:Which of the following are classified as personal data under the PDPO?
Correct
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Incorrect
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.1
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Question 689 of 770
689. Question
1 pointsQID502:According to the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance, personal data refers to:
Correct
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Incorrect
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.1
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Question 690 of 770
690. Question
1 pointsQID501:Which of the follow ordinance/codes/rules protect the privacy of individuals in relation to their personal data?
Correct
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data.
Incorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.1
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Question 691 of 770
691. Question
1 pointsQID2827:Registration and Electoral Office lost a notebook computer containing voters’ information. This is more likely to violate
Correct
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy of Personal Data and Retention Period
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataThe loss of a notebook computer containing personal data likely indicates a failure to secure personal data, which violated principle IV – security of personal data, a requirement to prevent unauthorised or accidental access, processing, erasure, loss, or use of personal data.
Incorrect
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy of Personal Data and Retention Period
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataThe loss of a notebook computer containing personal data likely indicates a failure to secure personal data, which violated principle IV – security of personal data, a requirement to prevent unauthorised or accidental access, processing, erasure, loss, or use of personal data.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.2
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Question 692 of 770
692. Question
1 pointsQID1148:Which of the following is NOT a data protection principle according to the PDPO?
Correct
Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
Principle 2 – accuracy and duration of retention of personal data
Principle 3 – use of personal data
Principle 4 – security of personal data
Principle 5 – information to be generally available
Principle 6 – access to personal dataIncorrect
Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
Principle 2 – accuracy and duration of retention of personal data
Principle 3 – use of personal data
Principle 4 – security of personal data
Principle 5 – information to be generally available
Principle 6 – access to personal dataHint
Reference Chapter:1.7.2
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Question 693 of 770
693. Question
1 pointsQID2395:Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Privacy Ordinance?
Correct
A data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject is held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable
fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data, and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object to the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.
Therefore, securities companies are obliged to provide customers with copies of their personal data, but not necessarily free of charge.Incorrect
A data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject is held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable
fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data, and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object to the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.
Therefore, securities companies are obliged to provide customers with copies of their personal data, but not necessarily free of charge.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.2
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Question 694 of 770
694. Question
1 pointsQID2748:The data protection principles set out in the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) do not include
Correct
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy and duration of retention
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataIncorrect
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy and duration of retention
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataHint
Reference Chapter:1.7.2
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Question 695 of 770
695. Question
1 pointsQID1149:The data protection principles include:
I. information to be generally available to the public.
II. use of personal data.
III. purpose and manner of collection of personal data.
IV. accuracy and duration of retention of personal data.Correct
Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
Principle 2 – accuracy and duration of retention of personal data
Principle 3 – use of personal data
Principle 5 is “information to be generally available”, but not ” information to be generally available to the public”.Incorrect
Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
Principle 2 – accuracy and duration of retention of personal data
Principle 3 – use of personal data
Principle 5 is “information to be generally available”, but not ” information to be generally available to the public”.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.2
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Question 696 of 770
696. Question
1 pointsQID1146:Under the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance, the subject is entitled to which of the following rights?
I. The subject shall be notified about the purpose of collection of personal data.
II. The subject’s personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for any purpose other than that for which it was collected or a directly related purpose
III. The data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject are held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object.
IV. The subject’s personal data shall not be collected unless lawfully and fairly collected for a lawful purpose directly related to a function or activity of the data user, the collection is necessary for or directly related to that purpose and the data is not excessive for the purpose.Correct
(a) Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
(i) Personal data shall not be collected unless for a lawful purpose directly related to a function or activity of the data user, and unless the collection is necessary for or directly related to that purpose and the data is not excessive for the purpose.
(ii) Where the data is collected from the data subject, he should be informed, at the prescribed times, of the purpose for which the data is to be used, the classes of persons to whom the data may be transferred and of his rights to access and to request the correction of the data.
(c) Principle 3 – use of personal data
Personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for a new purpose.
(f) Principle 6 – access to personal data
A data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject is held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data, and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object to the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.Incorrect
(a) Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
(i) Personal data shall not be collected unless for a lawful purpose directly related to a function or activity of the data user, and unless the collection is necessary for or directly related to that purpose and the data is not excessive for the purpose.
(ii) Where the data is collected from the data subject, he should be informed, at the prescribed times, of the purpose for which the data is to be used, the classes of persons to whom the data may be transferred and of his rights to access and to request the correction of the data.
(c) Principle 3 – use of personal data
Personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for a new purpose.
(f) Principle 6 – access to personal data
A data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject is held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data, and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object to the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.2
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Question 697 of 770
697. Question
1 pointsQID2838:The data protection principles set out in the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) do not include
Correct
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy of Personal Data and Retention Period
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataIncorrect
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy of Personal Data and Retention Period
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataHint
Reference Chapter:1.7.2
-
Question 698 of 770
698. Question
1 pointsQID504:What of the following is not a principle of the PDPO?
Correct
Option C, Functionality, is not a principle stated in the Schedule 1 of the PDPO.
Incorrect
Option C, Functionality, is not a principle stated in the Schedule 1 of the PDPO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.2
-
Question 699 of 770
699. Question
1 pointsQID503:Which of the following is NOT one of the 6 principles set in the
Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance?Correct
Option C, Manner of saving personal data, is not a principle stated in the Schedule 1 of the PDPO.
Incorrect
Option C, Manner of saving personal data, is not a principle stated in the Schedule 1 of the PDPO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.2
-
Question 700 of 770
700. Question
1 pointsQID2471:Which institution should banks apply for a license or register if they want to engage in futures trading business?
Correct
Banks should register from the SFC rather than applying for a license if they want to engage in futures trading business. Futures trading is a Type 2 regulated activity.
Incorrect
Banks should register from the SFC rather than applying for a license if they want to engage in futures trading business. Futures trading is a Type 2 regulated activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.7.6
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Question 701 of 770
701. Question
1 pointsQID493:The MLGN specifies which of the following procedures and objectives?
I. The need for awareness and vigilance
II. The setting up of a system to report suspicious transactions
III. Requiring intermediaries to adopt a risk-based approach in their customer due diligence process
IV. Requiring intermediaries to adopt a merit-based approach in conducting account opening activitiesCorrect
An RBA to assessing ML/TF risks associated with different types of customers (including business relationships or transactions) means that CDD should be subject to enhanced measures for higher-risk customers, and may be simplified for lower-risk customers.
Incorrect
An RBA to assessing ML/TF risks associated with different types of customers (including business relationships or transactions) means that CDD should be subject to enhanced measures for higher-risk customers, and may be simplified for lower-risk customers.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.
-
Question 702 of 770
702. Question
1 pointsQID2874:Which of the following description about the Financial Action Task Force (“FATF”) is wrong?
Correct
Financial Action Task Force (“FATF”) is designed to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing. Hong Kong is a member of the organisation, and is obliged to implement the relevant requirements.
Incorrect
Financial Action Task Force (“FATF”) is designed to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing. Hong Kong is a member of the organisation, and is obliged to implement the relevant requirements.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.1
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Question 703 of 770
703. Question
1 pointsQID1683:Mr Ko, a client of Kaoxiong Securities is a gang member. Mr Ko’s income sources may originate from drug related activities. Under which of the scenario that Kaoxiong handles Mr Ko’s assets should be considered a crime??
