English HKSI Paper 2 Topic 1
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 545
1. Question
1 pointsQID780:Which of the following demands have to be satisfied by the wide range of financial products and services available in Hong Kong?
I. Meet demands for investmentII. Employment opportunities for locals
III. Employment opportunities for expatriates
IV. Capital and investment protection
Correct
Hong Kong’s status as an international financial centre is reflected in the wide range of financial products and services available in Hong Kong, developed to meet demands for investment, capital and income formation and capital raising, the facilitation of cash and capital flows, capital and investment protection (for example, hedging), safe custody and security, speculation and insurance. The financial markets also provide an avenue for price discovery and liquidity of investments.
Incorrect
Hong Kong’s status as an international financial centre is reflected in the wide range of financial products and services available in Hong Kong, developed to meet demands for investment, capital and income formation and capital raising, the facilitation of cash and capital flows, capital and investment protection (for example, hedging), safe custody and security, speculation and insurance. The financial markets also provide an avenue for price discovery and liquidity of investments.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.1
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Question 2 of 545
2. Question
1 pointsQID1034:Globalisation and advances in technology have enabled investors to
I. Participate in different markets
II. Arbitrage between markets
III. Arbitrage between products
IV. Increase investment returns by diversifyingCorrect
Globalisation and advances in technology have enabled investors to move rapidly from one market to another, arbitraging between markets, products and transactions.
Incorrect
Globalisation and advances in technology have enabled investors to move rapidly from one market to another, arbitraging between markets, products and transactions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.1
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Question 3 of 545
3. Question
1 pointsQID1:The existence of the financial markets in Hong Kong can satisfy which of the following demands?
I. Meet demands for investment, capitalization and risk management.
II. Meet demands for employment
III. Provide an avenue for price discovery
IV. Provide liquidity for investmentsCorrect
The demands for employment is not a function satisfied by financial market alone, thus is not a primary reason for the existence of the financial markets in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
The demands for employment is not a function satisfied by financial market alone, thus is not a primary reason for the existence of the financial markets in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.1
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Question 4 of 545
4. Question
1 pointsQID1658:Hong Kong Financial Regulatory Regime is
Correct
Hong Kong Financial Regulatory Regime is able to address new and complex financial products.
Incorrect
Hong Kong Financial Regulatory Regime is able to address new and complex financial products.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.1
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Question 5 of 545
5. Question
1 pointsQID785:The SFC regime adopts which of the following regulatory approaches?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 6 of 545
6. Question
1 pointsQID784:A risk-based regulatory system refers to a system in which:
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 7 of 545
7. Question
1 pointsQID783:What approach does the SFC take to regulate market intermediaries?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 8 of 545
8. Question
1 pointsQID787:Which of the following regulatory approach is adopted by the SFC?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 9 of 545
9. Question
1 pointsQID781:The principal regulator of the securities industry in Hong Kong is the
Correct
The SFC was created by law under the Securities and Futures Commission Ordinance (now repealed and subsumed in the SFO). It is independent, meaning that it is not part of the Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government as described in section 2 above.
Incorrect
The SFC was created by law under the Securities and Futures Commission Ordinance (now repealed and subsumed in the SFO). It is independent, meaning that it is not part of the Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government as described in section 2 above.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 10 of 545
10. Question
1 pointsQID786:Which of the following regulatory approaches adopted by the SFC is given more regulatory attention towards the areas where the SFC perceives the highest risks to lie?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 11 of 545
11. Question
1 pointsQID8:Which two of the following philosophies and systems of regulations are commonly used by financial regulators in Hong Kong?
I. Merit Based
II. Sanction Based
III. Disclosure Based
IV. Income BasedCorrect
Sanction Based regulations and Income Based regulations do not exist in Hong Kong. Merit Based regulations is to reduce access to unfavourable investment products or projects by investors. The interest of investors are protected by doing so. Disclosure Based regulations require investment products and projects disclose their strengths and weaknesses maximally, so that investors can make an informed decision.
Incorrect
Sanction Based regulations and Income Based regulations do not exist in Hong Kong. Merit Based regulations is to reduce access to unfavourable investment products or projects by investors. The interest of investors are protected by doing so. Disclosure Based regulations require investment products and projects disclose their strengths and weaknesses maximally, so that investors can make an informed decision.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 12 of 545
12. Question
1 pointsQID782:The SFC is a/an _______ in Hong Kong.
Correct
The SFC was created by law under the Securities and Futures Commission Ordinance (now repealed and subsumed in the SFO). It is independent, meaning that it is not part of the
Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government as described in section 2 above. It is considered the securities and futures market prime regulator.Incorrect
The SFC was created by law under the Securities and Futures Commission Ordinance (now repealed and subsumed in the SFO). It is independent, meaning that it is not part of the
Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government as described in section 2 above. It is considered the securities and futures market prime regulator.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 13 of 545
13. Question
1 pointsQID10:Which system or philosophy of regulations is adopted by the SFC to regulate securities and futures markets?
Correct
SFC adopts a“risk-based”approach towards regulations. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
SFC adopts a“risk-based”approach towards regulations. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 14 of 545
14. Question
1 pointsQID172:Which of the following is an accurate description of Hong Kong’s financial regulatory structure?
Correct
The broad points stated by the Securities Review Committee under Ian Hay Davison were
the need for:
(e) checks and balances on the system, with the exchanges being supervised by a
commission independent of the Government, with the Government only to intervene if
and when the Commission failed to regulate properlyIncorrect
The broad points stated by the Securities Review Committee under Ian Hay Davison were
the need for:
(e) checks and balances on the system, with the exchanges being supervised by a
commission independent of the Government, with the Government only to intervene if
and when the Commission failed to regulate properlyHint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
-
Question 15 of 545
15. Question
1 pointsQID5:Which of the followings is not a service provider in the asset management industry?
Correct
The definition of asset management is to manage securities and futures portfolio or real estate investment trust for others. Auditors do not manage asset; they merely audit as their primary business. Fund managers manage Collective Investment Schemes; that is managing portfolios of securities and futures or real estate trust for a group of people. Therefore they are service providers in the asset management industry. Stockbrokers buy and sell Collective Investments Schemes on behalf of clients and may also manage securities portfolio for clients. Therefore they are service providers in the asset management industry. Independent Financial Advisers (IFA) provides advice on buying and selling Collective Investment Schemes. Therefore they are service providers of the asset management industry.
Incorrect
The definition of asset management is to manage securities and futures portfolio or real estate investment trust for others. Auditors do not manage asset; they merely audit as their primary business. Fund managers manage Collective Investment Schemes; that is managing portfolios of securities and futures or real estate trust for a group of people. Therefore they are service providers in the asset management industry. Stockbrokers buy and sell Collective Investments Schemes on behalf of clients and may also manage securities portfolio for clients. Therefore they are service providers in the asset management industry. Independent Financial Advisers (IFA) provides advice on buying and selling Collective Investment Schemes. Therefore they are service providers of the asset management industry.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.4
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Question 16 of 545
16. Question
1 pointsQID1500:Which of the following are service providers in the asset management industry?
I. Banks
II. Trustees
III. Custodians
IV. Financial PlannersCorrect
Typical service providers include:
(d) banks; (e.) trustees; (f) custodians; (g) financial plannersIncorrect
Typical service providers include:
(d) banks; (e.) trustees; (f) custodians; (g) financial plannersHint
Reference Chapter:1.1.4
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Question 17 of 545
17. Question
1 pointsQID1499:Which of the following are service providers of the Asset Management Industry in Hong Kong?
I. Fund houses
II. Auditors
III. Fund management companies
IV. StockbrokersCorrect
Typical service providers include:
(a) fund houses; (b) fund management companies; (c.) stockbrokersIncorrect
Typical service providers include:
(a) fund houses; (b) fund management companies; (c.) stockbrokersHint
Reference Chapter:1.1.4
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Question 18 of 545
18. Question
1 pointsQID4:Which of the following is a financial service provided by a financial intermediary?
Correct
Financial Intermediaries must be compensated in a financial transaction to be view as providing financial services. Setting up a tutorial company is not providing financial services to a third party because it is not a financial transaction. Managing assets for free is not a financial service since it is not compensated. Signing a rental agreement on behalf of a bank is not a financial service because rental agreement itself is not a financial instrument. Providing loans to others with interest is a form of financial service since it is a service in exchange for compensation in a financial transaction.
Incorrect
Financial Intermediaries must be compensated in a financial transaction to be view as providing financial services. Setting up a tutorial company is not providing financial services to a third party because it is not a financial transaction. Managing assets for free is not a financial service since it is not compensated. Signing a rental agreement on behalf of a bank is not a financial service because rental agreement itself is not a financial instrument. Providing loans to others with interest is a form of financial service since it is a service in exchange for compensation in a financial transaction.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.6
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Question 19 of 545
19. Question
1 pointsQID789:Which of the following are major financial services provided in Hong Kong?
I. Trading securities on behalf of clients on the Stock Exchange of Hong Kong (SEHK).
II. Providing margin financing and accommodation on securities trading
III. Acting as an “introducing agent”
IV. Conducting stock borrowing and lending transactions.Correct
All of these services are provided by Hong Kong financial companies.
Incorrect
All of these services are provided by Hong Kong financial companies.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.6
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Question 20 of 545
20. Question
1 pointsQID790:Which of the following is NOT a major financial service provided in Hong Kong?
Correct
This service is not provided by any Hong Kong financial actor.
Incorrect
This service is not provided by any Hong Kong financial actor.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.6
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Question 21 of 545
21. Question
1 pointsQID2674:Which of the following activity is subject to supervision by the financial regulators?
Correct
Providing a loan and charging interest is a financial actitiy that is subjected to supervision by the financial regulators.
Incorrect
Providing a loan and charging interest is a financial actitiy that is subjected to supervision by the financial regulators.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.7
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Question 22 of 545
22. Question
1 pointsQID791:Which of the following are major providers of securities investment and advisory service in Hong Kong?
I. An intermediary trading securities on the Stock Exchange of Hong Kong Limited (SEHK)
II. An intermediary acting on behalf of a foreign intermediary
III. An underwriter
IV. Insurance companiesCorrect
To conclude this initial definition section, the categories of persons conducting Type 1 regulated activity include:
(a) a participant of the SEHK, whether it engages in activities on the SEHK or outside it;
(b) another securities dealer carrying out dealing in securities in Hong Kong;
(c.) a licensed representative of the above;
(d) an AFI registered with the SFC for this activity (and its staff who deal with the public and are on a register maintained by the HKMA as engaged in such activity);
(e.) a portfolio manager who is licensed (as a securities dealer) for Type 1 regulated activity; and
(f) a securities introducing agent (see section 8.13 below).Incorrect
To conclude this initial definition section, the categories of persons conducting Type 1 regulated activity include:
(a) a participant of the SEHK, whether it engages in activities on the SEHK or outside it;
(b) another securities dealer carrying out dealing in securities in Hong Kong;
(c.) a licensed representative of the above;
(d) an AFI registered with the SFC for this activity (and its staff who deal with the public and are on a register maintained by the HKMA as engaged in such activity);
(e.) a portfolio manager who is licensed (as a securities dealer) for Type 1 regulated activity; and
(f) a securities introducing agent (see section 8.13 below).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.7
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Question 23 of 545
23. Question
1 pointsQID792:Which of the following individuals/institutions is NOT a provider of securities investment and advisory services in Hong Kong?
Correct
Institutional investors are actors but not providers.
Incorrect
Institutional investors are actors but not providers.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.7
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Question 24 of 545
24. Question
1 pointsQID2718:Which of the following is not a common consequence of inadequate corporate governance standards?
Correct
Common consequences of deficit in corporate governance standards:
I. Insider trading and other forms of market misconduct
II. Misfeasance, fraud, and misconduct by directors, managers, and other staff causing losses to the company or shareholders
IV. The price of the connected transaction deviates from the market price, causing losses to the company and shareholdersIncorrect
Common consequences of deficit in corporate governance standards:
I. Insider trading and other forms of market misconduct
II. Misfeasance, fraud, and misconduct by directors, managers, and other staff causing losses to the company or shareholders
IV. The price of the connected transaction deviates from the market price, causing losses to the company and shareholdersHint
Reference Chapter:1.10.10
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Question 25 of 545
25. Question
1 pointsQID629:Under the SFO, the SFC has which of the following regulatory responsibilities in relation to asset management ?
I. Licensing intermediaries
II. Authorizing MPF Schemes
III. Authorizing CISs
IV. Vetting recognized InvestorsCorrect
The functions of the SFC in relation to asset management are two-pronged:
(a) it authorises CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds and retirement schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs; and
(b) it licenses and supervises intermediaries engaged in asset management (Type 9 regulated activity) as well as others engaged in providing advisory services in the industry (Type 4 and Type 5 regulated activities); if they choose to be licensed as dealing in securities and/or futures contracts (Type 1 and/or Type 2 regulated activities), the respective regulatory regime will be applied to them.
The first of these functions is derived from Part IV, SFO and the second from Part V, SFO.Incorrect
The functions of the SFC in relation to asset management are two-pronged:
(a) it authorises CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds and retirement schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs; and
(b) it licenses and supervises intermediaries engaged in asset management (Type 9 regulated activity) as well as others engaged in providing advisory services in the industry (Type 4 and Type 5 regulated activities); if they choose to be licensed as dealing in securities and/or futures contracts (Type 1 and/or Type 2 regulated activities), the respective regulatory regime will be applied to them.
The first of these functions is derived from Part IV, SFO and the second from Part V, SFO.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.11
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Question 26 of 545
26. Question
1 pointsQID350:Which of the following organizations does the SFC need to regulate?
Correct
The functions of the SFC in relation to asset management are two-pronged: One of those functions is to authorise CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds and retirement
schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs.Incorrect
The functions of the SFC in relation to asset management are two-pronged: One of those functions is to authorise CISs, including, for example, unit trusts, managed funds and retirement
schemes, and supervises the marketing of these CISs.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.11
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Question 27 of 545
27. Question
1 pointsQID617:Which of the following entities regulates CISs and supervises the persons’ operating and advising activities?
Correct
Powers granted to the SFC include the power to authorise CISs and structured products for offer to the public as well as advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the public.
Incorrect
Powers granted to the SFC include the power to authorise CISs and structured products for offer to the public as well as advertisements and other documents that contain an offer to the public.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.11
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Question 28 of 545
28. Question
1 pointsQID1243:The SFC performs its regulatory mandate to supervise the industry through which of the following means?
I. Regular inspections, including on-site inspections.
II. Unscheduled inspections, including on-site inspections.
III. Obtaining information from Licensed Corporations (LC)s.
IV. Obtaining information from the Registered Institutions (RI)s.Correct
In furtherance of these aims, the SFC conducts regular inspections of licensed corporations which may be conducted either on-site or via a request for information to be provided. The maintenance of proper documentation is critical in this regard.
Incorrect
In furtherance of these aims, the SFC conducts regular inspections of licensed corporations which may be conducted either on-site or via a request for information to be provided. The maintenance of proper documentation is critical in this regard.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.12
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Question 29 of 545
29. Question
1 pointsQID1508:The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) uses which of the following general principles in regulating asset management?
I. It recognises overseas jurisdictions with acceptable regimes as domiciles for authorised collective investment schemes (CIS).
II. It recognises supervision by specified inspection regimes overseas of management companies located in the respective jurisdictions as acceptable for its purposes.
III. It employs a consultative process involving the industry before making significant regulatory changes.
IV. It seeks to protect the interests of all investors in authorised CIS in Hong Kong and overseas.Correct
Certain jurisdictions are deemed to have rules governing the operations of CISs which are comparable with those in Hong Kong; schemes domiciled in such jurisdictions are RJSs.
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency, particularly among larger asset managers, to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the asset manager’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern.Incorrect
Certain jurisdictions are deemed to have rules governing the operations of CISs which are comparable with those in Hong Kong; schemes domiciled in such jurisdictions are RJSs.
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency, particularly among larger asset managers, to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the asset manager’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.14
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Question 30 of 545
30. Question
1 pointsQID1244:In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements in Hong Kong and overseas jurisdictions, which of the following measures can intermediaries take for better coordination?