I. The acceptance of Mr Ko’s cash asset
II. Buying and selling securities for Mr Ko
III. Transferring securities for Mr. Ko
IV. Storing securities for Mr. KoCorrect
The DTRPO makes it an offence to deal with property that is known or believed to be the proceeds of drug trafficking. Dealing includes:
(a) receiving or acquiring the property;
(b) concealing or disguising the property;
(c.)disposing of or converting the property;
(d) moving it in or out of Hong Kong; and/or
(e.) using the property to borrow money or as security.Incorrect
The DTRPO makes it an offence to deal with property that is known or believed to be the proceeds of drug trafficking. Dealing includes:
(a) receiving or acquiring the property;
(b) concealing or disguising the property;
(c.)disposing of or converting the property;
(d) moving it in or out of Hong Kong; and/or
(e.) using the property to borrow money or as security.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.10
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Question 704 of 770
704. Question
1 pointsQID2690:Ms. Lam, a private investor, is requested by the SFC to assist in an investigation under the SFO. Which of the following statements about her obligations and potential legal consequences is correct?
Correct
Under the SFO, the SFC is authorized to investigate any person and to require assistance in these investigations.A person is guilty of an offense if, without reasonable excuse, they fail to comply with the requests of an investigator, or if they provide a response that is false or misleading. Such offenses can lead to criminal prosecution.
Incorrect
Under the SFO, the SFC is authorized to investigate any person and to require assistance in these investigations.A person is guilty of an offense if, without reasonable excuse, they fail to comply with the requests of an investigator, or if they provide a response that is false or misleading. Such offenses can lead to criminal prosecution.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.13
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Question 705 of 770
705. Question
1 pointsQID2941:Which role is responsible for the Anti-Money Laundering / Counter-Terrorist Financing (AML/CFT) Systems of a licensed corporation?
Correct
The compliance officer should be responsible for the AML/CFT Systems of a licensed corporation.
Incorrect
The compliance officer should be responsible for the AML/CFT Systems of a licensed corporation.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.16
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Question 706 of 770
706. Question
1 pointsQID2940:Who needs to approve the AML/CFT Systems of a Licensed corporation?
Correct
The system needs to be approved by senior management.
Incorrect
The system needs to be approved by senior management.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.17
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Question 707 of 770
707. Question
1 pointsQID2562:the United Nations Anti-Terrorism Measures Ordinance is primarily concered with:
Correct
UNATMO is primarily concerned with inhibiting the financing of terrorist activities pursuant to implementing decisions made by the United Nations Security Council Resolutions(“UNSCRs”).
Incorrect
UNATMO is primarily concerned with inhibiting the financing of terrorist activities pursuant to implementing decisions made by the United Nations Security Council Resolutions(“UNSCRs”).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.17
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Question 708 of 770
708. Question
1 pointsQID480:Order handling procedures do NOT cover:
Correct
Order handling procedures should cover:
(a) the recording and immediate time stamping of records of orders for clients and other
orders (such as house or staff orders);
(b) checks on the availability of funds or credit (for buy orders) and stocks (for sell orders);
(c) checks on any special instructions relating to the particular client, such as the operating authority and limits on the person placing an order;
(d) circumstances in which client orders may be delayed or withheld; and
(e) procedures for passing orders to the dealing room, including giving sufficient details to ensure client priority; and, where practicable, assigning responsibility for allocating client orders to independent senior staff.Option C is not included in the section of Dealing Practices stated on the ICG.
Incorrect
Order handling procedures should cover:
(a) the recording and immediate time stamping of records of orders for clients and other
orders (such as house or staff orders);
(b) checks on the availability of funds or credit (for buy orders) and stocks (for sell orders);
(c) checks on any special instructions relating to the particular client, such as the operating authority and limits on the person placing an order;
(d) circumstances in which client orders may be delayed or withheld; and
(e) procedures for passing orders to the dealing room, including giving sufficient details to ensure client priority; and, where practicable, assigning responsibility for allocating client orders to independent senior staff.Option C is not included in the section of Dealing Practices stated on the ICG.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.18
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Question 709 of 770
709. Question
1 pointsQID197:Which of the following descriptions about associated entities is correct?
Correct
An associated entity of an intermediary includes overseas incorporated companies that have established a place of business in Hong Kong.
An associated entity of an intermediary cannot conduct any other business unless authorised in writing by the SFC (this requirement does not apply in the case of AFIs).Incorrect
An associated entity of an intermediary includes overseas incorporated companies that have established a place of business in Hong Kong.
An associated entity of an intermediary cannot conduct any other business unless authorised in writing by the SFC (this requirement does not apply in the case of AFIs).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.19
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Question 710 of 770
710. Question
1 pointsQID2608:Kaohsiung asset management manages portfolios of securities and futures for Wen Bin tradings. Recently, Kaohsiung securities found that there may be tons of chemicals used to produce chemical weapons in the warehouse of Wen Bin. What should Kaohsiung securities do?
Correct
There is a huge flaw in this question. Actually, A and D can both be the answer. However, the Weapons of Mass Destruction (Control of Provision of Services) Ordinance, answer D, can be the more specific words which is more suitable for exams. Therefore, the answer is D. The correct procedure is to investigate first. There is no problem if there is a reasonable explanation. If there is a problem, they can report to the officials.
Incorrect
There is a huge flaw in this question. Actually, A and D can both be the answer. However, the Weapons of Mass Destruction (Control of Provision of Services) Ordinance, answer D, can be the more specific words which is more suitable for exams. Therefore, the answer is D. The correct procedure is to investigate first. There is no problem if there is a reasonable explanation. If there is a problem, they can report to the officials.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.20
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Question 711 of 770
711. Question
1 pointsQID492:Kaohsiung Securities is a licensed corporation. An employee of Kaohsiung Securities, Mr. Ko, suspects a client, Seven Blessings Jewellery, of money laundering. According to the Anti-Money Laundering Ordinance (AMLO), Drug Trafficking Recovery of Proceeds (DTRPO), Organized and Serious Crimes Ordinance (OSCO), and the United Nations Anti-Terrorism Measures Ordinance (UNATMO), in which of the following situations is Kaohsiung Securities considered to have “handled” Seven Blessings Jewellery’s laundered money?
I. When accepting Seven Blessings Jewellery’s deposits.
II. When carrying out futures trading for Seven Blessings Jewellery.
III. When providing Seven Blessings Jewellery with advice on corporate finance services.
IV. When transferring money overseas for Seven Blessings Jewellery.Correct
The DTRPO makes it an offence to deal with property that is known or believed to be the
proceeds of drug trafficking. Dealing includes:
(a) receiving or acquiring the property;
(b) concealing or disguising the property;
© disposing of or converting the property;
(d) moving it in or out of Hong Kong; and/or
€ using the property to borrow money or as security.Incorrect
The DTRPO makes it an offence to deal with property that is known or believed to be the
proceeds of drug trafficking. Dealing includes:
(a) receiving or acquiring the property;
(b) concealing or disguising the property;
© disposing of or converting the property;
(d) moving it in or out of Hong Kong; and/or
€ using the property to borrow money or as security.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.22
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Question 712 of 770
712. Question
1 pointsQID2851:The order of stages of money laundering is
Correct
The stages of money laundering start with ‘Placement,’ where illicit funds are introduced into the financial system. This is followed by ‘Layering,’ where the funds are separated from their source through complex transactions to obscure the audit trail. The final stage is ‘Integration,’ where the laundered money is made to appear legitimate and reintegrated into the financial system.
Incorrect
The stages of money laundering start with ‘Placement,’ where illicit funds are introduced into the financial system. This is followed by ‘Layering,’ where the funds are separated from their source through complex transactions to obscure the audit trail. The final stage is ‘Integration,’ where the laundered money is made to appear legitimate and reintegrated into the financial system.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.26
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Question 713 of 770
713. Question
1 pointsQID2942:When designing its AML/CFT Systems, what four main risk factors should a Licensed Corporation consider?
Correct
When designing its AML/CFT Systems, a Licensed Corporation should fully consider the following four main risk factors:
I. Country risk
II. Customer risk
III. Product/service/transaction risk
IV. Delivery/distribution channel risk.Incorrect
When designing its AML/CFT Systems, a Licensed Corporation should fully consider the following four main risk factors:
I. Country risk
II. Customer risk
III. Product/service/transaction risk
IV. Delivery/distribution channel risk.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.29
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Question 714 of 770
714. Question
1 pointsQID822:Is non-face-to-face account opening acceptable to an intermediary?
Correct
If the account opening documents are not executed in the presence of an employee of the licensed or registered person, the true and full identity of a client can be satisfied by certification by other persons, using certification services that are recognised by the Electronic Transactions Ordinance, encashing a cheque issued by the client and onboarding the client online.
Incorrect
If the account opening documents are not executed in the presence of an employee of the licensed or registered person, the true and full identity of a client can be satisfied by certification by other persons, using certification services that are recognised by the Electronic Transactions Ordinance, encashing a cheque issued by the client and onboarding the client online.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.29
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Question 715 of 770
715. Question
1 pointsQID2798:Which agency should an intermediary report to if they suspect a client of money laundering?
Correct
If intermediaries suspect clients of money laundering, they should report to the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit.
Incorrect
If intermediaries suspect clients of money laundering, they should report to the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.32
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Question 716 of 770
716. Question
1 pointsQID3709:What is the primary role of the Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) in a licensed corporation or virtual asset service provider under Hong Kong’s regulatory regime?
Correct
Under Hong Kong’s regulatory regime, the Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) has a critical role in ensuring compliance with AML/CFT regulations. The MLRO serves as the central point of reference within the organization for the reporting of suspicious transactions related to money laundering or terrorist financing, facilitating effective communication and compliance with regulatory requirements.
Incorrect
Under Hong Kong’s regulatory regime, the Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) has a critical role in ensuring compliance with AML/CFT regulations. The MLRO serves as the central point of reference within the organization for the reporting of suspicious transactions related to money laundering or terrorist financing, facilitating effective communication and compliance with regulatory requirements.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.34
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Question 717 of 770
717. Question
1 pointsQID2554:Miss. Sie is a manager at Kaohsiung Securities. Miss Peng is planning to open an account at Kaohsiung Securities. According to the risk-based principles, Miss Sie should:
Correct
According to risk-based principles, customer due diligence should be subject to enhanced measures for higher-risk customers, and may be simplified for lower-risk customers.
Incorrect
According to risk-based principles, customer due diligence should be subject to enhanced measures for higher-risk customers, and may be simplified for lower-risk customers.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.36
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Question 718 of 770
718. Question
1 pointsQID767:Which of the following is a measure suggested by the Prevention of Money Laundering and Terrorist Financing Guideline issued by the Securities and Futures Commission to tackle money laundering?
Correct
Licensed corporations should adopt a risk-based approach in their CDD process. This means that an enhanced CDD process is adopted for higher-risk categories of customers, business relationships or transactions. Conversely, a simplified CDD process may be adopted for lower-risk categories of customers, business relationships or transactions.
Incorrect
Licensed corporations should adopt a risk-based approach in their CDD process. This means that an enhanced CDD process is adopted for higher-risk categories of customers, business relationships or transactions. Conversely, a simplified CDD process may be adopted for lower-risk categories of customers, business relationships or transactions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.36
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Question 719 of 770
719. Question
1 pointsQID496:Which of the following persons is more suspicious or more likely to have the opportunity to engage in money laundering activities?
Correct
GAML provides a list of situations that might give rise to a suspicion of money laundering activity, including the following:
(i) buying and selling activities which are unusual or have no obvious purpose; and
(ii) frequent transactions in small amounts, purchased in cash and then sold in one transaction with proceeds paid to a third party.Incorrect
GAML provides a list of situations that might give rise to a suspicion of money laundering activity, including the following:
(i) buying and selling activities which are unusual or have no obvious purpose; and
(ii) frequent transactions in small amounts, purchased in cash and then sold in one transaction with proceeds paid to a third party.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.37
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Question 720 of 770
720. Question
1 pointsQID2590:When client wishes to open an account by non-face-to-face method and is about to sign the client agreement, which of the following ways is the most appropriate?
Correct
When there is a non-face-to-face account opening, the intermediary should specifically direct the client’s attention to the risk disclosure statements delivered along.
Incorrect
When there is a non-face-to-face account opening, the intermediary should specifically direct the client’s attention to the risk disclosure statements delivered along.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.37
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Question 721 of 770
721. Question
1 pointsQID938:A client has acquired a large number of Vitamilk shares through Kaohsiung Securities and then dispose the shares a few days later. The client then instructed Kaohsiung Securities to transfer the proceedings of the disposal of Vitamilk shares to a third party. This series of actions are more likely to be
Correct
These activities seem to be a cover-up of the source of funds, which may be an act of money laundering.
Incorrect
These activities seem to be a cover-up of the source of funds, which may be an act of money laundering.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.37
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Question 722 of 770
722. Question
1 pointsQID2702:In the process of due diligence and risk assessment, the client’s nationality, citizenship, resident status, place of registration, and business establishment are analyzed. What risks are the analysis looking at?
Correct
In the process of due diligence and risk assessment, the nationality, citizenship, resident status, place of registration, and business establishment of the client are analyzed, mainly for analysing country risks.
Incorrect
In the process of due diligence and risk assessment, the nationality, citizenship, resident status, place of registration, and business establishment of the client are analyzed, mainly for analysing country risks.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.37
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Question 723 of 770
723. Question
1 pointsQID2854:What do intermediaries need to pay special attention to when dealing with clients to prevent activities like money laundering?
I. Stricter scrutiny of high-risk customers
II. Learn the client’s background such as whether they are political figures
III. Consider whether the client is engaged in high-risk business activities
IV. For overseas clients, video conference must be used to verify their identitiesCorrect
Intermediaries are required to assess ML/TF risks by applying a risk-based approach. High-risk customers should be subject to enhanced measures, while lower-risk customers may be subject to simplified measures. For overseas clients, video conferences cannot be used to verify their identities. Instead, the identities should be confirmed using reliable documents provided by a governmental body or a relevant authority in accordance with the regulations, in accordance with regulations.
Incorrect
Intermediaries are required to assess ML/TF risks by applying a risk-based approach. High-risk customers should be subject to enhanced measures, while lower-risk customers may be subject to simplified measures. For overseas clients, video conferences cannot be used to verify their identities. Instead, the identities should be confirmed using reliable documents provided by a governmental body or a relevant authority in accordance with the regulations, in accordance with regulations.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.37
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Question 724 of 770
724. Question
1 pointsQID1360:Which of the following are possible traits of money laundering activities?
I. Large or unusual trading in securities under anonymous identities.
II. Transfer a large amount of cash and funds to settle payments for overseas residential property.
III. Buying the Hang Seng Index Futures and selling shares of similar value simultaneously.
IV. Client refusing to provide explanation for its financial transactions.Correct
Chapter 7, GAML provides a list of situations that might give rise to suspicion of money laundering activity, including those set out below. The list is not exhaustive and licensed corporations need to be alert to their responsibilities under applicable legislation and regulations.
(c.) Settlement/custody/transfers-related
(i) large or unusual settlements in cash or bearer form, or dealings only in cash or cash equivalentsIncorrect
Chapter 7, GAML provides a list of situations that might give rise to suspicion of money laundering activity, including those set out below. The list is not exhaustive and licensed corporations need to be alert to their responsibilities under applicable legislation and regulations.
(c.) Settlement/custody/transfers-related
(i) large or unusual settlements in cash or bearer form, or dealings only in cash or cash equivalentsHint
Reference Chapter:1.8.37
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Question 725 of 770
725. Question
1 pointsQID1361:Under the Money Laundering and Terrorist Financing Guidelines issued by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC), which of the following are classified as suspicious transactions?