I. Engage a dedicated compliance officer to oversee adherence to the compliance manual.
II. Appoint a director to serve as a Compliance Officer to oversee adherence to the compliance manual.
III. Maintain close contact with the regulators.
IV. Complement the manual with well defined operational procedures and practices.Correct
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the securities dealer’s or adviser’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern. In many cases, a dedicated compliance officer is engaged to oversee adherence to the manual, maintain close contact with the regulators and keep abreast of regulatory developments affecting the securities dealer’s or adviser’s business.
Incorrect
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the securities dealer’s or adviser’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern. In many cases, a dedicated compliance officer is engaged to oversee adherence to the manual, maintain close contact with the regulators and keep abreast of regulatory developments affecting the securities dealer’s or adviser’s business.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.14
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Question 31 of 545
31. Question
1 pointsQID1238:To promote, encourage and enforce good compliance practices. Senior management of Licensed Corporations (LC)s and Registered Institutions (RI)s must establish:
I. Good line and reporting structures.
II. Well defined functions and responsibilities.
III. Effective communications channels.
IV. Appropriate transparency and disclosure practices.Correct
Senior management must provide the leadership and drive to promote, encourage and enforce, if necessary, good compliance practices. It must establish:
(a) good line and reporting structures;
(b) clearly defined functions and responsibilities;
(c.) effective communications;
(d) appropriate transparency and disclosure practices.Incorrect
Senior management must provide the leadership and drive to promote, encourage and enforce, if necessary, good compliance practices. It must establish:
(a) good line and reporting structures;
(b) clearly defined functions and responsibilities;
(c.) effective communications;
(d) appropriate transparency and disclosure practices.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.3
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Question 32 of 545
32. Question
1 pointsQID509:Corporate governance refers to the system of by which companies are directed and controlled and concerns which of the following groups of people?
I. Company management.
II. Board of Directors.
III. Shareholders.
IV. Stakeholders.Correct
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Incorrect
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 33 of 545
33. Question
1 pointsQID1684:Good Corporate governance are not required to be responsible for the interest of which of the following
Correct
Good Corporate governance are not required to be responsible for the interest of Former Employees.
Incorrect
Good Corporate governance are not required to be responsible for the interest of Former Employees.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 34 of 545
34. Question
1 pointsQID1237:Which of the following descriptions about corporate governance are correct?
I. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders.
II. The governance issue is also concerned with the system by which companies are directed and controlled.
III. The activities of intermediaries frequently concern listed corporations. Accordingly, in addition to considering their own regulatory and corporate governance position, intermediaries need to be aware of the wider impact of corporate governance on their clients and the market.
IV. Markets which exhibit a higher degree of good corporate governance are regarded as more competitive in the international arena.Correct
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers). The governance issue is therefore also concerned with the system by which companies are directed and controlled.
The activities of intermediaries frequently concern listed corporations. Accordingly, in addition to considering their own regulatory and corporate governance position, intermediaries need to be aware of the wider impact of corporate governance on their clients and the market. It is now generally accepted that investors attach considerable importance to corporate governance when assessing the value of a stock, and that markets which exhibit a higher degree of good corporate governance are regarded as more competitive in the international arena.Incorrect
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers). The governance issue is therefore also concerned with the system by which companies are directed and controlled.
The activities of intermediaries frequently concern listed corporations. Accordingly, in addition to considering their own regulatory and corporate governance position, intermediaries need to be aware of the wider impact of corporate governance on their clients and the market. It is now generally accepted that investors attach considerable importance to corporate governance when assessing the value of a stock, and that markets which exhibit a higher degree of good corporate governance are regarded as more competitive in the international arena.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 35 of 545
35. Question
1 pointsQID1239:Corporate governance describes which of the following relationship?
Correct
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Incorrect
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 36 of 545
36. Question
1 pointsQID2441:A good corporate-governance is not related to which of the following people?
Correct
A good corporate-governance is not related to former employees.
Incorrect
A good corporate-governance is not related to former employees.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 37 of 545
37. Question
1 pointsQID508:Which of the following is NOT included the set of core principles of corporate governance?
Correct
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (“OECD”) has issued a set of core principles of corporate governance practices to include fairness, transparency, accountability and responsibility. Leadership is not one of those principles.
Incorrect
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (“OECD”) has issued a set of core principles of corporate governance practices to include fairness, transparency, accountability and responsibility. Leadership is not one of those principles.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 38 of 545
38. Question
1 pointsQID1242:A company may improve its corporate governance through the following means with the exception of:
Correct
Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of the chairman and chief executive officer, appointment of independent non-executive directors, establishment of independent audit committees, and setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management;
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lendersIncorrect
Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of the chairman and chief executive officer, appointment of independent non-executive directors, establishment of independent audit committees, and setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management;
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lendersHint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 39 of 545
39. Question
1 pointsQID1241:The primary objective of good corporate governance is to:
Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company.
Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 40 of 545
40. Question
1 pointsQID929:Which of the following are not examples of good corporate governance?
I. Set up remuneration committee to control the remuneration of management.
II. Assign the management to multiple roles to cut cost.
III. Offer high degree of discretionary powers to the management to allow them to enhance efficiency.
IV. Install check and balances to limited the power of the managementCorrect
The essence of corporate governance is to enhance transparency and check and balance. The powers of the management should be limited, therefore, installation of check and balances and limiting the management’s remuneration are good practices.
Incorrect
The essence of corporate governance is to enhance transparency and check and balance. The powers of the management should be limited, therefore, installation of check and balances and limiting the management’s remuneration are good practices.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 41 of 545
41. Question
1 pointsQID2676:Whats the objective of SFC requiring the disclosure of rights?
Correct
Disclosure requiremetns are in place to enhance transperancy
Incorrect
Disclosure requiremetns are in place to enhance transperancy
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 42 of 545
42. Question
1 pointsQID1240:Which of the following is NOT a probable measure that can be taken to improve corporate governance?
Correct
It’s not required to protect the interests of the management.
Incorrect
It’s not required to protect the interests of the management.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 43 of 545
43. Question
1 pointsQID2680:Which of the following description does not fit financial regulators in Hong Kong?
Correct
Decisions made by the regulators can be overturned or overruled.
Incorrect
Decisions made by the regulators can be overturned or overruled.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 44 of 545
44. Question
1 pointsQID762:The objectives of segregation of job functions include which of the followings?
I. Avoid conflict of interest.
II. Avoid the omission of errors.
III. Enhance efficiencies of all departments.
IV. Keeping the management power in check.Correct
Incompatible duties and functions should be segregated, particularly those which, when performed by the same person, may provide opportunities for abuse or result in the overlooking of errors, thereby exposing the intermediary and its clients to risks.
Incorrect
Incompatible duties and functions should be segregated, particularly those which, when performed by the same person, may provide opportunities for abuse or result in the overlooking of errors, thereby exposing the intermediary and its clients to risks.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 45 of 545
45. Question
1 pointsQID971:Good corporate governance should separate the functions of
Correct
Good corporate governance should separate the functions of Chairman and CEO.
Incorrect
Good corporate governance should separate the functions of Chairman and CEO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 46 of 545
46. Question
1 pointsQID512:Good governance practices can include which of the following ways?
I. Installing appropriate checks and balances on the board of
directors and senior management.
II. Having sufficient transparency and disclosure of important facts and information to stakeholders.
III. Installing strong protective structures for majority shareholder.
IV. Identifying and penalizing corporate wrongdoing.Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.
(d) identifying and penalising corporate wrongdoing.Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.
(d) identifying and penalising corporate wrongdoing.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 47 of 545
47. Question
1 pointsQID511:Which of the following measures reflect effective corporate governance?
I. Installing appropriate checks and balances.
II. Increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders , stakeholders and the public.
III. Adopting international accounting and auditing standards.
IV. Installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) adopting international accounting and auditing standards;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) adopting international accounting and auditing standards;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 48 of 545
48. Question
1 pointsQID510:Corporate governance includes which of the following features?
I. The recruitment of experienced executive directors who are realistically rewarded to ensure that the business is run
efficiently.
II. The installation of a well regulated structure incorporating close and detailed top managerial supervision of day-to-day
operations of the business.
III. The recruitment of experienced non-executive directors with the objective of ensuring a good balance between executive
and non-executive directors.
IV. Installation of audit and remuneration committees who will ensure independent audits and fair performance geared reward structures.Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of Chairman and CEO; appointment of independent non-executive directors; establishment of independent audit committees; setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management.Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of Chairman and CEO; appointment of independent non-executive directors; establishment of independent audit committees; setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
-
Question 49 of 545
49. Question
1 pointsQID2757:Which of the following is a concept provided by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development that a company can improve the level of corporate governance?
I. Distinguish between the Chief Executive Officer and the Chairman of the Board
II. Enhance transparency disclosure to shareholders and stakeholders
III. Establish a compensation committee to monitor senior management compensation
IV. Establish a robust protection structure for minority shareholders, creditors or other stakeholdersCorrect
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development offers the concept that companies can improve the level of corporate governance by the following methods:
I. Distinguish between the Chief Executive Officer and the Chairman
II. Enhance transparency disclosure to shareholders and stakeholders
III. Establish a compensation committee to monitor senior management compensation
IV. Establish a strong protection structure for minority shareholders, creditors, or other stakeholders
V. Establish an independent audit committee
VI. Identify business misconduct
VII. Adopt international accounting and auditing standardsIncorrect
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development offers the concept that companies can improve the level of corporate governance by the following methods:
I. Distinguish between the Chief Executive Officer and the Chairman
II. Enhance transparency disclosure to shareholders and stakeholders
III. Establish a compensation committee to monitor senior management compensation
IV. Establish a strong protection structure for minority shareholders, creditors, or other stakeholders
V. Establish an independent audit committee
VI. Identify business misconduct
VII. Adopt international accounting and auditing standardsHint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 50 of 545
50. Question
1 pointsQID82:Which of the following correctly describe the power of the SFC?
I. Breaches of the subsidiary legislations of the SFO are not criminal offences
II. Breaches of the subsidiary legislations of the SFO are criminal offences
III. The SFC may refer serious cases to law enforcement agencies such as the Commercial Crimes Bureau (“CCB”) of the Hong Kong Police Force or the Independent Commission Against Corruption (“ICAC”) for investigation and action.
IV. The SFC may also apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets, or from carrying on all or a part of his business, if the SFC can make a case to show that it is in the public interest to issue such an order.Correct
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines:
(a) Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offences and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken; the SFC may refer serious cases to law enforcement agencies such as the Commercial Crimes Bureau (“CCB”) of the Hong Kong Police Force or the Independent Commission Against Corruption (“ICAC”) for investigation and action.
(b) The SFC may also apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets, or from carrying on all or a part of his business, if it can make a case to show that it is in the public interest to issue such an order.Incorrect
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines:
(a) Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offences and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken; the SFC may refer serious cases to law enforcement agencies such as the Commercial Crimes Bureau (“CCB”) of the Hong Kong Police Force or the Independent Commission Against Corruption (“ICAC”) for investigation and action.
(b) The SFC may also apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets, or from carrying on all or a part of his business, if it can make a case to show that it is in the public interest to issue such an order.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.
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Question 51 of 545
51. Question
1 pointsQID888:Can the SFC conduct supervisory inspections on the associated entity of an intermediary?
Correct
The SFC can conduct supervisory inspections on an intermediary or an associated entity of an intermediary.
Incorrect
The SFC can conduct supervisory inspections on an intermediary or an associated entity of an intermediary.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.3
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Question 52 of 545
52. Question
1 pointsQID206:These are key provisions of the SFO that give the SFC considerable powers to investigate, among other things, possible breaches of the SFO, misfeasance and activities not in the public interest. The powers that SFC possesses include which of the followings?
I. SFC can only investigate licenced corporation
II. SFC can require an individual to provide evidence to an investigation, regardless of whether the individual is an intermediary or not.
III. SFC may apply to the court to order a person who does not comply with requirements made by the authorised person or investigator under relevant provisions to do so.
IV. SFC may require an individual under investigation to make a statutory declaration that he is unable to provide the evidence for reasons to be stated, if such is the case.Correct
The SFC may authorise an employee (or another person with the consent of the Financial Secretary) to carry out an investigation. The person so authorised may investigate any person. A person under investigation is required to:
(a) provide documents and explanations;
(e.) make a statutory declaration that he is unable to provide the evidence for reasons to be stated, if such is the case.
The SFC may apply to the court to order a person who does not comply with requirements made by the authorised person or investigator under relevant provisions to do so (s. 185, SFO).Incorrect
The SFC may authorise an employee (or another person with the consent of the Financial Secretary) to carry out an investigation. The person so authorised may investigate any person. A person under investigation is required to:
(a) provide documents and explanations;
(e.) make a statutory declaration that he is unable to provide the evidence for reasons to be stated, if such is the case.
The SFC may apply to the court to order a person who does not comply with requirements made by the authorised person or investigator under relevant provisions to do so (s. 185, SFO).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.3
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Question 53 of 545
53. Question
1 pointsQID1246:Kaohsiung Securities is a licensed corporation, it appears to the SFC that Kaohsiung may be unable to meet the requirements of the FRR. As a result, SFC has started to investigate Kaohsiung Securities, how should Kaohsiung Securities act in satisfying the investigative demands of the SFC?
I. Accept the SFC onsite inspection
II. Provide evidence that it can meet the requirement of the FRR in 5 days.
III. Provide documents and evidence if required by the investigators of the SFC
IV. Instruct the auditor to deal with the SFC on behalf of the companyCorrect
Section 183, SFO requires the person under investigation to:
(a) provide documents and explanations;
(b) attend before the investigator at the time and place the investigator requires in writing and to answer questions;
(d) substantiate his answers, explanations or statements by making a statutory declarationIncorrect
Section 183, SFO requires the person under investigation to:
(a) provide documents and explanations;
(b) attend before the investigator at the time and place the investigator requires in writing and to answer questions;
(d) substantiate his answers, explanations or statements by making a statutory declarationHint
Reference Chapter:1.11.7
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Question 54 of 545
54. Question
1 pointsQID205:The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC), is conducting an investigation on insider trading. Miss Ko, a retail investor, is required to provide information in the course of the investigation. While Miss Ko is not involved in insider trading, is she required to provide information to the SFC?
Correct
There are a number of grounds under which the SFC may carry out an enquiry into a listed company. It has powers to obtain records and documents, explanations and statements on
oath as to why, if such is the case, the information cannot be produced.
The persons who may be subject to the enquiry include:
(e.) any person.Incorrect
There are a number of grounds under which the SFC may carry out an enquiry into a listed company. It has powers to obtain records and documents, explanations and statements on
oath as to why, if such is the case, the information cannot be produced.
The persons who may be subject to the enquiry include:
(e.) any person.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.7
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Question 55 of 545
55. Question
1 pointsQID219:Mdm. Liu is a senior citizen. She is a stock investment enthusiast but suffers losses often. The SFC recently conducted an investigation on a company called Sana Seoi Bean Curd and discovered that Mdm. Liu traded the company’s stocks frequently. Thus, the SFC suspected Mdm. Liu of being involved in acts of market misconduct such as the manipulation of the stock market and requested that she participate in the investigation process. Mdm. Liu had neither knowledge, nor intention of manipulating the stock market. As the SFC investigations were going on for a long time, Mdm. Liu wanted to end the meeting earlier and thus deliberately provided false information perfunctorily to the SFC so as to complete the investigation. Had Mdm. Liu committed an offence according to the Securities and Futures Ordinance?
Correct
A person commits an offence if he provides to the SFC (whether in applications or in other circumstances) false or misleading information as to a material particular knowingly or recklessly as to whether it is false or misleading (ss. 383 and 384, SFO).
Incorrect
A person commits an offence if he provides to the SFC (whether in applications or in other circumstances) false or misleading information as to a material particular knowingly or recklessly as to whether it is false or misleading (ss. 383 and 384, SFO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.8
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Question 56 of 545
56. Question
1 pointsQID207:An employee of the SFC, an authorised person or an investigator may, under which of the following appropriate circumstances, apply to a magistrate for the issue of a warrant?