I. Substantial amounts of money are noted to be passing in both directions through an account in respect of property deals in Australia, Canada and the United Kingdom.
II. The matching of buys and sells in particular instruments giving the illusion of trading.
III. The holding of substantial funds in an account with a licensed corporation which are not being used for trading.
IV. A client wishes to deal only in cash or cash equivalents rather than through banking channelsCorrect
GAML provides a list of situations that might give rise to suspicion of money laundering activity, including those set out below.
(c) selected indicators of market manipulation and insider dealing;
(d) related to deposits of securities;
€ related to settlement and movement of funds and securities:
(i) large or unusual settlements in cash or bearer form, or dealings only in cash or cash equivalents;
(ii) holding of idle funds by a client, which are not used to trade, with the licensed corporation and licensed VAS provider; and
(iii) frequent fund transfers or cheque payments to or from unverified third parties or those difficult to verifyIncorrect
GAML provides a list of situations that might give rise to suspicion of money laundering activity, including those set out below.
(c) selected indicators of market manipulation and insider dealing;
(d) related to deposits of securities;
€ related to settlement and movement of funds and securities:
(i) large or unusual settlements in cash or bearer form, or dealings only in cash or cash equivalents;
(ii) holding of idle funds by a client, which are not used to trade, with the licensed corporation and licensed VAS provider; and
(iii) frequent fund transfers or cheque payments to or from unverified third parties or those difficult to verifyHint
Reference Chapter:1.8.37
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Question 726 of 770
726. Question
1 pointsQID494:Which of the following may be a suspicious circumstance in relation to money laundering?
Correct
Appendix B to the GAML provides a
non-exhaustive list of illustrative situations that might give rise to such suspicion. Appendix B provides for six main categories of activity:
(a) customer-related:
(i) customer requests for investment management services where the sources of their
funds are unclear or inconsistent with the customer’s financial background; and
(ii) the opening of multiple accounts with the same beneficial owners or controlling
parties which are unusual;
(b) trading-related:
(i) buying and selling activities which are unusual or have no obvious purpose; and
(ii) frequent transactions in small amounts, purchased in cash and then sold in one
transaction with proceeds paid to a third party;
(c) selected indicators of market manipulation and insider dealing;
(d) related to deposits of securities;
(e) related to settlement and movement of funds and securities:
(i) large or unusual settlements in cash or bearer form, or dealings only in cash or cash equivalents;
(ii) holding of idle funds by a client, which are not used to trade, with the licensed corporation and licensed VAS provider; and
(iii) frequent fund transfers or cheque payments to or from unverified third parties or those difficult to verify; and
(f) employee related:
(i) changes in the life-style of an employee without reasonable cause, e.g. high spending or not taking holidays;
(ii) unusual or unexpected increase in the sales performance of an employee; and
(iii) the use of forwarding addresses for clients, such as those of staff or persons connected with staff.Incorrect
Appendix B to the GAML provides a
non-exhaustive list of illustrative situations that might give rise to such suspicion. Appendix B provides for six main categories of activity:
(a) customer-related:
(i) customer requests for investment management services where the sources of their
funds are unclear or inconsistent with the customer’s financial background; and
(ii) the opening of multiple accounts with the same beneficial owners or controlling
parties which are unusual;
(b) trading-related:
(i) buying and selling activities which are unusual or have no obvious purpose; and
(ii) frequent transactions in small amounts, purchased in cash and then sold in one
transaction with proceeds paid to a third party;
(c) selected indicators of market manipulation and insider dealing;
(d) related to deposits of securities;
(e) related to settlement and movement of funds and securities:
(i) large or unusual settlements in cash or bearer form, or dealings only in cash or cash equivalents;
(ii) holding of idle funds by a client, which are not used to trade, with the licensed corporation and licensed VAS provider; and
(iii) frequent fund transfers or cheque payments to or from unverified third parties or those difficult to verify; and
(f) employee related:
(i) changes in the life-style of an employee without reasonable cause, e.g. high spending or not taking holidays;
(ii) unusual or unexpected increase in the sales performance of an employee; and
(iii) the use of forwarding addresses for clients, such as those of staff or persons connected with staff.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.37
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Question 727 of 770
727. Question
1 pointsQID1019:Common characteristics of money laundering are
I. frequent fund transfers to or from unverified third parties
II. Large or unusual settlements in cash or bearer form
III. Holding of large amounts of idle funds that are not used to trade
IV. Consistently profitable dealing records.Correct
Consistently profitable dealing records has little to do with money laundering.
Incorrect
Consistently profitable dealing records has little to do with money laundering.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.37
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Question 728 of 770
728. Question
1 pointsQID498:If an intermediary discovers that a client is a suspicious character or is involved in suspicious transactions, the intermediary is obligated to report his suspicions to which of the following organizations?
I. The Joint Financial Intelligence Unit
II. The police.
III. The Independent Commission Against Corruption.
IV. The customs.Correct
The obligation to report under the DTRPO, OSCO or UNATMO rests with the individual who becomes suspicious of a person, transaction or property. Disclosures of suspicious transactions under the DTRPO, OSCO or UNATMO should be made to the JFIU.
Incorrect
The obligation to report under the DTRPO, OSCO or UNATMO rests with the individual who becomes suspicious of a person, transaction or property. Disclosures of suspicious transactions under the DTRPO, OSCO or UNATMO should be made to the JFIU.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.38
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Question 729 of 770
729. Question
1 pointsQID499:Kaohsiung Securities is a licensed corporation. An employee of Kaohsiung Securities, Mr. Ko, suspects client, Seven Blessings Jewellery, of money laundering. According to the Anti-Money Laundering Ordinance (AMLO), Drug Trafficking Recovery of Proceeds (DTRPO), Organized and Serious Crimes Ordinance (OSCO), and the United Nations Anti-Terrorism Measures Ordinance (UNATMO), in which of the following situations does Kaohsiung Securities possess the opportunity to break the law and commit a foul?
I. Refusing the account before Seven Blessings Jewellery opens an account.
II. Refusing deposits after Seven Blessings Jewellery has opened an account.
III. Regularly monitoring the account after Seven Blessings Jewellery has opened the account, but not making a report to the Joint (Financial) Intelligence Unit before determining that Seven Blessings Jewellery has been laundering money.
IV. Regularly monitoring the account after Seven Blessings Jewellery has opened the account, reporting the matter to the Joint (Financial) Intelligent Unit, and taking the initiative to notify Seven Blessings Jewellery’s person-in-charge about the reported issues.Correct
Once a suspicion has arisen concerning a possible money laundering situation, the need for disclosure should be considered and may require urgent discussions with senior management,
appropriate questioning of the customer, and a review of all information already held about the customer. If suspicion remains and a decision is made to report the matter to the JFIU, it
should be done without delay, by telephone, if necessary.
The licensed corporations or associated entities, their directors and staff must not inform or warn the client when information is disclosed to the JFIU.Incorrect
Once a suspicion has arisen concerning a possible money laundering situation, the need for disclosure should be considered and may require urgent discussions with senior management,
appropriate questioning of the customer, and a review of all information already held about the customer. If suspicion remains and a decision is made to report the matter to the JFIU, it
should be done without delay, by telephone, if necessary.
The licensed corporations or associated entities, their directors and staff must not inform or warn the client when information is disclosed to the JFIU.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.39
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Question 730 of 770
730. Question
1 pointsQID2944:Regarding the measures to deal with suspicious situations, which of the following does a licensed corporation not need to do?
Correct
A licensed corporation should take extra steps in relation to a person purporting to act on behalf of the customer (“PPTA”) (see Note below) regardless of establishing a business relationship or giving instructions on the account once it is established. The licensed corporation should take reasonable measures to verify the identity of the PPTA in the same manner as for a customer, also having regard to an RBA. The PPTA’s authority to act on behalf of the customer should be verified.
Employees of investment banks or asset managers who are formally authorized are usually not considered as persons who appear to be acting on behalf of clients, so licensed corporations do not need to verify their identities.Incorrect
A licensed corporation should take extra steps in relation to a person purporting to act on behalf of the customer (“PPTA”) (see Note below) regardless of establishing a business relationship or giving instructions on the account once it is established. The licensed corporation should take reasonable measures to verify the identity of the PPTA in the same manner as for a customer, also having regard to an RBA. The PPTA’s authority to act on behalf of the customer should be verified.
Employees of investment banks or asset managers who are formally authorized are usually not considered as persons who appear to be acting on behalf of clients, so licensed corporations do not need to verify their identities.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.39
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Question 731 of 770
731. Question
1 pointsQID486:In Hong Kong, which of the following pieces of legislation specifically address money laundering?
I. Anti-Money Laundering Ordinance
II. Drug Trafficking Recovery of Proceeds Ordinance
III. Organized and Serious Crimes Ordinance
IV. World Bank Anti-Terrorism Measures OrdinanceCorrect
The four main pieces of legislation in Hong Kong which specifically address money laundering are: the AMLO, the DTRPO, the OSCO and the UNATMO.
Incorrect
The four main pieces of legislation in Hong Kong which specifically address money laundering are: the AMLO, the DTRPO, the OSCO and the UNATMO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.4
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Question 732 of 770
732. Question
1 pointsQID490:Mr. Wan is an employee at England Construction Securities. He discovers that a client, Miss Chan is suspected of engaging in money-laundering activities. How should Mr. Wan handle the matter?
I. As soon as it is reasonable, report to an authorised officer,.
II. Inform the customer that she is being investigated.
III. If the client is charged with drug-trafficking, restraint and charging orders on the property of the customer can be issued.
IV. Continue with the disposition of assets according to the customer’s instructions without any doubts.Correct
The DTRPO requires any person who knows or suspects that any property relates to drug
trafficking should, as soon as it is reasonable, report to an authorised officer, who may be a
police officer, a customs and excise officer or the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (“JFIU”),
which has been set up and is operated by the Hong Kong Police Force and the Customs and Excise Department. A report can also be made to any person designated for the purpose by the employer. Failure to disclose is an offence, but with the defence that a disclosure was intended with a reasonable excuse for the failure.
The DTRPO also provides for the issuing of restraint and charging orders on the property of a person charged with a drug trafficking offence.Incorrect
The DTRPO requires any person who knows or suspects that any property relates to drug
trafficking should, as soon as it is reasonable, report to an authorised officer, who may be a
police officer, a customs and excise officer or the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (“JFIU”),
which has been set up and is operated by the Hong Kong Police Force and the Customs and Excise Department. A report can also be made to any person designated for the purpose by the employer. Failure to disclose is an offence, but with the defence that a disclosure was intended with a reasonable excuse for the failure.
The DTRPO also provides for the issuing of restraint and charging orders on the property of a person charged with a drug trafficking offence.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.40
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Question 733 of 770
733. Question
1 pointsQID497:How should the situation be handled if a customer is suspected of money laundering?
Correct
Once a suspicion has arisen concerning a possible money laundering situation, the need for disclosure should be considered and may require urgent discussions with senior management,
appropriate questioning of the customer, and a review of all information already held about the customer. If suspicion remains and a decision is made to report the matter to the JFIU, it
should be done without delay, by telephone, if necessary.Incorrect
Once a suspicion has arisen concerning a possible money laundering situation, the need for disclosure should be considered and may require urgent discussions with senior management,
appropriate questioning of the customer, and a review of all information already held about the customer. If suspicion remains and a decision is made to report the matter to the JFIU, it
should be done without delay, by telephone, if necessary.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.40
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Question 734 of 770
734. Question
1 pointsQID489:Miss Miriam Yung is a licensed representative at New Land Securities and she discovered that there was an abnormal activity in her customer, Mr Tsang’s account. She suspects that her customer had used the account for drug-trafficking and other criminal activities. She immediately filled a report with the police. After that, she told her partner, Miss Yancy Ho, about the whole incident, including the progress of the investigation. Based on the above, has Miss Miriam Yung broken the law?
Correct
The DTRPO requires any person who knows or suspects that any property relates to drug
trafficking should, as soon as it is reasonable, report to an authorised officer, who may be a
police officer, a customs and excise officer or the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (“JFIU”),
which has been set up and is operated by the Hong Kong Police Force and the Customs and Excise Department. A report can also be made to any person designated for the purpose by the employer. Failure to disclose is an offence, but with the defence that a disclosure was intended with a reasonable excuse for the failure.
It is also an offence to disclose to another person that a disclosure has been made as above.Incorrect
The DTRPO requires any person who knows or suspects that any property relates to drug
trafficking should, as soon as it is reasonable, report to an authorised officer, who may be a
police officer, a customs and excise officer or the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (“JFIU”),
which has been set up and is operated by the Hong Kong Police Force and the Customs and Excise Department. A report can also be made to any person designated for the purpose by the employer. Failure to disclose is an offence, but with the defence that a disclosure was intended with a reasonable excuse for the failure.
It is also an offence to disclose to another person that a disclosure has been made as above.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.40
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Question 735 of 770
735. Question
1 pointsQID491:American Industrial and Commercial Securities is a licensed corporation. The licensed representative of the company, Mr. Ko, discovers that a client, Mr. Ip, frequently trades high volumes of unknown foreign securities. Mr. Ko suspects that Mr. Ip is engaging in terrorist and money laundering activities. How should Mr. Ko handle the situation?
I. Make a report to the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit personally.
II. He should hold urgent discussions with senior management and carry out appropriate inquiries and reviews of the client’s information they have in hand.
III. Personally conduct an investigation on Mr. Ip, including hiring an independent consultant to understand Mr. Ip’s financial sources and objectives.
IV. Refuse to accept business orders from Mr. Ip and freeze his account.Correct
Once a suspicion has arisen concerning a possible money laundering situation, the need for disclosure should be considered and may require urgent discussions with senior management, appropriate questioning of the customer, and a review of all information already held about the customer. If suspicion remains and a decision is made to report the matter to the JFIU, it should be done without delay, by telephone, if necessary.
Incorrect
Once a suspicion has arisen concerning a possible money laundering situation, the need for disclosure should be considered and may require urgent discussions with senior management, appropriate questioning of the customer, and a review of all information already held about the customer. If suspicion remains and a decision is made to report the matter to the JFIU, it should be done without delay, by telephone, if necessary.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.40
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Question 736 of 770
736. Question
1 pointsQID1358:The GAML suggests that all necessary records of transactions should be retained for at least
Correct
Documentation required to be kept in relation to customers should be kept throughout the
continuance of a business relationship and for at least five years after the end of the relationship. Documents required to be kept in relation to transactions should be kept for at least five years following completion of the transaction, irrespective of whether there is any continuing relationship.Incorrect
Documentation required to be kept in relation to customers should be kept throughout the
continuance of a business relationship and for at least five years after the end of the relationship. Documents required to be kept in relation to transactions should be kept for at least five years following completion of the transaction, irrespective of whether there is any continuing relationship.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.44
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Question 737 of 770
737. Question
1 pointsQID495:“Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorists Financing (Financial Institutions) Ordinance ” and “Anti-Money Laundering Ordinance” require customer documents and information to be kept throughout the business relationship and for which ONE of the following periods after the end of the business relationship?
Correct
Customer documents and information should be kept throughout the business relationship and for a period of five years after the end of the business relationship.