I. Authorizing specified persons, a police officer and such other persons as may be necessary to assist in the execution of the warrant to enter specified premises, if necessary by force, at any time within 7 days.
II. Requiring any person on the premises to produce any relevant documents.
III. Prohibiting any person to erase or alter or remove any relevant documents.
IV. Authorizing the specified persons to search for, seize and remove any relevant documents.Correct
An employee of the SFC, an authorised person or an investigator may, in appropriate circumstances, apply to a magistrate for the issue of a warrant:
(a) authorising specified persons, a police officer and such other persons as may be necessary to assist in the execution of the warrant to enter specified premises, if necessary by force, at any time within seven days;
(b) requiring any person on the premises to produce any relevant documents;
© prohibiting any person to erase or alter or remove any relevant documents; and
(d) authorising the specified persons to:
(i) search for, seize and remove any relevant documentsIncorrect
An employee of the SFC, an authorised person or an investigator may, in appropriate circumstances, apply to a magistrate for the issue of a warrant:
(a) authorising specified persons, a police officer and such other persons as may be necessary to assist in the execution of the warrant to enter specified premises, if necessary by force, at any time within seven days;
(b) requiring any person on the premises to produce any relevant documents;
© prohibiting any person to erase or alter or remove any relevant documents; and
(d) authorising the specified persons to:
(i) search for, seize and remove any relevant documentsHint
Reference Chapter:1.11.9
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Question 57 of 545
57. Question
1 pointsQID208:The issue of warrant that SFC receives when it applies to the magistrate does NOT include which of the following items of power?
Correct
Six months is the longest period permitted for an order to retain documents established by a regular warrant. Any period beyond that must be requested.
Incorrect
Six months is the longest period permitted for an order to retain documents established by a regular warrant. Any period beyond that must be requested.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.9
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Question 58 of 545
58. Question
1 pointsQID2716:Which of the following may amend what is regulated activity by Gazette?
Correct
The Financial Secretary shall amend by the Gazette what is a regulated activity.
Incorrect
The Financial Secretary shall amend by the Gazette what is a regulated activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.12.
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Question 59 of 545
59. Question
1 pointsQID794:Please rank the importance of the following in descending order
Correct
Ordinances are statutory, rules and guidelines are enforced.
Codes do not have the force of law in Hong Kong but only in other countries.Incorrect
Ordinances are statutory, rules and guidelines are enforced.
Codes do not have the force of law in Hong Kong but only in other countries.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.
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Question 60 of 545
60. Question
1 pointsQID221:What are the powers of the Financial Secretary in relation to securities and CISs?
Correct
Powers are given to the Financial Secretary to prescribe, by notice in the Gazette:
(a) new financial products as being (or not being) securities or futures contracts, and new financial arrangements as CISs, thus capturing new products in the regulatory net as appropriate (ss. 392 and 393, SFO)Incorrect
Powers are given to the Financial Secretary to prescribe, by notice in the Gazette:
(a) new financial products as being (or not being) securities or futures contracts, and new financial arrangements as CISs, thus capturing new products in the regulatory net as appropriate (ss. 392 and 393, SFO)Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.1
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Question 61 of 545
61. Question
1 pointsQID1035:The Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) is the principal legislative document governing which markets in Hong Kong?
Correct
The SFO is the principal legislative document governing the securities market in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
The SFO is the principal legislative document governing the securities market in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.1
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Question 62 of 545
62. Question
1 pointsQID744:Which of the following individuals or entities should adhere to Securities and Futures (Accounts and Audit) Rules?
Correct
The SFC has made the Accounts and Audit Rules specifying the form and contents of financial statements and other documents that licensed corporations and associated entities of intermediaries (both licensed corporations and registered institutions) should prepare and the content of auditors’ reports.
Incorrect
The SFC has made the Accounts and Audit Rules specifying the form and contents of financial statements and other documents that licensed corporations and associated entities of intermediaries (both licensed corporations and registered institutions) should prepare and the content of auditors’ reports.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.1
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Question 63 of 545
63. Question
1 pointsQID1036:Which of the following are the power that the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) empowers the SFC with?
I. The power to introduce subsidiary legislation.
II. The power to issue codes and guidelines.
III. The power to amend the Securities and Futures Ordinance.
IV. The power to revoke the Securities and Futures Ordinance.Correct
Part VII empowers the SFC to make subsidiary legislation (s. 168, SFO) and/or codes (s. 169, SFO).
Incorrect
Part VII empowers the SFC to make subsidiary legislation (s. 168, SFO) and/or codes (s. 169, SFO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.2
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Question 64 of 545
64. Question
1 pointsQID847:The rules issued by the SFC, such as Client Securities Rules, are
Correct
These are some of the Major Subsidiary Legislation:
1.1 Securities and Futures (Financial Resources) Rules
1.2 Securities and Futures (Client Securities) Rules
1.3 Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules
1.4 Securities and Futures (Keeping of Records) Rules
1.5 Securities and Futures (Contract Notes, Statements of Account and Receipts) Rules
1.6 Securities and Futures (Accounts and Audit) Rules,
plus many others.Incorrect
These are some of the Major Subsidiary Legislation:
1.1 Securities and Futures (Financial Resources) Rules
1.2 Securities and Futures (Client Securities) Rules
1.3 Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules
1.4 Securities and Futures (Keeping of Records) Rules
1.5 Securities and Futures (Contract Notes, Statements of Account and Receipts) Rules
1.6 Securities and Futures (Accounts and Audit) Rules,
plus many others.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.2
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Question 65 of 545
65. Question
1 pointsQID1037:Failing to follow SFC-issued codes, guidelines and guidance notes may result in which of the following?
I. Reflect adversely on the fitness and properness of licensed or registered persons to continue to be so licensed or registered.
II. Imprisonment.
III. Civil consequences.
IV. A higher tax bracket.Correct
The SFO also empowers the SFC to issue codes, guidelines and guidance notes. These do not have the force of law and do not override the provisions of any applicable law. However, a
failure to follow the spirit of the codes, guidelines and guidance notes may reflect adversely on the fitness and properness of licensed or registered persons to continue to be so licensed or
registered.Incorrect
The SFO also empowers the SFC to issue codes, guidelines and guidance notes. These do not have the force of law and do not override the provisions of any applicable law. However, a
failure to follow the spirit of the codes, guidelines and guidance notes may reflect adversely on the fitness and properness of licensed or registered persons to continue to be so licensed or
registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 66 of 545
66. Question
1 pointsQID773:The SFC-issued codes, guidelines and guidance notes
Correct
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.
Incorrect
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 67 of 545
67. Question
1 pointsQID420:Which of the following codes specifies conduct requirements for SFC licensees involved in the discretionary management of CISs, and supplements the SFC’s codes and requirements for all licensees?
Correct
The FMCC applies to intermediaries conducting discretionary management of CISs (whether or not the CISs are authorised by the SFC) and their representatives (“Fund Managers”).
Incorrect
The FMCC applies to intermediaries conducting discretionary management of CISs (whether or not the CISs are authorised by the SFC) and their representatives (“Fund Managers”).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 68 of 545
68. Question
1 pointsQID1038:The SFC-issued codes, guidelines and guidance notes are generally only subject to
Correct
Part XVI gathers together a number of provisions of common application as well as regulatory powers. It includes miscellaneous provisions that do not fit elsewhere and additional ones which relate to the increase in civil law applications.
Incorrect
Part XVI gathers together a number of provisions of common application as well as regulatory powers. It includes miscellaneous provisions that do not fit elsewhere and additional ones which relate to the increase in civil law applications.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 69 of 545
69. Question
1 pointsQID415:Codes and guidelines issued by the SFC which apply to licensed or registered persons in the Asset Management Industries includes
I. The Conduct Guidelines of Intermediaries
II. The Code of Conduct
III. The Internal Control Guidelines (ICG)
IV. The Prevention of Money Laundering and Terrorist Financing Guidance Note (“MLGN”)Correct
Option I included in the question is not a real code, the other three do exist and apply to asset managers.
Incorrect
Option I included in the question is not a real code, the other three do exist and apply to asset managers.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 70 of 545
70. Question
1 pointsQID83:Which of the following correctly describes the status of SFC’s code of conducts and guidelines?
Correct
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines:
(d) Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Incorrect
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines:
(d) Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 71 of 545
71. Question
1 pointsQID85:What is the legal status of codes and guidelines issued by the SFC?
I. Codes of conduct are subsidiary legislation and have the force of law.
II. Guidelines are subsidiary legislation and have the force of law.
III. Codes of conduct do not have the force of law, a breach does not by itself render a person liable to any judicial or other proceedings.
IV. Guidelines do not have the force of law, a breach does not by itself render a person liable to any judicial or other proceedings.Correct
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines: (d) Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Incorrect
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines: (d) Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 72 of 545
72. Question
1 pointsQID179:The principal ordinance applicable to the asset management industry is the
Correct
The principal ordinances applicable to the asset management industry are the SFO, the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (“MPFSO”), the Occupational Retirement
Schemes Ordinance (“ORSO”), the Insurance Ordinance and, to a lesser extent, the Banking Ordinance, the Employment Ordinance, the Inland Revenue Ordinance and the Trustee
Ordinance.Incorrect
The principal ordinances applicable to the asset management industry are the SFO, the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (“MPFSO”), the Occupational Retirement
Schemes Ordinance (“ORSO”), the Insurance Ordinance and, to a lesser extent, the Banking Ordinance, the Employment Ordinance, the Inland Revenue Ordinance and the Trustee
Ordinance.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 73 of 545
73. Question
1 pointsQID22:Which of the following are duties of the HKMA?
I. Protect the interest of insurance policies holder
II. Maintain currency stability
III. Enhance the efficiency and integrity of the financial system
IV. Ensure the safety and stability of the banking systemCorrect
The HKMA is required to maintain currency stability, ensure the safety and stability of the banking system, and promote the efficiency, integrity and development of the financial system.
Incorrect
The HKMA is required to maintain currency stability, ensure the safety and stability of the banking system, and promote the efficiency, integrity and development of the financial system.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 74 of 545
74. Question
1 pointsQID190:The SFO has provided powers for the SFC to make detailed rules relating to which of the following?
I. Financial Resources
II. Handling of client money and other client assets
III. The keeping of accounts and records
IV. Auditing mattersCorrect
The SFO grants the SFC powers to make detailed
rules relating to:
(a) their financial resources;
(b) the handling of client money and other client assets;
© the keeping of accounts and records; and
(d) auditing matters.Incorrect
The SFO grants the SFC powers to make detailed
rules relating to:
(a) their financial resources;
(b) the handling of client money and other client assets;
© the keeping of accounts and records; and
(d) auditing matters.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 75 of 545
75. Question
1 pointsQID87:Under the provisions of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO), which of the following statements relating to rules and codes of conduct are correct?
I. Failure by a licensed person to comply with a material provision of a code of conduct will of itself make the person liable to judicial proceedings.
II. A code of conduct violation shall be admissible as evidence in court proceedings.
III. The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is empowered under the SFO to make rules or codes of conduct.
IV. A breach of a provision in a code of conduct by a licensed person may cast doubts on his fitness and properness to hold the licence.Correct
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines:
(c) Persons prejudiced by the perpetration of market misconduct may take civil action against the wrongdoer through the courts to obtain redress. The SFO has provisions for the findings of the Market Misconduct Tribunal to be admissible in evidence in private civil actions.
(d) Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Incorrect
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines:
(c) Persons prejudiced by the perpetration of market misconduct may take civil action against the wrongdoer through the courts to obtain redress. The SFO has provisions for the findings of the Market Misconduct Tribunal to be admissible in evidence in private civil actions.
(d) Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 76 of 545
76. Question
1 pointsQID163:According to the NCO, which of the following methods of liquidation is accepted?
I. Compulsory Liquidation
II. Members’ Voluntary Winding-Up
III. Creditors’ Voluntary Winding-Up
IV. Director Compulsory LiquidationCorrect
These are the three ways for a liquidation to happen, according to the NCO:
1. A compulsory winding-up ordered by the court, and the liquidator is appointed by the court and acts under its control. A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors. There are fewer formalities than with a compulsory liquidation and this route is far more popular.
2. Members’ voluntary winding-up (s. 233, CWUMPO)
This may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they
have:
(a) made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company; and
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.
3. Creditors’ voluntary winding-up (ss. 241 to 243, CWUMPO)
The company shall arrange a meeting of the creditors to be summoned for the day when the resolution to wind up is proposed or for the next day. Advertisements must be run in the
Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs, and a list of creditors and amounts due, will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.Incorrect
These are the three ways for a liquidation to happen, according to the NCO:
1. A compulsory winding-up ordered by the court, and the liquidator is appointed by the court and acts under its control. A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors. There are fewer formalities than with a compulsory liquidation and this route is far more popular.
2. Members’ voluntary winding-up (s. 233, CWUMPO)
This may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they
have:
(a) made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company; and
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.
3. Creditors’ voluntary winding-up (ss. 241 to 243, CWUMPO)
The company shall arrange a meeting of the creditors to be summoned for the day when the resolution to wind up is proposed or for the next day. Advertisements must be run in the
Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs, and a list of creditors and amounts due, will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.
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Question 77 of 545
77. Question
1 pointsQID137:Model articles of private companies and public companies consist of which of the followings?
I. Capital
II. Members
III. Officers
IV. Miscellaneous provisionCorrect
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Incorrect
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.10
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Question 78 of 545
78. Question
1 pointsQID1042:Which of the following are included and defined in the articles of association?
I. Members, including meeting and procedures
II. Officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointment of managing directors and company secretaries
III. Capital, such as dividends, reserves, accounts and audit.
IV. Miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Correct
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Incorrect
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.10
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Question 79 of 545
79. Question
1 pointsQID2849:Which of the following statements about the directors of a company is correct?
I. Except as restricted by the company’s articles of association, company regulations or special resolutions, the directors may exercise all the powers of the company.
II. If the directors are unwilling to act, members may intervene in management matters at a general meeting.
III. Members may limit the powers of directors by resolution at a general meeting.
IV. Directors should hold a meeting (board meeting) before making a decision, and exercise their power only after the resolution is passed at the meeting.Correct
Members cannot pass a resolution at a general meeting to limit the powers of a director unless the director is unwilling to act or the director is in breach of fiduciary duty.
Incorrect
Members cannot pass a resolution at a general meeting to limit the powers of a director unless the director is unwilling to act or the director is in breach of fiduciary duty.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.10
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Question 80 of 545
80. Question
1 pointsQID1050:According to the new regulations of the New Company Ordinance (NCO), which of the following is NOT included in the articles of association?
Correct
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private
companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Incorrect
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private
companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.10
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Question 81 of 545
81. Question
1 pointsQID1048:General meetings of shareholders are very important as
Correct
Company meetings of shareholders are very important as they provide the only opportunity for shareholders to exercise any control over the affairs of the company or take part in its operations.
Incorrect
Company meetings of shareholders are very important as they provide the only opportunity for shareholders to exercise any control over the affairs of the company or take part in its operations.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.11
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Question 82 of 545
82. Question
1 pointsQID2422:Which of the following can call a meeting other than the annual general meetings?
I. Shareholders
II. Directors
III. Creditors
IV. CourtCorrect
Which of the following can call a meeting other than the annual general meetings?
I. Shareholders
II. Directors
III. CourtIncorrect
Which of the following can call a meeting other than the annual general meetings?
I. Shareholders
II. Directors
III. CourtHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.13
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Question 83 of 545
83. Question
1 pointsQID1054:Company meetings can be requested by which of the following
I. Directors
II. The court
III. Shareholders
IV. LiquidatorCorrect
Other general meetings may be requested by directors, shareholders and the court.
Incorrect
Other general meetings may be requested by directors, shareholders and the court.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.13
-
Question 84 of 545
84. Question
1 pointsQID1057:The AGM includes the presentation and approval of which of the following?