Incorrect
Customer documents and information should be kept throughout the business relationship and for a period of five years after the end of the business relationship.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.44
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Question 738 of 770
738. Question
1 pointsQID2777:Which of the following is not a suspicious transaction of potential money laundering activity?
Correct
It may rather be market misconduct by selling bonds in large quantities with the intent to influence the bond price. It is also related to money laundering in a broad sense. However, the definition of money laundering in this exam is narrower and therefore makes this the best option.
Incorrect
It may rather be market misconduct by selling bonds in large quantities with the intent to influence the bond price. It is also related to money laundering in a broad sense. However, the definition of money laundering in this exam is narrower and therefore makes this the best option.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.46
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Question 739 of 770
739. Question
1 pointsQID2949:Your client frequently conducts small transactions, buying in cash and then selling all at once, but the proceeds from the sale are given to a third party. What kind of suspicious activity might this situation represent?
Correct
This situation depicts a common money laundering pattern, which is to disguise the true nature of the source of funds through frequent small transactions and handing over the funds to a third party.
Incorrect
This situation depicts a common money laundering pattern, which is to disguise the true nature of the source of funds through frequent small transactions and handing over the funds to a third party.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.48
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Question 740 of 770
740. Question
1 pointsQID2943:In the context of combating money laundering and terrorist financing, which of the following situations may be considered suspicious?
Correct
Frequently conducting large transactions, purchasing in cash, and then selling them all at once, but the proceeds from the sale are given to a third party is one of the suspicious situations, which may indicate money laundering or terrorist financing activities.
Incorrect
Frequently conducting large transactions, purchasing in cash, and then selling them all at once, but the proceeds from the sale are given to a third party is one of the suspicious situations, which may indicate money laundering or terrorist financing activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.48
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Question 741 of 770
741. Question
1 pointsQID2945:Under which of the following circumstances might a licensed corporation need to take additional steps to reduce risk?
Correct
When the client makes payments or receives investment returns through a third party, the licensed corporation should develop policies and procedures approved by senior management to reduce the risk of concealing the real beneficial owner or source of funds due to this arrangement.
Incorrect
When the client makes payments or receives investment returns through a third party, the licensed corporation should develop policies and procedures approved by senior management to reduce the risk of concealing the real beneficial owner or source of funds due to this arrangement.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.48
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Question 742 of 770
742. Question
1 pointsQID2946:Under which of the following circumstances might be considered as suspicious transactions, indicating possible money laundering activities?
Correct
The client purchases financial products with cash, then immediately sells them and transfers the funds to a third party, this behavior may be considered as a form of money laundering. Because, this method can convert a large amount of cash into seemingly legitimate transactions, and transfer funds to a third party, further confusing the source of funds. The other options do not clearly show the characteristics of money laundering.
Incorrect
The client purchases financial products with cash, then immediately sells them and transfers the funds to a third party, this behavior may be considered as a form of money laundering. Because, this method can convert a large amount of cash into seemingly legitimate transactions, and transfer funds to a third party, further confusing the source of funds. The other options do not clearly show the characteristics of money laundering.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.48
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Question 743 of 770
743. Question
1 pointsQID2952:Your client requests for investment management services, but the source of their funds is unclear or does not match their financial background. This most likely implies what situation?
Correct
When a client’s source of funds is unclear or does not match their financial situation, this could be a warning sign of money laundering, as they might be trying to hide an illegal source of funds.
Incorrect
When a client’s source of funds is unclear or does not match their financial situation, this could be a warning sign of money laundering, as they might be trying to hide an illegal source of funds.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.48
-
Question 744 of 770
744. Question
1 pointsQID2951:Your client often engages in large cash transactions, which suspicious activity is this behavior most likely to imply?
Correct
Engaging in large cash transactions is a common sign of money laundering, as it can make the source and purpose of the fund flow unclear.
Incorrect
Engaging in large cash transactions is a common sign of money laundering, as it can make the source and purpose of the fund flow unclear.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.48
-
Question 745 of 770
745. Question
1 pointsQID2947:What actions should a licensed corporation take to reduce the risk of concealing the true beneficial owner or source of funds?
Correct
When a client makes payments or receives investment returns through a third party, the licensed corporation should establish policies and procedures approved by senior management to reduce the risk of concealing the true beneficial owner or source of funds due to this arrangement.This measure can ensure that there are clear rules and procedures when dealing with such situations, and the approval by senior management also adds to the authority of this policy.
Incorrect
When a client makes payments or receives investment returns through a third party, the licensed corporation should establish policies and procedures approved by senior management to reduce the risk of concealing the true beneficial owner or source of funds due to this arrangement.This measure can ensure that there are clear rules and procedures when dealing with such situations, and the approval by senior management also adds to the authority of this policy.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.48
-
Question 746 of 770
746. Question
1 pointsQID2950:Your employee’s lifestyle has become extravagant without a reasonable explanation, and at the same time, his/her sales performance has shown an unusual or unexpected increase. What suspicious behavior might this situation imply?
Correct
Significant changes in an employee’s lifestyle without a reasonable explanation, coupled with an abnormal increase in sales performance, may indicate that they are abusing inside information for trading, the employee may be involved in money laundering activities.
Incorrect
Significant changes in an employee’s lifestyle without a reasonable explanation, coupled with an abnormal increase in sales performance, may indicate that they are abusing inside information for trading, the employee may be involved in money laundering activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.48
-
Question 747 of 770
747. Question
1 pointsQID2953:What is a respondent institution?
Correct
The “respondent institution” appoints another financial institution (known as the “agent institution”) to carry out specific financial services on its behalf.
A licensed corporation that provides services for dealing in securities, futures contracts, or leveraged foreign exchange trading for a financial institution located outside of Hong Kong becomes the “agent institution,” and the overseas financial institution is the “respondent institution.”
While providing services, the agent institution should adhere to local regulations and policies of its jurisdiction.Incorrect
The “respondent institution” appoints another financial institution (known as the “agent institution”) to carry out specific financial services on its behalf.
A licensed corporation that provides services for dealing in securities, futures contracts, or leveraged foreign exchange trading for a financial institution located outside of Hong Kong becomes the “agent institution,” and the overseas financial institution is the “respondent institution.”
While providing services, the agent institution should adhere to local regulations and policies of its jurisdiction.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.52
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Question 748 of 770
748. Question
1 pointsQID2954:Why does a licensed corporation need to undertake additional steps when providing services to a “respondent institution”?
Correct
Additional review steps are necessary because the information available about the relevant clients and/or transactions is often limited.
Incorrect
Additional review steps are necessary because the information available about the relevant clients and/or transactions is often limited.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.52
-
Question 749 of 770
749. Question
1 pointsQID2955:What additional steps should be taken when dealing with cross-border correspondent relationships?
Correct
Additional steps could include implementing stricter identity verification and due diligence measures to prevent fraud and money laundering activities.
Incorrect
Additional steps could include implementing stricter identity verification and due diligence measures to prevent fraud and money laundering activities.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.52
-
Question 750 of 770
750. Question
1 pointsQID2948:When a licensed corporation establishes a cross-border correspondent relationship with a foreign financial institution, which of the following actions can simplify its additional due diligence measures and reduce risks?
Correct
Relying on the group-level AML/CFT Systems can help the licensed corporation simplify the due diligence on foreign financial institutions and reduce the potential risks they may face.
Incorrect
Relying on the group-level AML/CFT Systems can help the licensed corporation simplify the due diligence on foreign financial institutions and reduce the potential risks they may face.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.53
-
Question 751 of 770
751. Question
1 pointsQID2956:Which type of financial institution is not allowed to establish a cross-border correspondent relationship?
Correct
A financial institution that does not have a physical presence in the authorized jurisdiction is not allowed to establish a cross-border correspondent relationship.