I. Annual accounts and audit reports
II. Declaration of dividends
III. Assignment of Directors
IV. Assignment of AuditorsCorrect
The business of an annual general meeting includes the consideration of the annual accounts, the declaration of dividends, the election of directors to replace retiring ones, and the appointment of auditors.
Incorrect
The business of an annual general meeting includes the consideration of the annual accounts, the declaration of dividends, the election of directors to replace retiring ones, and the appointment of auditors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 85 of 545
85. Question
1 pointsQID1055:Subsequent AGMs after the first AGM should be held within how many month-intervals thereafter?
Correct
A company is required to hold its first AGM within 18 months after its incorporation. Subsequent AGMs must be held every calendar year and the interval between AGMs should not be more than 15 months.
Incorrect
A company is required to hold its first AGM within 18 months after its incorporation. Subsequent AGMs must be held every calendar year and the interval between AGMs should not be more than 15 months.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 86 of 545
86. Question
1 pointsQID1056:Which of the following may cast votes in company AGM that passes ordinary resolution and special resolutions?
Correct
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy).
Incorrect
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 87 of 545
87. Question
1 pointsQID1058:The first AGM should be held within how many months of incorporation?
Correct
A company is required to hold its first AGM within 18 months after its incorporation. Subsequent AGMs must be held every calendar year and the interval between AGMs should not be more than 15 months.
Incorrect
A company is required to hold its first AGM within 18 months after its incorporation. Subsequent AGMs must be held every calendar year and the interval between AGMs should not be more than 15 months.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
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Question 88 of 545
88. Question
1 pointsQID1053:Companies are required to held an annual general meeting of shareholders, unless
Correct
A company is required by the NCO to hold an annual general meeting of shareholders (s. 610, NCO). Companies are permitted to dispense with the requirement to hold annual general meetings by passing a written resolution or a resolution at a general meeting with unanimous shareholders’ consent.
Incorrect
A company is required by the NCO to hold an annual general meeting of shareholders (s. 610, NCO). Companies are permitted to dispense with the requirement to hold annual general meetings by passing a written resolution or a resolution at a general meeting with unanimous shareholders’ consent.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 89 of 545
89. Question
1 pointsQID1059:What should an auditor do if he/she believes that there is something seriously wrong with a company’s financial position?
Correct
The usual audit report does not give much opportunity for questions as it is normally in a standard format stating that the accounts present a “true and fair view” of the company’s financial position, unless something is seriously wrong, when the auditors will include a qualification in the report.
Incorrect
The usual audit report does not give much opportunity for questions as it is normally in a standard format stating that the accounts present a “true and fair view” of the company’s financial position, unless something is seriously wrong, when the auditors will include a qualification in the report.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
-
Question 90 of 545
90. Question
1 pointsQID1061:Which of the following matters are passed by ordinary resolutions?
I. Dismissal of an auditor before his term of office expires.
II. Dismissal of a director before his term of office expires.
III. Dismissal of an auditor when his term of office expires.
IV. Dismissal of a director when his term of office expires.Correct
Under s. 548, NCO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members except for:
(a) the removal of auditors before the expiration of their term of office; or
(b) the removal of a director before his term expires.Incorrect
Under s. 548, NCO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members except for:
(a) the removal of auditors before the expiration of their term of office; or
(b) the removal of a director before his term expires.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.15
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Question 91 of 545
91. Question
1 pointsQID1604:Which of the following resolutions cannot be passed by circularisation and signed by all members?
I. The removal of a director before his term expires
II. Reduction of share capital
III. Alteration of objects and articles of association
IV. Issuance of additional stocksCorrect
Under s. 548, NCO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members except for:
(b) the removal of a director before his term expires.
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in
person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 21 days’ notice
specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given. Examples of matters which need
special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(c.) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).The issuance of new shares are passed by the board of directors.
Incorrect
Under s. 548, NCO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members except for:
(b) the removal of a director before his term expires.
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in
person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 21 days’ notice
specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given. Examples of matters which need
special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(c.) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).The issuance of new shares are passed by the board of directors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.15
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Question 92 of 545
92. Question
1 pointsQID1062:Which of the following descriptions about resolutions is correct?
Correct
Under s. 548, NCO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members.
Incorrect
Under s. 548, NCO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.15
-
Question 93 of 545
93. Question
1 pointsQID1060:If the shareholder are not happy with the performance of the directors, how can they replace the directors?
Correct
Under s. 548, NCO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members except for:
(b) the removal of a director before his term expires.Incorrect
Under s. 548, NCO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members except for:
(b) the removal of a director before his term expires.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.15
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Question 94 of 545
94. Question
1 pointsQID145:The majority of resolutions can be passed by which of the following methods?
Correct
Under s.548, NCO, resolutions may be passed by circulation and signed by all members.
Incorrect
Under s.548, NCO, resolutions may be passed by circulation and signed by all members.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.15
-
Question 95 of 545
95. Question
1 pointsQID2790:How long the notice period should be for a special resolution?
Correct
Special resolutions should have a 14-day notice period.
Incorrect
Special resolutions should have a 14-day notice period.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
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Question 96 of 545
96. Question
1 pointsQID140:Which of the following statements about special resolutions passed by the company are correct?
I. A special resolution is a resolution that is passed by at least 50% of members at a general meeting.
II. A special resolution is a resolution that is passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting.
III. Not less than 14 days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given to members.
IV. Not less than 21 days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given to members.Correct
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice
specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.Incorrect
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice
specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 97 of 545
97. Question
1 pointsQID1066:Which of the following shall be passed under a special resolution?
I. Reduction of share capital
II. Winding up of the company voluntarily or by court
III. Alteration of objects, articles or conditions in the articles of association.
IV. Assignment and removal of DirectorsCorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Incorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 98 of 545
98. Question
1 pointsQID1069:Which of the following matters need to be passed through special resolutions?
I. Reduction of share capital
II. Winding up of the company
III. Deletion, alteration, and addition to the company’s articles of association
IV. Replacement of directors and/or auditorsCorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Incorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 99 of 545
99. Question
1 pointsQID1064:Which of the following matters are passed under special resolutions?
I. Reduction of share capital
II. Winding up of the company voluntarily or by court
III. Alteration of objects in articles of association
IV. Disposal of company assetsCorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Incorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 100 of 545
100. Question
1 pointsQID1063:What is the passing rate of a special resolution?
Correct
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy).
Incorrect
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 101 of 545
101. Question
1 pointsQID1065:A special resolution requires how many days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution to been given?
Correct
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.
Incorrect
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 102 of 545
102. Question
1 pointsQID141:Which of the following are required to pass a special resolution?
I. Reduction of share capital
II. Voluntary liquidation
III. Determining and declaring dividends and profits
IV. Alteration of objects and articles of associationCorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
© alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in
the articles of association (for existing companies).Incorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
© alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in
the articles of association (for existing companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 103 of 545
103. Question
1 pointsQID1068:Which of the following descriptions about a special resolution is correct?
I. It may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members
II. It must be passed by at least 75% of members.
III. A notice period of not less than 14 days’ must be given.
IV. A printed copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Registrar of Companies within 15 days of it being passed.Correct
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given. Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
© alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).
A copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Registrar of Companies within 15 days of it being passed.Incorrect
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given. Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
© alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).
A copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Registrar of Companies within 15 days of it being passed.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 104 of 545
104. Question
1 pointsQID1067:A printed copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Company Registrar within how many days after being passed?
Correct
A copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Registrar of Companies within 15 days of it being passed.
Incorrect
A copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Registrar of Companies within 15 days of it being passed.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 105 of 545
105. Question
1 pointsQID144:Special Resolutions are passed by which of the following individuals or entities?
Correct
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice
specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.Incorrect
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice
specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 106 of 545
106. Question
1 pointsQID2839:Which of the following can be done by ordinary resolution?
Correct
Removal of auditors and directors can be done by ordinary resolution.
Reduction of share capital, liquidation, amendment of articles of association all require special resolutions.
Incorrect
Removal of auditors and directors can be done by ordinary resolution.
Reduction of share capital, liquidation, amendment of articles of association all require special resolutions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.18
-
Question 107 of 545
107. Question
1 pointsQID1071:An ordinary resolution is a resolution which may be passed by what percentage of voting at a meeting of members?
Correct
An ordinary resolution is a resolution which may be passed by a simple majority of those present and voting at a meeting of members. Notice must be given.
Incorrect
An ordinary resolution is a resolution which may be passed by a simple majority of those present and voting at a meeting of members. Notice must be given.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.18
-
Question 108 of 545
108. Question
1 pointsQID1070:What is the passing rate of an ordinary resolution?
Correct
An ordinary resolution is a resolution which may be passed by a simple majority of those present and voting at a meeting of members. Notice must be given.
Incorrect
An ordinary resolution is a resolution which may be passed by a simple majority of those present and voting at a meeting of members. Notice must be given.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.18
-
Question 109 of 545
109. Question
1 pointsQID1073:Which of the following are NOT powers exercisable by members in the general meeting?
Correct
These include:
(a) changes to articles of association and company name;
© issue of shares at a discount;
(d) alteration of capital including reduction.Incorrect
These include:
(a) changes to articles of association and company name;
© issue of shares at a discount;
(d) alteration of capital including reduction.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.19
-
Question 110 of 545
110. Question
1 pointsQID1072:Which of the following are powers exercisable by members in general meeting?
I. Removal of directors
II. Disposal of assets
III. Approval of payments for loss of office
IV. Approval of payments for profit of officeCorrect
These include:
(h) removal of directors;
(i) disposal of company assets;
(j) approval of payments for loss of officeIncorrect
These include:
(h) removal of directors;
(i) disposal of company assets;
(j) approval of payments for loss of officeHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.19
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Question 111 of 545
111. Question
1 pointsQID1039:What are the major features of the New Companies Ordinance?
I. The NCO permits the formation of a company by one or more persons (s. 67, NCO).
II. The NCO provides that one member constitutes a quorum for a meeting of a company having only one member.
III. The NCO permits the formation of a company by one or more companies.
IV. The NCO permits the permits the formation of a company by two or more persons (s. 67, NCO).Correct
The NCO permits the formation of a company by one or more persons (s. 67, NCO). The NCO also provides that one member
constitutes a quorum for a meeting of a company having only one member.Incorrect
The NCO permits the formation of a company by one or more persons (s. 67, NCO). The NCO also provides that one member
constitutes a quorum for a meeting of a company having only one member.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.2
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Question 112 of 545
112. Question
1 pointsQID1075:If a variation of the rights of the holders of a class of a shares in a company occurs, shareholders who believe that such variation is against their interests may petition the court to have the variation cancelled. What is the threshold for such a petition to occur?
Correct
There are provisions in the NCO and in Companies (Model Articles) Notice which enable a
company to vary the rights of the holders of a class of shares. However, if a variation is being processed, the holders of at least 10% of the total voting rights of the shares in that class may petition the court to have the variation cancelled if it is against their interests.Incorrect
There are provisions in the NCO and in Companies (Model Articles) Notice which enable a
company to vary the rights of the holders of a class of shares. However, if a variation is being processed, the holders of at least 10% of the total voting rights of the shares in that class may petition the court to have the variation cancelled if it is against their interests.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.20
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Question 113 of 545
113. Question
1 pointsQID1076:If a company is functional and can form resolutions through the AGM, the court will generally not interfere in its matters. This practice is based on which of the following principles?
Correct
The court will not generally interfere in internal management matters or where the company can deal with the matter by calling a meeting. This is the principle of majority power.
Incorrect
The court will not generally interfere in internal management matters or where the company can deal with the matter by calling a meeting. This is the principle of majority power.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.22
-
Question 114 of 545
114. Question
1 pointsQID1077:The court will not generally interfere in internal management matters or where the company can deal with the matter by calling a meeting. This is the principle of
Correct
The court will not generally interfere in internal management matters or where the company can deal with the matter by calling a meeting. This is the principle of majority power.
Incorrect
The court will not generally interfere in internal management matters or where the company can deal with the matter by calling a meeting. This is the principle of majority power.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.22
-
Question 115 of 545
115. Question
1 pointsQID1082:Vita Milk, a listed company is undergoing structural reform, which includes a series of share placing and new debt financing arrangements. Sharon Chan is a 1% stakeholder of Vita Milk and she believes such actions are against her rights. She can
I. Apply to court for an order if she considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to interest of member’s.
II. Solely request the directors to call for a meeting; if the directors will not, she may do so on her own.
III. Rally 100 shareholders or 10% of the holders of the issued shares and request the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator to look into the company’s affairs
IV. Petition to the commercial crime Bureau of Hong Kong to establish a special unit to investigate such actions.Correct
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
On the other hand,
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
Sharon cannot call a meeting on her own.Incorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
On the other hand,
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
Sharon cannot call a meeting on her own.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
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Question 116 of 545
116. Question
1 pointsQID1078:Which of the following are safeguards provided under the NCO to protect the interest of minority shareholders?
I. The requirement of passing a special resolution for matters of great significance.
II. Court sanctions where the decision of the company will directly affect creditors.
III. Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
IV. A member may petition for a winding upCorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(a) As seen in section 3.17 above, a special resolution is required for certain matters.
(b) Court sanction is required where the decision of the company will directly affect creditors.
© Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Incorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(a) As seen in section 3.17 above, a special resolution is required for certain matters.
(b) Court sanction is required where the decision of the company will directly affect creditors.
© Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
-
Question 117 of 545
117. Question
1 pointsQID1084:The court, upon recognizing a petition from the minority shareholder of a company, will most likely
Correct
A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.
Incorrect
A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
-
Question 118 of 545
118. Question
1 pointsQID1080:Mr. Wan is a shareholder of Vita Milk, a company listed on the SEHK. Recently, Vita Milk issued a large number of convertible bonds without legitimate reasons. Mr. Wan believes that he can petition against such actions. Where and to whom should Mr Wan file a petition?
Correct
Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
Incorrect
Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
-
Question 119 of 545
119. Question
1 pointsQID2749:If the rights of the shareholders are changed, under what percentage of voting rights can a petition be filed with the court to cancel the change?
Correct
When the rights of the shareholders are changed, as long as there are more than 10% of the voting rights, a petition can be filed with the court to cancel the change.
Incorrect
When the rights of the shareholders are changed, as long as there are more than 10% of the voting rights, a petition can be filed with the court to cancel the change.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
-
Question 120 of 545
120. Question
1 pointsQID1081:Mr. Ko is a major stakeholder of Yellow River Trading Limited and owns 15% of outstanding shares of Yellow River Trading Limited. Yellow River Trading Limited plans to sell its shares to Mr. Wan and a number of high net worth individuals through a shares placement at a discount. Mr. Ko believes these actions are diluting his shares without his consent, what are the possible actions that can be taken by Mr Ko?
I. Appeal to the court to cancel such actions.
II. Petition to start an AGM immediately to stop the placement.
III. Request the financial secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs
IV. Request a special hearing from the ICAC.Correct
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.Incorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
-
Question 121 of 545
121. Question
1 pointsQID1083:To ensure there is no abuse of majority power, which of the following safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders?
I. Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
II. Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
III. 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
IV. A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.Correct
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
(f) A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.Incorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
(f) A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
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Question 122 of 545
122. Question
1 pointsQID1079:To ensure there is no abuse of majority power, which of the following safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders?
I. Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
II. Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
III. 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
IV. A member may petition for a winding up.Correct
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Incorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
-
Question 123 of 545
123. Question
1 pointsQID2823:Measures to protect minority shareholders do not include
Correct
Measures to protect minority shareholders include:
1. Members with 5% of the voting rights may request the directors to call a general meeting. If the directors refuse, they can convene a general meeting on their own.
2. 100 members or 10% of the holder of the issued shares can request the Financial Secretary to investigate the company’s affairs
3. Dissenting members can appeal to the court to revoke certain company resolutions
4. Any member may petition the court for the winding-up of the company.
5. If a member believes that their interests are impaired, they can apply to the court for an orderIncorrect
Measures to protect minority shareholders include:
1. Members with 5% of the voting rights may request the directors to call a general meeting. If the directors refuse, they can convene a general meeting on their own.