Incorrect
A financial institution that does not have a physical presence in the authorized jurisdiction is not allowed to establish a cross-border correspondent relationship.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.54
-
Question 752 of 770
752. Question
1 pointsQID2609:As a relevant authority of the Anti-Money Laundering Ordinances, what’s the power of the Hong Kong Monetary Authority?
Correct
As relevant authorities, the Hong Kong Monetary Authority and the Securities and Futures Commission can investigate and prosecute financial institutions monitored by relevant authorities who violates the rules of the Anti-Money Laundering Ordinances.
Incorrect
As relevant authorities, the Hong Kong Monetary Authority and the Securities and Futures Commission can investigate and prosecute financial institutions monitored by relevant authorities who violates the rules of the Anti-Money Laundering Ordinances.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.6
-
Question 753 of 770
753. Question
1 pointsQID487:Which of the following are the consequences of violating customer due diligence and recording keeping requirements as imposed by the “Anti-Money Laundering Ordinance” (AMLO)?
I. Punishable by imprisonment.
II. Punishable by fine.
III. Being publicly criticised.
IV. Rendering a licensed corporation or registered institution to be subjected to regulatory discipline.Correct
A breach of AMLO is a criminal offence punishable by up to a fine of HK$1 million and
imprisonment for two years. Where there is an intent to defraud a relevant authority (such as
the HKMA or SFC), the maximum term of imprisonment is increased to seven years. A breach of AMLO will also render a licensed corporation, registered institution or licensed VAS
provider subject to regulatory discipline.Incorrect
A breach of AMLO is a criminal offence punishable by up to a fine of HK$1 million and
imprisonment for two years. Where there is an intent to defraud a relevant authority (such as
the HKMA or SFC), the maximum term of imprisonment is increased to seven years. A breach of AMLO will also render a licensed corporation, registered institution or licensed VAS
provider subject to regulatory discipline.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.8.8
-
Question 754 of 770
754. Question
1 pointsQID3682:What does the SFC consider a more severe sanction than a reprimand when exercising its fining powers?
Correct
The SFC regards a fine as a more severe sanction than a reprimand, indicating that it is a more significant disciplinary action.
Incorrect
The SFC regards a fine as a more severe sanction than a reprimand, indicating that it is a more significant disciplinary action.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.
-
Question 755 of 770
755. Question
1 pointsQID2741:What kind of punishment is less likely to be imposed by the SFC for a licensed corporation or registered institution that violates the guidelines and standards?
Correct
Imprisonment can only be imposed by a court.
Incorrect
Imprisonment can only be imposed by a court.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.
-
Question 756 of 770
756. Question
1 pointsQID3693:Which of the following scenarios could lead the SFC to impose a fine on a regulated person?
I. The regulated person is found guilty of misconduct.
II. The SFC believes the regulated person is not a fit and proper person.
III. The regulated person has avoided a loss as a result of misconduct.
IV. The regulated person has gained profit as a result of misconduct.Correct
The SFC may impose a fine on a regulated person if they are found guilty of misconduct, are not considered fit and proper, or have gained profit or avoided a loss as a result of misconduct.
Incorrect
The SFC may impose a fine on a regulated person if they are found guilty of misconduct, are not considered fit and proper, or have gained profit or avoided a loss as a result of misconduct.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.
-
Question 757 of 770
757. Question
1 pointsQID3689:Which of the following statements is true regarding the SFC Disciplinary Fining Guidelines?
I. The SFC regards a fine as a more severe sanction than a reprimand.
II. The SFC has defined general considerations for its fining policy and practice.
III. The time taken to resolve the case is a general consideration for fining.
IV. The person’s contribution to the local community is a general consideration for fining.Correct
The SFC regards a fine as a more severe sanction than a reprimand and has defined general considerations for its fining policy and practice. However, the time taken to resolve the case and the person’s contribution to the local community are not included as general considerations in the SFC Disciplinary Fining Guidelines.
Incorrect
The SFC regards a fine as a more severe sanction than a reprimand and has defined general considerations for its fining policy and practice. However, the time taken to resolve the case and the person’s contribution to the local community are not included as general considerations in the SFC Disciplinary Fining Guidelines.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.
-
Question 758 of 770
758. Question
1 pointsQID2794:The penalties that the SFC can impose do not include
Correct
Penalties that the SFC can impose include
I. Public or private reprimands.
II. Revocation or Suspension of Licence.
III. Prohibit the person from applying for a licence or registration.
IV. Require the person to pay HKD 10 million or 3 times any profit gained/loss avoidance. (whichever is greater)Incorrect
Penalties that the SFC can impose include
I. Public or private reprimands.
II. Revocation or Suspension of Licence.
III. Prohibit the person from applying for a licence or registration.
IV. Require the person to pay HKD 10 million or 3 times any profit gained/loss avoidance. (whichever is greater)Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.2
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Question 759 of 770
759. Question
1 pointsQID81:What kind of sanctions can the SFC impose on individuals who violate or breach the code and guidelines of the SFC?
I. Reprimand
II. Imprisonment
III. Suspension of licence
IV. Revocation of licenceCorrect
The SFC has the power to reprimand (privately or publicly), to fine and to suspend or revoke a licence or registration in relation to all or any part of the regulated activities specified on the licence or certificate of registration.
Incorrect
The SFC has the power to reprimand (privately or publicly), to fine and to suspend or revoke a licence or registration in relation to all or any part of the regulated activities specified on the licence or certificate of registration.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.2
-
Question 760 of 770
760. Question
1 pointsQID1578:If the staff of a licensed corporation has violated the SFO, the responsible officer of that licensed corporation is likely to have which of the following consequences?
Correct
If an offence under the SFO committed by a licensed corporation is aided or abetted, counselled or procured by, or committed with the consent or is attributable to the recklessness of, an officer of the corporation, that officer will be guilty of the offence and be punishable accordingly.
Incorrect
If an offence under the SFO committed by a licensed corporation is aided or abetted, counselled or procured by, or committed with the consent or is attributable to the recklessness of, an officer of the corporation, that officer will be guilty of the offence and be punishable accordingly.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.3
-
Question 761 of 770
761. Question
1 pointsQID1641:When considering the imposition of a punishment for the offenders of market misconduct, which of the following factors is considered more serious?
Correct
Certain types of conduct are considered to be more serious, including conduct:
(a) that is intentional or reckless;
(b) that damages the integrity of the market;
(c.) that causes loss or imposes costs on others;
(d) which provides a benefit to the firm or individual engaged in that conduct, or other related persons; and
(e.) that, regarding an anti-money laundering or terrorist financing issue, adversely affects the reputation of Hong Kong as an international financial centre, or facilitates or increases the risks of money laundering or terrorist financing.The following are regarded as less serious and so deserving a lower fine:
(a) negligent conduct;
(b) conduct which only leads to technical breaches of a regulatory requirement in that it:
(i) causes little or no damage to market integrity; and
(ii) causes little or no loss to, or imposes little or no costs on, others; and
(c.) conduct which results in little or no benefit to the firm or person and their related parties.Incorrect
Certain types of conduct are considered to be more serious, including conduct:
(a) that is intentional or reckless;
(b) that damages the integrity of the market;
(c.) that causes loss or imposes costs on others;
(d) which provides a benefit to the firm or individual engaged in that conduct, or other related persons; and
(e.) that, regarding an anti-money laundering or terrorist financing issue, adversely affects the reputation of Hong Kong as an international financial centre, or facilitates or increases the risks of money laundering or terrorist financing.The following are regarded as less serious and so deserving a lower fine:
(a) negligent conduct;
(b) conduct which only leads to technical breaches of a regulatory requirement in that it:
(i) causes little or no damage to market integrity; and
(ii) causes little or no loss to, or imposes little or no costs on, others; and
(c.) conduct which results in little or no benefit to the firm or person and their related parties.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.3
-
Question 762 of 770
762. Question
1 pointsQID3698:What significant addition has been made to the SFC Disciplinary Fining Guidelines in the latest update?