2. 100 members or 10% of the holder of the issued shares can request the Financial Secretary to investigate the company’s affairs
3. Dissenting members can appeal to the court to revoke certain company resolutions
4. Any member may petition the court for the winding-up of the company.
5. If a member believes that their interests are impaired, they can apply to the court for an orderHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
-
Question 124 of 545
124. Question
1 pointsQID1085:The court may NOT intervene to allow an individual to bring an action
Correct
The court may intervene to allow an individual member or members to bring an action:
(a) to enforce some personal rights (a personal action);
(b) where a right has been infringed which affects all or a number of members in a similar way (a joint action); or
(c) on behalf of the company where misconduct has been committed against the company, for example by a director of the company or a third party (a derivative action).Incorrect
The court may intervene to allow an individual member or members to bring an action:
(a) to enforce some personal rights (a personal action);
(b) where a right has been infringed which affects all or a number of members in a similar way (a joint action); or
(c) on behalf of the company where misconduct has been committed against the company, for example by a director of the company or a third party (a derivative action).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.24
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Question 125 of 545
125. Question
1 pointsQID1087:Which of the following descriptions is an accurate representation of director under the NCO?
Correct
The NCO merely defines a director as including a person who occupies the position of director, by whatever name he is called. The NCO itself refers very little to directors but there is more about them in Companies (Model Articles) Notice. The NCO says that every company (not being a private company) must have at least two directors (s. 453, NCO) and every private company must have at least one director (s. 454, NCO).
Incorrect
The NCO merely defines a director as including a person who occupies the position of director, by whatever name he is called. The NCO itself refers very little to directors but there is more about them in Companies (Model Articles) Notice. The NCO says that every company (not being a private company) must have at least two directors (s. 453, NCO) and every private company must have at least one director (s. 454, NCO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.25
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Question 126 of 545
126. Question
1 pointsQID1086:Which of the following descriptions are accurate representations of director under the NCO?
I. A director is a person who occupies the position of director and bears whatever title.
II. Guarantee Companies and Public Companies must have at least two directors.
III. Private Companies must have at least one director.
IV. Directors are appointed by the members acting in general meeting.Correct
The NCO merely defines a director as including a person who occupies the position of director, by whatever name he is called. The NCO itself refers very little to directors but there is more about them in Companies (Model Articles) Notice. The NCO says that every company (not being a private company) must have at least two directors (s. 453, NCO) and every private company must have at least one director (s. 454, NCO). The directors must be appointed by the members acting in general meeting.
Incorrect
The NCO merely defines a director as including a person who occupies the position of director, by whatever name he is called. The NCO itself refers very little to directors but there is more about them in Companies (Model Articles) Notice. The NCO says that every company (not being a private company) must have at least two directors (s. 453, NCO) and every private company must have at least one director (s. 454, NCO). The directors must be appointed by the members acting in general meeting.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.25
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Question 127 of 545
127. Question
1 pointsQID2579:Which of the following is correct based on the NCO regarding director(s) of private companies?
Correct
Every private company is required to have at least one director, and at least one director must be a natural person.
Incorrect
Every private company is required to have at least one director, and at least one director must be a natural person.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.26
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Question 128 of 545
128. Question
1 pointsQID1088:Every private company is required to have at least one director who is
Correct
Every private company (other than one within the same group as a listed company) is required to have at least one director who is a natural person.
Incorrect
Every private company (other than one within the same group as a listed company) is required to have at least one director who is a natural person.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.26
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Question 129 of 545
129. Question
1 pointsQID2686:Under the company ordinance regarding directors of a company, which of the following is true?
Correct
Each private company must have a least one director who is a natural person
Incorrect
Each private company must have a least one director who is a natural person
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.26
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Question 130 of 545
130. Question
1 pointsQID1089:Which of the following is an accurate representation of shadow directors?
Correct
Shadow directors are “persons in accordance with whose directions or instructions (excluding advice given in a professional capacity) the directors, or a majority of the directors, of a body corporate are accustomed to act”.
Incorrect
Shadow directors are “persons in accordance with whose directions or instructions (excluding advice given in a professional capacity) the directors, or a majority of the directors, of a body corporate are accustomed to act”.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.27
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Question 131 of 545
131. Question
1 pointsQID147:Which of the following individuals is a shadow director?
Correct
Shadow directors are “persons in accordance with whose directions or instructions (excluding advice given in a professional capacity) the directors, or a majority of the directors, of a body corporate are accustomed to act”.
Incorrect
Shadow directors are “persons in accordance with whose directions or instructions (excluding advice given in a professional capacity) the directors, or a majority of the directors, of a body corporate are accustomed to act”.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.27
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Question 132 of 545
132. Question
1 pointsQID1091:Which of the following are officers of a company under the CO?
I. Managers
II. Company Secretary
III. Major Shareholders
IV. DirectorsCorrect
An officer, according to the NCO, includes a director, manager or company secretary.
Incorrect
An officer, according to the NCO, includes a director, manager or company secretary.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.28
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Question 133 of 545
133. Question
1 pointsQID148:Which of the following actions may result in disqualification as director by court order?
I. Ms. Chung was found to be in persistent default in relation to the New Companies Ordinance or in acting as a liquidator or receiver.
II. Mr. Tse had committed fraud in relation to minor company matters including the preparation of false accounts.
III. Ms. Wang served as a director of an insolvent company last year. The company was liquidated due to poor management of other directors.
IV. Mr. Ng was convicted of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies.Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(c) They must not be disqualified by court order; the four principal grounds for such an order being:
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the NCO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.
Fraud and the other disqualifications apply to directors and shadow directors (e.g. see section 2.5, Topic 9, which describes disqualification orders made by the MMT preventing persons committing market misconduct from being directors of companies).Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(c) They must not be disqualified by court order; the four principal grounds for such an order being:
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the NCO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.
Fraud and the other disqualifications apply to directors and shadow directors (e.g. see section 2.5, Topic 9, which describes disqualification orders made by the MMT preventing persons committing market misconduct from being directors of companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 134 of 545
134. Question
1 pointsQID149:Which of the following are potential barriers of becoming a director of a company?
I. Anyone aged 21 or below
II. Undischarged bankrupts
III. Persistent default in relation to the NCO
IV. A finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent companyCorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
© They must not be disqualified by court order; the four principal grounds for such an order being:
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the NCO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.
Fraud and the other disqualifications apply to directors and shadow directors (e.g. see section 2.5, Topic 9, which describes disqualification orders made by the MMT preventing persons committing market misconduct from being directors of companies).Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
© They must not be disqualified by court order; the four principal grounds for such an order being:
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the NCO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.
Fraud and the other disqualifications apply to directors and shadow directors (e.g. see section 2.5, Topic 9, which describes disqualification orders made by the MMT preventing persons committing market misconduct from being directors of companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 135 of 545
135. Question
1 pointsQID1094:Which of the following criteria must be met before a person can be appointed as a director?
I. Must be at least 18 years of age.
II. Must not be undischarged bankrupts.
III. Must not be disqualified by court order.
IV. Must not be a shareholder of a liquidated company.Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 136 of 545
136. Question
1 pointsQID1092:Which of the following persons are not qualified to serve as a director?
I. Persons that are under the age of 18.
II. Persons that are undischarged bankrupts.
III. Persons disqualified by court.
IV. Persons who do not satisfy the statutory net worth requirement.Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 137 of 545
137. Question
1 pointsQID1090:Vita Milk is a private company engaging in dairy products trading, which of the following individual can act as a director of Vita Milk?
Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
There is Mr. Chan only who satisfies all the conditions above.Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
There is Mr. Chan only who satisfies all the conditions above.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 138 of 545
138. Question
1 pointsQID1093:Which of the following are principal grounds that a court may disqualify a person from becoming a director?
I. Conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies
II. Persistent default in relation to the NCO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver
III. Fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading
IV. A finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the NCO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.
Fraud and the other disqualifications apply to directors and shadow directors (e.g. see section 3.5, Topic 7, which describes disqualification orders made by the Market Misconduct Tribunal (“MMT”) preventing persons committing market misconduct from being directors of companies).Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the NCO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.
Fraud and the other disqualifications apply to directors and shadow directors (e.g. see section 3.5, Topic 7, which describes disqualification orders made by the Market Misconduct Tribunal (“MMT”) preventing persons committing market misconduct from being directors of companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 139 of 545
139. Question
1 pointsQID1095:Which of the following condition does not result in being disqualified by court order and the person is able to act as a director of a company?
Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the NCO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.
Fraud and the other disqualifications apply to directors and shadow directors (e.g. see section 3.5, Topic 7, which describes disqualification orders made by the Market Misconduct Tribunal (“MMT”) preventing persons committing market misconduct from being directors of companies).Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the NCO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.
Fraud and the other disqualifications apply to directors and shadow directors (e.g. see section 3.5, Topic 7, which describes disqualification orders made by the Market Misconduct Tribunal (“MMT”) preventing persons committing market misconduct from being directors of companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 140 of 545
140. Question
1 pointsQID1096:What are the necessary conditions for becoming a director in Hong Kong?
I. Be 18 years old and above.
II. Must not be an undischarged bankrupt.
III. Must not be disqualified by court order.
IV. Be a director of a recently wound up company.Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 141 of 545
141. Question
1 pointsQID134:Which of the following descriptions about companies are correct?
I. An entity that is independent of its members (shareholder).
II. An entity that can sue.
III. An entity that can be sued.
IV. A company can appoint legal representatives.Correct
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts. It also has perpetual succession and will only cease to exist if it is dissolved. It can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Incorrect
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts. It also has perpetual succession and will only cease to exist if it is dissolved. It can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.3
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Question 142 of 545
142. Question
1 pointsQID1041:Which of the following descriptions of a company is NOT correct under the NCO?
Correct
A company can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Incorrect
A company can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.3
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Question 143 of 545
143. Question
1 pointsQID1040:Which of the following descriptions about the New Companies Ordinance are correct?
I. A company is a legal entity distinct from its members and is a legal person.
II. The company can make contracts.
III. The company can be sued.
IV. The company can be involved in crime and torts.Correct
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts.
Incorrect
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.3
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Question 144 of 545
144. Question
1 pointsQID774:Which of the following descriptions about a limited company is NOT correct?
Correct
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts. It also has perpetual succession and will only cease to exist if it is dissolved. It can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Answer A is not included in this definition.Incorrect
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts. It also has perpetual succession and will only cease to exist if it is dissolved. It can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Answer A is not included in this definition.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.3
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Question 145 of 545
145. Question
1 pointsQID884:Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are
I. Unwilling to act on behalf of the directorsII. Seeking approval to act beyond their powers
III. Acting in breach of their fiduciary duties
IV. Being removed decided by the members
Correct
Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Incorrect
Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.31
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Question 146 of 545
146. Question
1 pointsQID1098:Shareholders can interfere and override management actions of the directors if:
I. the directors are unwilling to act
II. the directors’ actions result in operating losses
III. The directors are seeking approval to act beyond their powers
IV. The directors are acting in breach of their fiduciary dutiesCorrect
Directors in these circumstances are not bound by resolutions passed by members in a general meeting, nor can the members override future management actions of the directors. Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Incorrect
Directors in these circumstances are not bound by resolutions passed by members in a general meeting, nor can the members override future management actions of the directors. Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.31
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Question 147 of 545
147. Question
1 pointsQID1097:Generally speaking, directors are not bound by resolutions passed by members in a general meeting, nor can the members override future management actions of the directors. Members in general meeting may NOT intervene in the management if:
Correct
Directors in these circumstances are not bound by resolutions passed by members in a general meeting, nor can the members override future management actions of the directors. Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Incorrect
Directors in these circumstances are not bound by resolutions passed by members in a general meeting, nor can the members override future management actions of the directors. Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.31
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Question 148 of 545
148. Question
1 pointsQID1099:Under common law, how should directors act and make decisions?
I. Exercise their power collaboratively by having meetings with a proper quorum, passing resolutions and have to be minuted.
II. Directors can act independently if the articles of association allow the board to delegate its power to its individual directors, to committees and to the managing director.
III. For private companies, a written record of a decision made by the sole director of a private company will prevail.Correct
Under common law, directors should exercise their powers as a group by having meetings (board of directors’ meetings or board meetings) with a proper quorum, passing resolutions that have to be minuted. This can be avoided as usually the company’s articles of association allow the board to delegate its powers to individual directors, to committees and to the managing director. Under s. 483, NCO, a written record of a decision made by the sole director of a private company shall be sufficient evidence of that decision.
Incorrect
Under common law, directors should exercise their powers as a group by having meetings (board of directors’ meetings or board meetings) with a proper quorum, passing resolutions that have to be minuted. This can be avoided as usually the company’s articles of association allow the board to delegate its powers to individual directors, to committees and to the managing director. Under s. 483, NCO, a written record of a decision made by the sole director of a private company shall be sufficient evidence of that decision.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.32
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Question 149 of 545
149. Question
1 pointsQID1102:Under common law, although the directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company, this does not mean they have to:
Correct
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Incorrect
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.33
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Question 150 of 545
150. Question
1 pointsQID1100:There is a fiduciary relationship between the directors of a company and the company itself, the directors should act with the utmost good faith towards their principals, which include which of the followings?
I. Determine appropriate remuneration for its directorship through a resolution.
II. Act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
III. Exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
IV. Not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Correct
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Incorrect
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.33
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Question 151 of 545
151. Question
1 pointsQID151:Which of the following are fiduciary duties of the directors?
I. Act bona fide for the benefit of the company
II. Exercise their powers for their proper purpose
III. Not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests
IV. Not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and the companies interestsCorrect
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost
good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Incorrect
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost
good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.33
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Question 152 of 545
152. Question
1 pointsQID1101:Under common law, the directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company and they must:
I. Act with utmost good faith towards the company.
II. Act bona fide for the benefit of the company.
III. Exercise their powers for their proper purpose.
IV. Not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Correct
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Incorrect
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.33
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Question 153 of 545
153. Question
1 pointsQID1104:The NCO imposes on director’s requirement to exercise reasonable care, skill and diligence. To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person with:
I. The general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test)
II. The general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test)
III. The general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (subjective test)
IV. The general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (objective test)Correct
To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person with:
(a) the general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test); and
(b) the general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test).Incorrect
To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person with:
(a) the general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test); and
(b) the general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.34
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Question 154 of 545
154. Question
1 pointsQID152:To determine whether a director is diligent, skilful and accountable to the company, which of the following methods are utilized?
I. Qualifying Exam
II. Objective Test
III. Subjective Test
IV. Continuous Professional AssessmentCorrect
The NCO provisions set out a mixed objective and subjective test in the determination of the standard of directors’ duty of care, skill and diligence. To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person.
Incorrect
The NCO provisions set out a mixed objective and subjective test in the determination of the standard of directors’ duty of care, skill and diligence. To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.34
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Question 155 of 545
155. Question
1 pointsQID1103:A director is expected to perform under the following principles with the exception of
Correct
To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person with:
(a) the general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test); and
(b) the general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test).Incorrect
To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person with:
(a) the general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test); and
(b) the general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.34
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Question 156 of 545
156. Question
1 pointsQID153:Miss Ko, an employee of Hai Nei Company, who commits an act of market misconduct while handling the company’s business, is being charged. In which of the following situation would Mr. Wan, the director of Hoi Nei Company be liable and accountable?
Correct
Directors are additionally subject to other, more specific duties
imposed upon them by particular statutory provisions. For example, Twelfth Schedule, the CWUMPO provides for a fine and/or imprisonment for a director that authorises the issue of
a prospectus containing an untrue statement. Where a director breaches strict requirements of the NCO, such as failing to prepare financial statements when required to do so, liability
will also arise. It is therefore important that directors understand both the general and the specific responsibilities imposed upon them, and how to properly discharge them, in order to fulfil their roles as directors and to address their exposure to directors’ liabilities.Incorrect
Directors are additionally subject to other, more specific duties
imposed upon them by particular statutory provisions. For example, Twelfth Schedule, the CWUMPO provides for a fine and/or imprisonment for a director that authorises the issue of
a prospectus containing an untrue statement. Where a director breaches strict requirements of the NCO, such as failing to prepare financial statements when required to do so, liability
will also arise. It is therefore important that directors understand both the general and the specific responsibilities imposed upon them, and how to properly discharge them, in order to fulfil their roles as directors and to address their exposure to directors’ liabilities.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.35
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Question 157 of 545
157. Question
1 pointsQID1105:According to the NCO which has defined the statutory liabilities of directors, directors may incur liabilities due to:
I. Breaches of fiduciary duties.
II. Failure to give continuous attention to the affairs of the company.
III. Failure to act with due care and skill.
IV. Breaches of statutory duties.Correct
Where a director breaches strict requirements of the NCO,
such as failing to prepare financial statements when required to do so, liability will also arise. It is therefore important that directors understand both the general and the specific
responsibilities imposed upon them, and how to properly discharge them, in order to fulfil their roles as directors and to address their exposure to directors’ liabilities.
Any ratification by a company of conduct by a director in relation to negligence, default, breach of duty or breach of trust in relation to the company must be approved by resolution of the members of the companyIncorrect
Where a director breaches strict requirements of the NCO,
such as failing to prepare financial statements when required to do so, liability will also arise. It is therefore important that directors understand both the general and the specific
responsibilities imposed upon them, and how to properly discharge them, in order to fulfil their roles as directors and to address their exposure to directors’ liabilities.
Any ratification by a company of conduct by a director in relation to negligence, default, breach of duty or breach of trust in relation to the company must be approved by resolution of the members of the companyHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.35&37
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Question 158 of 545
158. Question
1 pointsQID883:What are the possible remedies for a breach of duty by directors?
I. It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
II. If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company.
III. All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
IV. If the directors have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the members for such profits.Correct
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Incorrect
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.36
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Question 159 of 545
159. Question
1 pointsQID159:What are possible reliefs for directors for a breach?
I. The company can obtain an injunction, request for cancellation of contract or sue for damages
II. The company can submit the case to the SFC Fiduciary Committee.
III. The directors who are in breach should be accountable to the company for profits and damages.
IV. The directors who are in breach should be accountable to the company for profits and damages in addition to the interest owed.Correct
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Incorrect
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.36
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Question 160 of 545
160. Question
1 pointsQID886:What are the possible remedies for a breach of duty by directors?
I. It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
II. If the directors have disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company.
III. All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
IV. If the directors have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Correct
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Incorrect
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.36
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Question 161 of 545
161. Question
1 pointsQID885:Mr. Ko is a shareholder of Yellow River Trading. He believes Mr. David Wan, a director of Yellow River Trading, is breaching his statutory duties in recent electronics trading transactions. What are the actions that Mr Ko can take?
I. Obtain an injunction stopping such action.
II. If Mr. Wan has not disclosed a personal interest in a contract he has made on behalf of the company, the contract may be avoided at the option of the company.
III. All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
IV. If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Correct
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Incorrect
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.36
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Question 162 of 545
162. Question
1 pointsQID154:Millionaire Securities has recently been convicted of market misconduct. Millionaire Securities’ director – Mr. Ip, was unaware of the illegal acts and had tried to monitor and regulate the company’s operations to the best of his abilities. Is Mr. Ip guilty under such circumstance?
Correct
The court may give relief to a director or directors if they have, in causing the breach, been shown to have acted honestly and reasonably.
Incorrect
The court may give relief to a director or directors if they have, in causing the breach, been shown to have acted honestly and reasonably.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.38
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Question 163 of 545
163. Question
1 pointsQID1106:If a director (or his connected entity) can reasonably foresee direct or indirect interest in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must:
I. For transaction or arrangements that has been entered, he must declare the nature and extent of that interest to other directors.
II. For transaction or arrangements that has been entered, he must declare the nature and extent of that interest to the members.
III. For transaction or arrangements being proposed, he must declare the nature and extent of that interest to other directors.
IV. For transaction or arrangements being proposed, he must declare the nature and extent of that interest to the members.”Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 164 of 545
164. Question
1 pointsQID795:Mr. Ko is a director of a phone book printing company -Kaohsiung Printing. Mr Ko and Mr Wan jointly own British Construction Bank and are both directors of British Construction Bank. Kaohsiung Printing is going to print a lot of phone books and calendars for British Construction Bank as souvenirs for customers. Should Mr. Ko disclose his interest in Kaohsiung Printing to the board of directors of British Construction Bank?
Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 165 of 545
165. Question
1 pointsQID155:If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, what actions should he take?
I. Declare the nature and extent of the interest in conflict as soon as reasonably practicable.
II. No declaration is required if the transaction or arrangement was taken place outside of Hong Kong,
III. Declare the nature and extent of that interest before a transaction or arrangement has been entered.
IV. No actions are required if the transaction or arrangement has not yet taken place.Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 166 of 545
166. Question
1 pointsQID1108:Yellow River Trading is prepared to acquire a well know local website – Opennoodles.com. The director of Yellow River Trading, Mr. Wan, is the spouse of the owner of Opennoodles.com. Mr. Wan should:
I. Disclose his interest in the general meeting.
II. Take no action because it is his spouse’s interests that are involved in the deal
III. Ensure that the deal is proper, fair and in the interest of Yellow River Trading.
IV. Resign immediately.Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 167 of 545
167. Question
1 pointsQID1107:If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare the nature and extent of that interest:
I. Before the transaction and arrangement has been made.
II. After the transaction and arrangement has been made.
III. As soon as he can reasonably foresee such conflict of interest.
IV. As soon as the annual audit requires him to do so.Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 168 of 545
168. Question
1 pointsQID1605:Mr. Liu is the only shareholder of Vitamilk and the director of Millionaire Financial Investment. Another director of Millionaire Financial Investment suggested to acquire some of Vitamilk real estates at the board of directors meeting. Does Mr. Liu have to declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest?
Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 169 of 545
169. Question
1 pointsQID2812:Which of the following statements about the Companies Ordinance is incorrect?
Correct
There is no minimum authorized share capital requirement for a company.
Incorrect
There is no minimum authorized share capital requirement for a company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.4
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Question 170 of 545
170. Question
1 pointsQID778:In Hong Kong, registered companies can be classified into which of the following categories?
I. Private Company
II. Public Company
III. Non-Profit Company
IV. Guarantee CompanyCorrect
Under the NCO, a new category of company is added and now every Hong Kong company falls into one of three categories: private companies, public companies and guarantee companies.
Incorrect
Under the NCO, a new category of company is added and now every Hong Kong company falls into one of three categories: private companies, public companies and guarantee companies.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.4
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Question 171 of 545
171. Question
1 pointsQID1074:Under the New Companies Ordinance, which of the following are correct categorization of companies?
I. Private Companies
II. Public Companies
III. Listed Companies
IV. Guarantee CompaniesCorrect
Under the NCO, a new category of company is added and now every Hong Kong company falls into one of 3 categories: private companies, public companies and guarantee companies.
Incorrect
Under the NCO, a new category of company is added and now every Hong Kong company falls into one of 3 categories: private companies, public companies and guarantee companies.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.4
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Question 172 of 545
172. Question
1 pointsQID1111:Which of the following descriptions about directors’ remuneration are correct?
I. If the director is also having administrative roles, he does not need to have a separate service with the company. All directors’ fees should include all of his services.
II. The articles of association have designated the powers of determining such remuneration.
III. The articles of association states that director remuneration should be determined by the members in the general meeting.
IV. Directors remuneration usually covers directors’ fees.Correct
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Incorrect
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 173 of 545
173. Question
1 pointsQID158:According to the provision of the model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice, how should the remuneration of directors be determined?
Correct
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Incorrect
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 174 of 545
174. Question
1 pointsQID157:In general, remuneration of which of the following individuals is determined by the company in general meeting?
Correct
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Incorrect
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 175 of 545
175. Question
1 pointsQID156:Which of the following description about director remuneration is correct?
Correct
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Incorrect
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 176 of 545
176. Question
1 pointsQID1109:Who determines the directors’ remuneration?
Correct
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting.
Incorrect
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 177 of 545
177. Question
1 pointsQID1110:Which of the following are correct descriptions of directors’ remuneration?
I. Authority for payment is provided in the articles
II. If a director holds some other position, such as Managing Director or an executive director, he can have a service contract parallel to his director’s remuneration.
III. The remuneration must include a set of stock options.
IV. The director of a company should treat his directorship as his sole profession.Correct
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Incorrect
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 178 of 545
178. Question
1 pointsQID1178:Mr. David Wan and his spouse are investing in real estate under the name of Yangtze River Investment and he is trying to apply for a loan for assignment. Mr. Wan and his spouse are the only directors and shareholders of Yangtze River Investment. Mr. Wan is also a director of a well-known electronics trading company, Yellow River Trading. To apply for the loan, Mr. Wan can:
I. Apply for a personal loan by assigning Yellow River Trading as the Guarantor.
II. Apply for a personal loan by assigning the subsidiaries of Yellow River Trading as the Guarantor.
III. Apply for a loan on behalf of Yangtze River Investment from Yellow River Trading.
IV. Apply for a personal loan using his director remuneration from Yellow River Trading as collateral.Correct
A company cannot directly or indirectly:
(a) make a loan to a director of the company or a body corporate controlled by such a director; or
(b) enter into a guarantee or provide security for such a loan
without the approval of its members.Incorrect
A company cannot directly or indirectly:
(a) make a loan to a director of the company or a body corporate controlled by such a director; or
(b) enter into a guarantee or provide security for such a loan
without the approval of its members.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.41
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Question 179 of 545
179. Question
1 pointsQID1112:Which of the following are exceptions to prohibitions on loans to a director?
I. A de minimum threshold of 5% of the net assets of the company before a transaction is subject to the restriction.
II. Expenditure in connection with defending any proceeding or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct provided that the directors has to repay the company if he is found guilty or to have committed the misconduct.
III. Expenses that are incurred by the director in the ordinary course of business.
IV. If the director is the sole owner of the company and he agrees to such arrangements.Correct
There are exceptions, such as the following:
(a) a de minimum threshold of 5% of the net assets of the company before a transaction is subject to the restriction; and
(b) expenditure in connection with defending any proceeding or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct provided that the directors has to repay the company if he is found guilty or to have committed the misconduct.Incorrect
There are exceptions, such as the following:
(a) a de minimum threshold of 5% of the net assets of the company before a transaction is subject to the restriction; and
(b) expenditure in connection with defending any proceeding or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct provided that the directors has to repay the company if he is found guilty or to have committed the misconduct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.44
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Question 180 of 545
180. Question
1 pointsQID161:Under normal circumstances, a company cannot directly or indirectly make a loan or guarantee to a director of its holding company or a body corporate controlled by such a director. However, which of the following are exceptions?
I. Making a loan of value not exceeding 5% of the company’s net assets.
II. The loan is made with the approval of the members of the company.
III. Expenditure on defending any proceeding, or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct of a director if such expenditure has to be repaid by the director to the company when he is convicted in the proceeding or has committed misconduct.
IV. The loan is made with the approval of the SFC.Correct
There are exceptions, such as the following:
(a) making a loan of value not exceeding 5% of the company’s net assets; and
(b) expenditure on defending any proceeding, or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct of a director if such expenditure has to be repaid by the director to the company when he is convicted in the proceeding or has committed the misconduct. Similarly, a company cannot directly or indirectly make a loan or guarantee to a director of its holding company or a body corporate controlled by such a director without the approvals
of its members and the holding companies’ members.Incorrect
There are exceptions, such as the following:
(a) making a loan of value not exceeding 5% of the company’s net assets; and
(b) expenditure on defending any proceeding, or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct of a director if such expenditure has to be repaid by the director to the company when he is convicted in the proceeding or has committed the misconduct. Similarly, a company cannot directly or indirectly make a loan or guarantee to a director of its holding company or a body corporate controlled by such a director without the approvals
of its members and the holding companies’ members.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.44
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Question 181 of 545
181. Question
1 pointsQID162:Which of the following entities can appoint investigators to investigate and report on the affairs of a company if the court declares that an investigation should be carried out?
Correct
The Financial Secretary is required to appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the affairs of a company if the court declares that an investigation should be carried out (s. 841, NCO).
Incorrect
The Financial Secretary is required to appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the affairs of a company if the court declares that an investigation should be carried out (s. 841, NCO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.46
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Question 182 of 545
182. Question
1 pointsQID1113:If the court declares that an investigation on a company’s affairs should be carried out, which of the following organization should appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the company?
Correct
The Financial Secretary is required to appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the affairs of a company if the court declares that an investigation should be carried out (s. 841, NCO).
Incorrect
The Financial Secretary is required to appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the affairs of a company if the court declares that an investigation should be carried out (s. 841, NCO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.46
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Question 183 of 545
183. Question
1 pointsQID2763:According to the Companies Ordinance, when can the Financial Secretary appoint an inspector to conduct an investigation into a company?
I. The company passes an ordinary resolution
II. The company passes a special resolution
III. Application by more than the nominated number of members
IV. The Financial Secretary considers that the company is involved in fraud or unfairly treating ordinary membersCorrect
Circumstances under which the Financial Secretary may appoint an inspector to conduct an investigation into a company under the Companies Ordinance include:
I. The company passes a special resolution
II. Application by more than the nominated number of members (100 or 10%)
III. The Financial Secretary considers that the company is involved in fraud or unfairly treating ordinary membersIncorrect
Circumstances under which the Financial Secretary may appoint an inspector to conduct an investigation into a company under the Companies Ordinance include:
I. The company passes a special resolution
II. Application by more than the nominated number of members (100 or 10%)
III. The Financial Secretary considers that the company is involved in fraud or unfairly treating ordinary membersHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.47
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Question 184 of 545
184. Question
1 pointsQID1114:The Financial Secretary is required to appoint inspectors under which of the following circumstances?
I. An application is made by the specified number of members.
II. The company passed a special resolution requesting such inspections.
III. He suspects fraud in the operations or formation of the company, or oppressive conduct, or an intent to defraud creditors.
IV. He suspects the persons concerned with the formation or management of the company have been guilty of fraud or other misconduct.Correct
The Financial Secretary may also appoint inspectors if:
(a) an application is made by the specified number of members;
(b) the company passes a special resolution requesting such appointment;
(c.) he suspects fraud in the business or formation of the company, or oppressive conduct, or an intent to defraud creditors; or
(d) he suspects the persons concerned with the formation or management of the company to have been guilty of fraud or other misconduct (ss. 840 to 841, NCO).Incorrect
The Financial Secretary may also appoint inspectors if:
(a) an application is made by the specified number of members;
(b) the company passes a special resolution requesting such appointment;
(c.) he suspects fraud in the business or formation of the company, or oppressive conduct, or an intent to defraud creditors; or
(d) he suspects the persons concerned with the formation or management of the company to have been guilty of fraud or other misconduct (ss. 840 to 841, NCO).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.47
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Question 185 of 545
185. Question
1 pointsQID1660:Under which of the following circumstances can the financial secretary investigate a listed issuer?
I. To clarify the ownership of the listed issuer.
II. To clarify the controller of the listed issuer.
III. Under the request of the SEHK
IV. Under the request of a prescribed amount of shareholders.Correct
The financial secretary investigate a listed issuer?
I. To clarify the ownership of the listed issuer.
II. To clarify the controller of the listed issuer.
III. Under the request of a prescribed amount of shareholders.Incorrect
The financial secretary investigate a listed issuer?
I. To clarify the ownership of the listed issuer.
II. To clarify the controller of the listed issuer.
III. Under the request of a prescribed amount of shareholders.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.47
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Question 186 of 545
186. Question
1 pointsQID1115:When a company is under investigation, all present and past officers and agents of the company, including bankers, solicitors and auditors, are required to:
I. Produce all books and records that they have (this includes power given to the inspector to enter premises and conduct searches)
II. Attend before the inspector when required and answer questions (on oath if so required by him)
III. Provide information to investigators, but bankers are exempted from providing information other than that relating to the company under inspection.