Correct
The latest update to the SFC Disciplinary Fining Guidelines includes a notable addition: the issuance of Disciplinary Fining Guidelines under Part 5B of the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO), specifically targeting persons licensed under the AMLO’s regime for virtual asset service providers. This update signifies the SFC’s response to the evolving financial landscape, acknowledging the importance of regulatory oversight over the burgeoning sector of virtual assets. Unlike traditional financial services, virtual assets present unique regulatory challenges, necessitating tailored guidelines to ensure compliance and protect investors. This addition reflects the SFC’s commitment to maintaining a robust regulatory framework that encompasses both traditional and emerging financial sectors.
Incorrect
The latest update to the SFC Disciplinary Fining Guidelines includes a notable addition: the issuance of Disciplinary Fining Guidelines under Part 5B of the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO), specifically targeting persons licensed under the AMLO’s regime for virtual asset service providers. This update signifies the SFC’s response to the evolving financial landscape, acknowledging the importance of regulatory oversight over the burgeoning sector of virtual assets. Unlike traditional financial services, virtual assets present unique regulatory challenges, necessitating tailored guidelines to ensure compliance and protect investors. This addition reflects the SFC’s commitment to maintaining a robust regulatory framework that encompasses both traditional and emerging financial sectors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.4
-
Question 763 of 770
763. Question
1 pointsQID3713:What significant addition is made in the new SFC Disciplinary Fining Guidelines according to the latest text?
Correct
A separate set of guidelines under the AMLO for VAS providers has been introduced.
Incorrect
A separate set of guidelines under the AMLO for VAS providers has been introduced.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.4
-
Question 764 of 770
764. Question
1 pointsQID210:According to SFO, which of the following circumstances does the SFC not have the power to suspend or revoke a licence or registration?
Correct
Sections 195 and 197, SFO define other circumstances where disciplinary action may be taken by the SFC, including suspension or revocation of a licence or registration in the event
of:
(c) mental incapacity of individuals or directors.
This case doesn’t apply to shareholders. Unless the shareholder is a licencee.Incorrect
Sections 195 and 197, SFO define other circumstances where disciplinary action may be taken by the SFC, including suspension or revocation of a licence or registration in the event
of:
(c) mental incapacity of individuals or directors.
This case doesn’t apply to shareholders. Unless the shareholder is a licencee.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.4
-
Question 765 of 770
765. Question
1 pointsQID1476:Which of the following is not a specific factor that may be considered by the SFC for fines?
Correct
Some of the specific factors that may be considered include whether:
(a) a breach of fiduciary duty was involved;
(b) the conduct shows serious or systematic weaknesses in the management or internal control systems of the firm;
(c.) the firm, its staff or related parties were benefited from the conduct;
(d) the fine would have the likely effect of jeopardising the continuation of the firm in
business;
€ the firm reported the conduct and cooperated with the SFC;
(f) any remedial steps such as recompensing clients, any disciplinary action taken by the
firm against any staff concerned and any steps taken for preventing recurrences;
(g) the firm or staff have a previous disciplinary record; and
(h) there is a likelihood of other punishment being taken against the firm by other authorities,
or of civil actions being taken by third parties.dIncorrect
Some of the specific factors that may be considered include whether:
(a) a breach of fiduciary duty was involved;
(b) the conduct shows serious or systematic weaknesses in the management or internal control systems of the firm;
(c.) the firm, its staff or related parties were benefited from the conduct;
(d) the fine would have the likely effect of jeopardising the continuation of the firm in
business;
€ the firm reported the conduct and cooperated with the SFC;
(f) any remedial steps such as recompensing clients, any disciplinary action taken by the
firm against any staff concerned and any steps taken for preventing recurrences;
(g) the firm or staff have a previous disciplinary record; and
(h) there is a likelihood of other punishment being taken against the firm by other authorities,
or of civil actions being taken by third parties.dHint
Reference Chapter:1.9.4
-
Question 766 of 770
766. Question
1 pointsQID1477:According to the Disciplinary Fining Guidelines, which ONE of the following matters has the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) indicated as being more serious than the others in determining the scale of the fines that it imposes?
Correct
Certain types of conduct are considered to be more serious, including conduct:
© that causes loss or imposes costs on othersIncorrect
Certain types of conduct are considered to be more serious, including conduct:
© that causes loss or imposes costs on othersHint
Reference Chapter:1.9.4
-
Question 767 of 770
767. Question
1 pointsQID3688:If a virtual asset service provider is fined under the AMLO, which of the following factors is NOT likely to have been considered by the SFC?
Correct
The SFC’s fining policy does not list the provider’s nationality as a consideration. Factors such as the provider’s previous disciplinary record, financial situation, and cooperation during the investigation are likely to have been considered.
Incorrect
The SFC’s fining policy does not list the provider’s nationality as a consideration. Factors such as the provider’s previous disciplinary record, financial situation, and cooperation during the investigation are likely to have been considered.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.6
-
Question 768 of 770
768. Question
1 pointsQID3683:Which of the following considerations will the SFC apply when exercising its fining powers under the SFO and AMLO?
I. The severity of the misconduct
II. The impact on market integrity
III. The licensed person’
s cooperation during the investigation
IV. The nationality of the virtual asset service providerCorrect
The SFC’s fining policy and practice are guided by general considerations such as the severity of the misconduct, the impact on market integrity, and the licensed person’s cooperation during the investigation. The nationality of the virtual asset service provider is not mentioned as a consideration.
Incorrect
The SFC’s fining policy and practice are guided by general considerations such as the severity of the misconduct, the impact on market integrity, and the licensed person’s cooperation during the investigation. The nationality of the virtual asset service provider is not mentioned as a consideration.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.6
-
Question 769 of 770
769. Question
1 pointsQID1479:Apart from less serious disciplinary actions such as public reprimand, how will the SFC handle disciplinary actions?
I. To the financial secretary through a monthly report
II. Placed on a public register in accordance with the SFO
III. To the media
IV. Brought to court immediatelyCorrect
Disciplinary actions, other than minor ones such as private reprimands, will be communicated to the media and placed in a public register under the provisions of the SFO.
Incorrect
Disciplinary actions, other than minor ones such as private reprimands, will be communicated to the media and placed in a public register under the provisions of the SFO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.9.6
-
Question 770 of 770
770. Question
1 pointsQID2449:Rich Securities, a licensed corporation, violates some principles of the Code of Conduct, and they report to the SFC proactively. What will the SFC consider when determining the penalties?
I. Rich Securities proactively report and cooperate.
II. Whether Rich Securities benefits from the violation
III. The remedies of Rich Securities
IV. Past violations of Rich SecuritiesCorrect
When determining penalties, the SFC will consider:
I. whether it violates the fiduciary duties
II. whether there are some flaws in the system or structure
III. whether they benefit from the violation
IV. whether fines will affect the sustainability of the company’s business
V. whether they cooperate with the SFC and report proactively to them
VI. whether there are remedies
VII. whether there are records of disciplines in the past
VIII. whether there are other penalties or the third party is taking civil legal actionsIncorrect
When determining penalties, the SFC will consider:
I. whether it violates the fiduciary duties
II. whether there are some flaws in the system or structure
III. whether they benefit from the violation
IV. whether fines will affect the sustainability of the company’s business
V. whether they cooperate with the SFC and report proactively to them
VI. whether there are remedies
VII. whether there are records of disciplines in the past
VIII. whether there are other penalties or the third party is taking civil legal actionsHint
Reference Chapter:1.9.6
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