IV. Provide investigators with all reasonable assistance.Correct
All present and past officers and agents of the company, including bankers, solicitors and auditors, are required to:
(a) produce all books and records that they have (this includes power given to the inspector to enter premises and conduct searches);
(b) attend before the inspector when required and answer questions (on oath if so required by him); and
© otherwise give him all reasonable assistance.Incorrect
All present and past officers and agents of the company, including bankers, solicitors and auditors, are required to:
(a) produce all books and records that they have (this includes power given to the inspector to enter premises and conduct searches);
(b) attend before the inspector when required and answer questions (on oath if so required by him); and
© otherwise give him all reasonable assistance.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.48
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Question 187 of 545
187. Question
1 pointsQID136:Which of the following description about private company is correct?
I. Must have more than 50 members
II. May not offer shares to the public
III. restricts the right to transfer its share
IV. is not limited by guaranteeCorrect
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares; members and continue to be members respectively);
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Incorrect
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares; members and continue to be members respectively);
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.5
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Question 188 of 545
188. Question
1 pointsQID776:A private company is a company that:
I. Has no restrictions in rights to transfer its shares.
II. May not have more than 50 members.
III. May not offer shares to the public.
IV. Is not limited by guarantee.Correct
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Incorrect
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.5
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Question 189 of 545
189. Question
1 pointsQID775:Which of the following are characteristics of a private company?
I. Restrictions on the rights to transfer it shares.
II. No more than 50 share holders.
III. May not offer shares to the public.
IV. Can be bought and sold OTC on the market.Correct
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
(c.) may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Incorrect
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
(c.) may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.5
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Question 190 of 545
190. Question
1 pointsQID777:Which of the following restrictions about a private company is incorrect?
Correct
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.
A private company doesn’t have to be guarantee companies.Incorrect
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.
A private company doesn’t have to be guarantee companies.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.5
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Question 191 of 545
191. Question
1 pointsQID1116:Which of the following is a reason of compulsory liquidation?
Correct
A company may be wound up by the court if:
(a) it has by special resolution resolved that it shall be wound up by the court;
(c.) it has no membersIncorrect
A company may be wound up by the court if:
(a) it has by special resolution resolved that it shall be wound up by the court;
(c.) it has no membersHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.50
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Question 192 of 545
192. Question
1 pointsQID1117:Which of the following descriptions about compulsory liquidation is correct?
I. This is a compulsory winding-up ordered by the court.
II. The liquidator is appointed by the court and acts under its control.
III. The liquidator is appointed through a shareholders’ meeting and acts under the control of the directors.
IV. Liquidation is passed by a special resolution.Correct
This is a compulsory winding-up ordered by the court, and the liquidator is appointed by the court and acts under its control.
Incorrect
This is a compulsory winding-up ordered by the court, and the liquidator is appointed by the court and acts under its control.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.50
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Question 193 of 545
193. Question
1 pointsQID2826:Which of the following is less likely to be the main cause of compulsory winding up?
Correct
Unless the company has been out of business for more than a year at all, it is relatively unlikely that a company with a small amount of business remaining will be the primary reason for winding up.
Incorrect
Unless the company has been out of business for more than a year at all, it is relatively unlikely that a company with a small amount of business remaining will be the primary reason for winding up.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.51
-
Question 194 of 545
194. Question
1 pointsQID1118:Which of the following is NOT a possible reason for compulsory liquidation?
Correct
A company may be wound up by the court if:
(e) the event occurs on the occurrence of which the memorandum or articles of association provides that the company is to be dissolved; or
(f) the court is of the opinion that it would be just and equitable to wind up the company. Examples are where:
(ii) the company was formed for a fraudulent purpose; or
(iii) the basis of mutual trust, understanding and confidence on which the company was
formed no longer exists.Incorrect
A company may be wound up by the court if:
(e) the event occurs on the occurrence of which the memorandum or articles of association provides that the company is to be dissolved; or
(f) the court is of the opinion that it would be just and equitable to wind up the company. Examples are where:
(ii) the company was formed for a fraudulent purpose; or
(iii) the basis of mutual trust, understanding and confidence on which the company was
formed no longer exists.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.51
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Question 195 of 545
195. Question
1 pointsQID2673:The SFC are not authorised to use its power to
Correct
Only courst can windup companies.
Incorrect
Only courst can windup companies.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.51
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Question 196 of 545
196. Question
1 pointsQID146:According to the New Companies Ordinance, can shareholders/members petition to the court for a winding up of a company?
Correct
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(f) A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Incorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(f) A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.52
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Question 197 of 545
197. Question
1 pointsQID1119:Petitioners of compulsory liquidation may be:
I. The Official Receiver.
II. The SFC, in lieu of public interest.
III. The Chief Executive.
IV. The Registrar of Companies.Correct
The petitioners may be:
(e) the Registrar of Companies, if the company has breached provisions of the NCO or is being carried on for an unlawful purpose;
(f) the Official Receiver, where there is already a voluntary winding up (s. 179, CWUMPO); and
(g) the SFC, if it appears desirable in the public interest (SFO gives authority to the SFC).Incorrect
The petitioners may be:
(e) the Registrar of Companies, if the company has breached provisions of the NCO or is being carried on for an unlawful purpose;
(f) the Official Receiver, where there is already a voluntary winding up (s. 179, CWUMPO); and
(g) the SFC, if it appears desirable in the public interest (SFO gives authority to the SFC).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.52
-
Question 198 of 545
198. Question
1 pointsQID1120:Petitioner(s) of compulsory liquidation may NOT be:
Correct
The petitioners may be:
(a) the company;
(b) a creditor;
(d) the Financial Secretary, if he thinks it desirable in the public interest.Incorrect
The petitioners may be:
(a) the company;
(b) a creditor;
(d) the Financial Secretary, if he thinks it desirable in the public interest.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.52
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Question 199 of 545
199. Question
1 pointsQID1121:In the case of a compulsory liquidation, the liquidator should be appointed by:
Correct
The court may appoint a liquidator.
Incorrect
The court may appoint a liquidator.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.53
-
Question 200 of 545
200. Question
1 pointsQID1123:Which of the following can start a Voluntary liquidation?
I. Members
II. Debtors
III. Creditors
IV. DirectorsCorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
Incorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.54
-
Question 201 of 545
201. Question
1 pointsQID1124:Voluntary liquidation may be started by which of the following?
I. Shareholders
II. Creditors
III. Financial Secretary
IV. The Chief ExecutiveCorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
Incorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.54
-
Question 202 of 545
202. Question
1 pointsQID165:According the NCO, which of the following entities can start a voluntary liquidation?
I. Directors
II. Creditors
III. Members
IV. Financial SecretaryCorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors. There are fewer formalities than with a compulsory liquidation and this route is far more popular.
Incorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors. There are fewer formalities than with a compulsory liquidation and this route is far more popular.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.54
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Question 203 of 545
203. Question
1 pointsQID1122:Voluntary liquidation can be initiated by which of the following parties?
I. Directors
II. Members
III. Creditors
IV. CourtCorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
Incorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.54
-
Question 204 of 545
204. Question
1 pointsQID1125:Which of the following is/are valid reason(s) for voluntary liquidation?
I. The period of the company’s planned existence as stated in its articles of association comes to an end.
II. A special resolution has been passed to wind up the company.
III. A passing of a resolution that it is advisable to wind up the company, as it cannot continue due to its liabilities.
IV. The directors of a company or, in a case of a company having more than 2 directors, the majority of the directors deliver a winding-up statement under section 228A that the company should be wound up after passing a resolution to that effect at a board meeting.Correct
A voluntary winding-up is started:
(a) when the period fixed for the company’s duration as stated in its articles of association
comes to an end;
(b) by the passing of a special resolution for winding up; or
(c) if the directors of a company or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors deliver a winding-up statement under s. 228A, CWUMPO that the company should be wound up after passing a resolution to that effect at a board meeting. However, prior to no later than 28 days after the delivery of any winding-up statement to the Registrar of Companies to commence the winding-up, a meeting of the company must have been summoned and a provisional liquidator must have been appointed. In the case of a private company having only one director, the sole director may make the winding-up statement.Incorrect
A voluntary winding-up is started:
(a) when the period fixed for the company’s duration as stated in its articles of association
comes to an end;
(b) by the passing of a special resolution for winding up; or
(c) if the directors of a company or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors deliver a winding-up statement under s. 228A, CWUMPO that the company should be wound up after passing a resolution to that effect at a board meeting. However, prior to no later than 28 days after the delivery of any winding-up statement to the Registrar of Companies to commence the winding-up, a meeting of the company must have been summoned and a provisional liquidator must have been appointed. In the case of a private company having only one director, the sole director may make the winding-up statement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.55
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Question 205 of 545
205. Question
1 pointsQID1129:If the directors believe that a company can repay its debt and obligations according to the certificate of solvency, within how long should the company repay all its outstanding obligations?
Correct
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Incorrect
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.56
-
Question 206 of 545
206. Question
1 pointsQID1128:Which of the following are prerequisites to the issuance of Certificate of Solvency?
I. Agreed upon by a simple majority of directors.
II. Directors have made a full inquiry into the affairs of the company.
III. Directors have formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 1 month from the commencement of the winding up as specified in the certificate of solvency.
IV. Directors have formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Correct
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(a) made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company; and
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Incorrect
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(a) made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company; and
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.56
-
Question 207 of 545
207. Question
1 pointsQID2720:The document proving the company’s ability to pay its debts during the member’s (solvent) voluntary winding-up process is?
Correct
The document certifying the company’s ability to pay its debts during the members’ (solvent) voluntary winding-up is a certificate of solvency.
Incorrect
The document certifying the company’s ability to pay its debts during the members’ (solvent) voluntary winding-up is a certificate of solvency.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.56
-
Question 208 of 545
208. Question
1 pointsQID1126:Which of the following are the necessary prerequisites for a member’s voluntary winding-up to be undertaken?
I. The majority of the directors has issued a “certificate of solvency”.
II. The directors have made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company.
III. The directors have formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.
IV. The company has not been able to make a profit, or has not commenced business for the past year.Correct
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(a) made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company; and
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Incorrect
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(a) made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company; and
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.56
-
Question 209 of 545
209. Question
1 pointsQID1127:Voluntary liquidation can take place if the directors of a company or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors, can issue which of the following documents?
Correct
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency”.
Incorrect
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency”.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.56
-
Question 210 of 545
210. Question
1 pointsQID166:Which of the following statements about the “certificate of solvency” is correct?
I. It must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution to winding-up.
II. It must be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration.
III. “Certificate of solvency” should form the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months
IV. If the company fails to repay to its creditor after the “certificate of solvency” has been issued, the director of the company will be liable for such shortfall and may face criminal prosecution.Correct
A member’s voluntary winding-up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two
directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the five weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered, and must include a statement of the company’s assets and liabilities at the latest practicable date.Incorrect
A member’s voluntary winding-up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two
directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the five weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered, and must include a statement of the company’s assets and liabilities at the latest practicable date.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.57
-
Question 211 of 545
211. Question
1 pointsQID1131:The issuance of the “Certificate of Solvency” should be done:
Correct
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Incorrect
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.58
-
Question 212 of 545
212. Question
1 pointsQID1130:The certificate of solvency should be delivered to:
Correct
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Incorrect
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.58
-
Question 213 of 545
213. Question
1 pointsQID1132:The certificate of solvency should be issued within how long preceding the winding-up resolution?
Correct
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Incorrect
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.58
-
Question 214 of 545
214. Question
1 pointsQID164:Which of the following individuals cannot petition for a court winding-up?
Correct
The petitioners may be:
(a) the company;
(b) a creditor;
(c) a contributory (i.e. every person liable to contribute to the assets of a company in the event of its being wound up);
(d) the Financial Secretary, if he thinks it desirable in the public interest;
€ the Registrar of Companies, if the company has breached provisions of the NCO or is being carried on for an unlawful purpose;
(f) the Official Receiver, where there is already a voluntary winding up (s. 179, CWUMPO); and
(g) the SFC, if it appears desirable in the public interest (SFO gives authority to the SFC).Incorrect
The petitioners may be:
(a) the company;
(b) a creditor;
(c) a contributory (i.e. every person liable to contribute to the assets of a company in the event of its being wound up);
(d) the Financial Secretary, if he thinks it desirable in the public interest;
€ the Registrar of Companies, if the company has breached provisions of the NCO or is being carried on for an unlawful purpose;
(f) the Official Receiver, where there is already a voluntary winding up (s. 179, CWUMPO); and
(g) the SFC, if it appears desirable in the public interest (SFO gives authority to the SFC).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.59
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Question 215 of 545
215. Question
1 pointsQID1136:Which one of the following are accurate representations of creditors’ voluntary winding up?
I. Creditors’ voluntary winding up may be a result of failure in compulsory liquidation.
II. The company arranges a meeting of the creditors to be summoned for the day when the resolution to wind up is proposed or for the next day.
III. Advertisements will have to be run in the Gazette and newspapers.
IV. A statement of assets and liabilities, and a list of creditors and amounts due, will be presented to the meeting at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed.Correct
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Incorrect
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.59
-
Question 216 of 545
216. Question
1 pointsQID1135:If the creditors decide to summon a meeting for the day when the resolution to wind up is proposed or for the next day, what kind of documents will be presented to the meeting?
I. Articles of Association
II. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs
III. List of Proof of Debt provided by Creditors
IV. Balance Sheet of the companyCorrect
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Incorrect
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.59
-
Question 217 of 545
217. Question
1 pointsQID1134:If the creditors decide to summon a meeting for the day when the resolution to wind up is proposed or for the next day, the company must arrange advertisements to be run in the Gazette and newspapers. This form of liquidation is likely to be:
Correct
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Incorrect
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.59
-
Question 218 of 545
218. Question
1 pointsQID1133:The liquidator and committee of inspection of a creditors’ voluntary winding up may be appointed by:
Correct
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Incorrect
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.59
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Question 219 of 545
219. Question
1 pointsQID167:If a members’ voluntary winding-up is not applicable or practical, a creditors’ voluntary winding-up will take place. Which of the following entities will monitor such winding-up?
Correct
Committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Incorrect
Committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.59
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Question 220 of 545
220. Question
1 pointsQID135:Which of the following statements correctly describe public company under the new company ordinance?
I. It is a company that is not a private company.
II. It is a company that is not a guarantee company.
III. It must have more than 50 members.
IV. It restricts the right to transfer its shares.Correct
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company. It also has more than 50 members, contrary to a private company.
Incorrect
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company. It also has more than 50 members, contrary to a private company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
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Question 221 of 545
221. Question
1 pointsQID1051:Which of the following descriptions about a public company is correct?
Correct
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company.
Incorrect
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
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Question 222 of 545
222. Question
1 pointsQID1052:A public company is one that:
I. Is not a private company.
II. Is not a guarantee company.
III. Must be a listed company.
IV. May not be a listed company.Correct
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company.
Incorrect
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
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Question 223 of 545
223. Question
1 pointsQID130:Which of the following is not a contract?
Correct
A contract is an agreement between two or more persons creating obligations that are enforceable or otherwise recognisable under law, for example:
(a) the purchase or sale of a security or futures contract;
(b) the acceptance by an investor of an initial public offer of securities made by an issuer;
© an undertaking to manage a mutual fund; and
(d) the purchase of a leveraged foreign exchange contract.
Case D doesn’t comply with these requirements.Incorrect
A contract is an agreement between two or more persons creating obligations that are enforceable or otherwise recognisable under law, for example:
(a) the purchase or sale of a security or futures contract;
(b) the acceptance by an investor of an initial public offer of securities made by an issuer;
© an undertaking to manage a mutual fund; and
(d) the purchase of a leveraged foreign exchange contract.
Case D doesn’t comply with these requirements.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.60
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Question 224 of 545
224. Question
1 pointsQID1137:Which of the following is not an example of making a contract?
Correct
A contract is an agreement between two or more persons creating obligations that are enforceable or otherwise recognisable under law, for example:
(a) the purchase or sale of a security or futures contract;
(b) the acceptance by an investor of an initial public offer of securities made by an issuer;
(c.) an undertaking to manage a mutual fund.Incorrect
A contract is an agreement between two or more persons creating obligations that are enforceable or otherwise recognisable under law, for example:
(a) the purchase or sale of a security or futures contract;
(b) the acceptance by an investor of an initial public offer of securities made by an issuer;
(c.) an undertaking to manage a mutual fund.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.60
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Question 225 of 545
225. Question
1 pointsQID1139:Which of the following conditions will make the contract void?
I. One party was forced into a contract under pressure.
II. A contract has illegal elements.
III. One or both parties are underage or mentally ill.
IV. The contract would result in financial damages to one party.Correct
The elements of a legally binding contract are the following:
(d) the parties must have legal capacity, i.e. they must be at least 18 years of age and have no mental impairment; thus, if a securities dealer enters into a contract with a minor, the dealer may be at risk if the minor disclaims his commitments
(e) a contract may be unenforceable if it has an illegal element, and thus an intermediary may face legal risk; and
(f) the parties must have given their consent to the contract without any form of pressure; if a party was forced to enter into the contract under pressure, the contract will be void.Incorrect
The elements of a legally binding contract are the following:
(d) the parties must have legal capacity, i.e. they must be at least 18 years of age and have no mental impairment; thus, if a securities dealer enters into a contract with a minor, the dealer may be at risk if the minor disclaims his commitments
(e) a contract may be unenforceable if it has an illegal element, and thus an intermediary may face legal risk; and
(f) the parties must have given their consent to the contract without any form of pressure; if a party was forced to enter into the contract under pressure, the contract will be void.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.61
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Question 226 of 545
226. Question
1 pointsQID1138:Which of the following is NOT an element of a legal contract?
Correct
The elements of a legally binding contract are the following:
(a) an intention to create legal obligations;
(c.) there is valuable consideration, which can include an agreement not to sue under the contract; a contract under deed does not need consideration;
(d) the parties must have legal capacity, i.e. they must be at least 18 years of age and have no mental impairment; thus, if a securities dealer enters into a contract with a minor, the dealer may be at risk if the minor disclaims his commitmentsIncorrect
The elements of a legally binding contract are the following:
(a) an intention to create legal obligations;
(c.) there is valuable consideration, which can include an agreement not to sue under the contract; a contract under deed does not need consideration;
(d) the parties must have legal capacity, i.e. they must be at least 18 years of age and have no mental impairment; thus, if a securities dealer enters into a contract with a minor, the dealer may be at risk if the minor disclaims his commitmentsHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.61
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Question 227 of 545
227. Question
1 pointsQID1140:Which of the following descriptions about contracts are correct?
I. Can be expressly agreed or implied.
II. Contracts must be a form of warranty.
III. A warranty is a term of a contract which is of considerable importance such that a breach of a condition might lead to repudiation by the innocent party or a claim for damage.
IV. There can be conditions precedent (which must be met) or conditions subsequent which, if they fail, may lead to repudiation of the contract.Correct
The terms of the contract are important:
(a) They can be expressly agreed or implied (the terms may be implied by court or by common law).
(b) They can be conditions or warranties; a condition is a term of a contract which is of considerable importance such that a breach of a condition might lead to repudiation by the innocent party or a claim for damages; a warranty is a term of lesser importance such that a breach of a warranty may only lead to a claim for damages by an injured party.
(c.) There can be conditions precedent (which must be met) or conditions subsequent which, if they fail, may lead to repudiation of the contract.Incorrect
The terms of the contract are important:
(a) They can be expressly agreed or implied (the terms may be implied by court or by common law).
(b) They can be conditions or warranties; a condition is a term of a contract which is of considerable importance such that a breach of a condition might lead to repudiation by the innocent party or a claim for damages; a warranty is a term of lesser importance such that a breach of a warranty may only lead to a claim for damages by an injured party.
(c.) There can be conditions precedent (which must be met) or conditions subsequent which, if they fail, may lead to repudiation of the contract.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.62
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Question 228 of 545
228. Question
1 pointsQID1141:Which of the following descriptions about agency laws is correct?
Correct
Agency is a fiduciary relationship (see section 3.66 below) created by express or implied contract or by law, in which one party, the agent, may act on behalf of another, the principal, and bind the principal by those of his words or actions that are within the scope of his agency.
Incorrect
Agency is a fiduciary relationship (see section 3.66 below) created by express or implied contract or by law, in which one party, the agent, may act on behalf of another, the principal, and bind the principal by those of his words or actions that are within the scope of his agency.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.63
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Question 229 of 545
229. Question
1 pointsQID1142:Agency laws can be applied to which of the following cases?
I. A stock broker and his client.
II. A trustee and a beneficiary.
III. An auditor and a company.
IV. Solicitors and his clients.Correct
The law of agency has an important impact on financial services. For example, a stockbroker can be an agent for his client, and an account executive may be considered the agent of his employer.
Incorrect
The law of agency has an important impact on financial services. For example, a stockbroker can be an agent for his client, and an account executive may be considered the agent of his employer.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.64
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Question 230 of 545
230. Question
1 pointsQID907:Is the principal liable for the acts of wrongdoing of his/her/its agent?
Correct
The principal liable for the acts of wrongdoing of his/her/its agent.
Incorrect
The principal liable for the acts of wrongdoing of his/her/its agent.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.65
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Question 231 of 545
231. Question
1 pointsQID1143:Which of the following statements correctly describes fiduciary relationships?
I. A fiduciary relationship must be either business or monetary interest to both parties.
II. A fiduciary is a person who should be serviced with duties of good faith, trust, confidence, honesty and care by another person.
III. All fiduciary relationships are agencies.
IV. All agencies are fiduciary relationships.Correct
A fiduciary is a person who owes another person duties of good faith, trust, confidence, honesty and care. A fiduciary relationship is one in which one person has a duty to act for the benefit of the other on matters within the scope of their relationship. Examples of fiduciary relationships are those of stockbroker and client, principal and agent, solicitor and client, and trustee and beneficiary.
Incorrect
A fiduciary is a person who owes another person duties of good faith, trust, confidence, honesty and care. A fiduciary relationship is one in which one person has a duty to act for the benefit of the other on matters within the scope of their relationship. Examples of fiduciary relationships are those of stockbroker and client, principal and agent, solicitor and client, and trustee and beneficiary.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.66
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Question 232 of 545
232. Question
1 pointsQID2578:Which of the following best explains the basis of fiduciary relationship between a stockbroker and a client who signed a client agreement?
Correct
A fiduciary relationship means when the fiduciary, here this means the stockbroker, has a duty to act for the best benefit of the other person, meaning the client in this case. The written agreement is only a record of the relationship.
Incorrect
A fiduciary relationship means when the fiduciary, here this means the stockbroker, has a duty to act for the best benefit of the other person, meaning the client in this case. The written agreement is only a record of the relationship.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.66
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Question 233 of 545
233. Question
1 pointsQID129:Which of the following branches of law is intended to provide remedies for individuals or businesses that have suffered loss as a result of the actions of another person?
Correct
Civil law is intended to provide remedies for individuals or businesses that have suffered loss as a result of the actions of another person. Unlike criminal law, civil law is not primarily intended to punish the wrongdoer
Incorrect
Civil law is intended to provide remedies for individuals or businesses that have suffered loss as a result of the actions of another person. Unlike criminal law, civil law is not primarily intended to punish the wrongdoer
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.67
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Question 234 of 545
234. Question
1 pointsQID1659:Which of the followings is an example of tort?
Correct
A tort are losses that incur without a contractual relationship in place. The careless mistake is not a part of the contract and thus is a tort.
Incorrect
A tort are losses that incur without a contractual relationship in place. The careless mistake is not a part of the contract and thus is a tort.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.67
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Question 235 of 545
235. Question
1 pointsQID1144:Which of the following descriptions about law of tort are correct?
I. Law of tort is used in civil law cases.
II. Law of tort are based on ancient roman laws.
III. When parties who have no contractual relationship are in a situation where one party suffers loss or damage as a result of the act of the other, a wrong or tort may have occurred and under civil law a liability may have arisen.
IV. The tort of negligence is a tort committed as a result of a failure to observe the standard of care expected under the law in a particular case.Correct
When parties who have no contractual relationship are in a situation where one party suffers loss or damage as a result of the act of the other, a wrong or tort may have occurred, and under civil law a liability may have arisen. There are various branches of the law of tort, of which the tort of negligence has the most direct application to securities and futures business. The tort of negligence is one committed as a result of a failure to observe the standard of care expected under law in a particular case.
Incorrect
When parties who have no contractual relationship are in a situation where one party suffers loss or damage as a result of the act of the other, a wrong or tort may have occurred, and under civil law a liability may have arisen. There are various branches of the law of tort, of which the tort of negligence has the most direct application to securities and futures business. The tort of negligence is one committed as a result of a failure to observe the standard of care expected under law in a particular case.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.67
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Question 236 of 545
236. Question
1 pointsQID128:According to the Securities & Futures Ordinance and other regulation governing the securities industry,
Correct
Civil law is intended to provide remedies for individuals or businesses that have suffered loss as a result of the actions of another person. Unlike criminal law, civil law is not primarily intended to punish the wrongdoer.
Incorrect
Civil law is intended to provide remedies for individuals or businesses that have suffered loss as a result of the actions of another person. Unlike criminal law, civil law is not primarily intended to punish the wrongdoer.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.67
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Question 237 of 545
237. Question
1 pointsQID127:Which of the following descriptions about civil law and criminal law is correct?
Correct
Unlike criminal law, civil law is not
primarily intended to punish the wrongdoer. The injured party, the plaintiff, brings the action for damages, compensation, redress or other remedy, such as the special equitable ones mentioned earlier, against the person causing the injury, who is the defendant. The court order or award is made if the plaintiff can prove his claim on “the balance of probabilities”. This is a standard of proof that is much less stringent than the level of “beyond reasonable
doubt” required in a criminal case. The case is brought in a civil court in the name of the plaintiff against the defendant.Incorrect
Unlike criminal law, civil law is not
primarily intended to punish the wrongdoer. The injured party, the plaintiff, brings the action for damages, compensation, redress or other remedy, such as the special equitable ones mentioned earlier, against the person causing the injury, who is the defendant. The court order or award is made if the plaintiff can prove his claim on “the balance of probabilities”. This is a standard of proof that is much less stringent than the level of “beyond reasonable
doubt” required in a criminal case. The case is brought in a civil court in the name of the plaintiff against the defendant.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.67
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Question 238 of 545
238. Question
1 pointsQID1145:Which of the following statements correctly describe the employment laws?
I. An employer must provide his employee with remuneration, indemnity for expenses, losses and liabilities incurred while performing his duties.
II. An employee must demonstrate skills and competence, faithful service, obedience and confidentiality.
III. A director service is considered as an employment relationship by the company ordinance.
IV. If the two parties fail to observe these basic elements in the relationship, there can be a breach of the law as well as of the contractual relationship between them.Correct
Under common law, an employer must provide his employee with remuneration, indemnity for expenses, losses and liabilities incurred while performing his duties, and a safe working
environment.
Also, under common law, an employee must demonstrate skills and competence, faithful service, obedience and confidentiality.
If the two parties fail to observe these basic elements in the relationship, there can be a breach of the law as well as of the contractual relationship between them.Incorrect
Under common law, an employer must provide his employee with remuneration, indemnity for expenses, losses and liabilities incurred while performing his duties, and a safe working
environment.
Also, under common law, an employee must demonstrate skills and competence, faithful service, obedience and confidentiality.
If the two parties fail to observe these basic elements in the relationship, there can be a breach of the law as well as of the contractual relationship between them.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.69&70&71
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Question 239 of 545
239. Question
1 pointsQID1043:Which of the following is a correct description of a guarantee company?
Correct
A guarantee company is one that:
(a) does not have a share capital; and
(b) the liability of its members is limited by the company’s articles to the amount that the members undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up.Incorrect
A guarantee company is one that:
(a) does not have a share capital; and
(b) the liability of its members is limited by the company’s articles to the amount that the members undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.7
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Question 240 of 545
240. Question
1 pointsQID1044:A guarantee company is one that:
I. does not have a share capital.
II. is not a private company.
III. the liability of its members is limited by the company’s articles to the amount that the members undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up.
IV. does not have a director.Correct
A guarantee company is one that:
(a) does not have a share capital; and
(b) the liability of its members is limited by the company’s articles to the amount that the members undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up.Incorrect
A guarantee company is one that:
(a) does not have a share capital; and
(b) the liability of its members is limited by the company’s articles to the amount that the members undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.7
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Question 241 of 545
241. Question
1 pointsQID501:Which of the follow ordinance/codes/rules protect the privacy of individuals in relation to their personal data?
Correct
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data.
Incorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 242 of 545
242. Question
1 pointsQID2394:People who enforce the Privacy Ordinance are:
Correct
People who enforce the Privacy Ordinance are the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.
Incorrect
People who enforce the Privacy Ordinance are the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 243 of 545
243. Question
1 pointsQID502:According to the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance, personal data refers to:
Correct
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Incorrect
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 244 of 545
244. Question
1 pointsQID805:Which of the following are classified as personal data under the PDPO?
I. Data relating directly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly ascertained.
II. Data relating indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly ascertained.
III. Data relating directly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be indirectly ascertained.
IV. Data relating indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be indirectly ascertained.Correct
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Incorrect
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 245 of 545
245. Question
1 pointsQID808:The PDPO is applicable to which of the following individuals?
I. The user of personal data
II. The collector of personal data
III. The holder of personal data
IV. The processor of personal dataCorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data. It applies to any data user who, in relation to personal data, means a person who alone or jointly, or in common with other persons, controls the collection, holding, processing or use of the data.
Incorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data. It applies to any data user who, in relation to personal data, means a person who alone or jointly, or in common with other persons, controls the collection, holding, processing or use of the data.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 246 of 545
246. Question
1 pointsQID1147:Which of the following is responsible for the enforcement of Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance?
Correct
The Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data is an independent public officer appointed to enforce and promote compliance with the PDPO.
Incorrect
The Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data is an independent public officer appointed to enforce and promote compliance with the PDPO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 247 of 545
247. Question
1 pointsQID1146:Under the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance, the subject is entitled to which of the following rights?
I. The subject shall be notified about the purpose of collection of personal data.
II. The subject’s personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for any purpose other than that for which it was collected or a directly related purpose
III. The data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject are held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object.
IV. The subject’s personal data shall not be collected unless lawfully and fairly collected for a lawful purpose directly related to a function or activity of the data user, the collection is necessary for or directly related to that purpose and the data is not excessive for the purpose.Correct
(a) Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
(i) Personal data shall not be collected unless for a lawful purpose directly related to a function or activity of the data user, and unless the collection is necessary for or directly related to that purpose and the data is not excessive for the purpose.
(ii) Where the data is collected from the data subject, he should be informed, at the prescribed times, of the purpose for which the data is to be used, the classes of persons to whom the data may be transferred and of his rights to access and to request the correction of the data.
(c) Principle 3 – use of personal data
Personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for a new purpose.
(f) Principle 6 – access to personal data
A data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject is held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data, and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object to the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.Incorrect
(a) Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
(i) Personal data shall not be collected unless for a lawful purpose directly related to a function or activity of the data user, and unless the collection is necessary for or directly related to that purpose and the data is not excessive for the purpose.
(ii) Where the data is collected from the data subject, he should be informed, at the prescribed times, of the purpose for which the data is to be used, the classes of persons to whom the data may be transferred and of his rights to access and to request the correction of the data.
(c) Principle 3 – use of personal data
Personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for a new purpose.
(f) Principle 6 – access to personal data
A data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject is held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data, and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object to the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.73
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Question 248 of 545
248. Question
1 pointsQID2838:The data protection principles set out in the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) do not include
Correct
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy of Personal Data and Retention Period
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataIncorrect
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy of Personal Data and Retention Period
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.73
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Question 249 of 545
249. Question
1 pointsQID2827:Registration and Electoral Office lost a notebook computer containing voters’ information. This is more likely to violate
Correct
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy of Personal Data and Retention Period
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataIncorrect
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and ma