English HKSI Paper 2 Topic 1
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 567
1. Question
1 pointsQID2680:Which of the following description does not fit financial regulators in Hong Kong?
Correct
Decisions made by the regulators can be overturned or overruled.
Incorrect
Decisions made by the regulators can be overturned or overruled.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.1
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Question 2 of 567
2. Question
1 pointsQID1034:Globalisation and advances in technology have enabled investors to
I. Participate in different markets
II. Arbitrage between markets
III. Arbitrage between products
IV. Increase investment returns by diversifyingCorrect
Globalisation and advances in technology have enabled investors to move rapidly from one market to another, arbitraging between markets, products and transactions.
The main purpose of diversification is not to increase investment returns, but to reduce risk.Incorrect
Globalisation and advances in technology have enabled investors to move rapidly from one market to another, arbitraging between markets, products and transactions.
The main purpose of diversification is not to increase investment returns, but to reduce risk.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.1
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Question 3 of 567
3. Question
1 pointsQID780:Which of the following demands have to be satisfied by the wide range of financial products and services available in Hong Kong?
I. Meet demands for investmentII. Employment opportunities for locals
III. Employment opportunities for expatriates
IV. Capital and investment protection
Correct
Hong Kong’s status as an international financial centre is reflected in the wide range of financial products and services available in Hong Kong, developed to meet demands for investment, capital and income formation and capital raising, the facilitation of cash and capital flows, capital and investment protection (for example, hedging), safe custody and security, speculation and insurance. The financial markets also provide an avenue for price discovery and liquidity of investments.
Incorrect
Hong Kong’s status as an international financial centre is reflected in the wide range of financial products and services available in Hong Kong, developed to meet demands for investment, capital and income formation and capital raising, the facilitation of cash and capital flows, capital and investment protection (for example, hedging), safe custody and security, speculation and insurance. The financial markets also provide an avenue for price discovery and liquidity of investments.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.1
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Question 4 of 567
4. Question
1 pointsQID784:A risk-based regulatory system refers to a system in which:
Correct
The regulatory approach adopted by the SFC is a risk-based one, meaning that regulation is weighted towards the areas where the SFC perceives the highest risk to lie.
Incorrect
The regulatory approach adopted by the SFC is a risk-based one, meaning that regulation is weighted towards the areas where the SFC perceives the highest risk to lie.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 5 of 567
5. Question
1 pointsQID785:The SFC regime adopts which of the following regulatory approaches?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 6 of 567
6. Question
1 pointsQID782:The SFC is a/an _______ in Hong Kong.
Correct
The SFC was created by law under the Securities and Futures Commission Ordinance (now repealed and subsumed in the SFO). It is independent, meaning that it is not part of the
Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government as described in section 2 above. It is considered the securities and futures market prime regulator.Incorrect
The SFC was created by law under the Securities and Futures Commission Ordinance (now repealed and subsumed in the SFO). It is independent, meaning that it is not part of the
Government machinery of the Civil Service or the ministerial system. Nevertheless, it reports to and is accountable to the Government as described in section 2 above. It is considered the securities and futures market prime regulator.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 7 of 567
7. Question
1 pointsQID10:Which approach to regulation is adopted by the SFC to regulate securities and futures markets?
Correct
The SFC adopts a“risk-based”approach towards regulations. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
The SFC adopts a“risk-based”approach towards regulations. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 8 of 567
8. Question
1 pointsQID786:Which of the following regulatory approaches adopted by the SFC is given more regulatory attention towards the areas where the SFC perceives the highest risks to lie?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
-
Question 9 of 567
9. Question
1 pointsQID783:What approach does the SFC take to regulate market intermediaries?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 10 of 567
10. Question
1 pointsQID3103:Which of the following best describes the role of the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) in Hong Kong?
Correct
The SFC’s role includes the supervision of licensed corporations and their associated entities, focusing on areas where it perceives the highest risk. It is not primarily responsible for regulating international trade laws, supervising the banking system, or providing cybersecurity training.
Incorrect
The SFC’s role includes the supervision of licensed corporations and their associated entities, focusing on areas where it perceives the highest risk. It is not primarily responsible for regulating international trade laws, supervising the banking system, or providing cybersecurity training.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 11 of 567
11. Question
1 pointsQID3080:What is the primary approach adopted by the SFC for regulating market intermediaries?
Correct
The SFC employs a risk-based supervision approach, focusing on regulation in areas where the risks are perceived to be greatest to ensure the integrity and stability of the financial markets.
Incorrect
The SFC employs a risk-based supervision approach, focusing on regulation in areas where the risks are perceived to be greatest to ensure the integrity and stability of the financial markets.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 12 of 567
12. Question
1 pointsQID3076:Which of the following entities is responsible for the regulation of securities-related products such as equities, warrants, and bonds in Hong Kong?
Correct
The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is the principal regulator of the securities industry in Hong Kong, overseeing the regulation and discipline of participants in the securities and futures markets. The SFC adopts a risk-based regulatory approach, focusing on areas perceived to have the highest risk. In contrast, HKMA is Hong Kong’s central banking institution, SEHK is a securities exchange, and HKFE is a futures exchange, making options A, B, and D incorrect.
Incorrect
The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is the principal regulator of the securities industry in Hong Kong, overseeing the regulation and discipline of participants in the securities and futures markets. The SFC adopts a risk-based regulatory approach, focusing on areas perceived to have the highest risk. In contrast, HKMA is Hong Kong’s central banking institution, SEHK is a securities exchange, and HKFE is a futures exchange, making options A, B, and D incorrect.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 13 of 567
13. Question
1 pointsQID787:Which of the following regulatory approach is adopted by the SFC?
Correct
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Incorrect
An expression used by the SFC to explain its approach to regulation is that it is “risk-based”. This basically means that regulation is weighted towards the areas that pose the greatest risk to the markets and the participants.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
-
Question 14 of 567
14. Question
1 pointsQID781:The principal regulator of the securities industry in Hong Kong is the
Correct
The principal regulator of the securities industry in Hong Kong is the SFC, which assumes responsibility for front-line regulation and discipline of participants trading on the securities and futures exchanges and also of other securities intermediaries.
Incorrect
The principal regulator of the securities industry in Hong Kong is the SFC, which assumes responsibility for front-line regulation and discipline of participants trading on the securities and futures exchanges and also of other securities intermediaries.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.2
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Question 15 of 567
15. Question
1 pointsQID2832:Which of the following is not a financial regulator in Hong Kong?
Correct
The Securities Commission option is wrong, the correct name is Securities and Futures Commission.
Incorrect
The Securities Commission option is wrong, the correct name is Securities and Futures Commission.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
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Question 16 of 567
16. Question
1 pointsQID1188:Which of the following organizations cooperate closely with the SFC on issues of common interest?
I. HKMA
II. Companies Registry
III. Inland Revenue Department
IV. Hong Kong Exchanges and ClearingCorrect
There are fewer opportunities for cooperation between the SFCand the tax bureau than other agencies.
Incorrect
There are fewer opportunities for cooperation between the SFCand the tax bureau than other agencies.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
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Question 17 of 567
17. Question
1 pointsQID1658:Hong Kong Financial Regulatory Regime is
Correct
Hong Kong Financial Regulatory Regime is able to address new and complex financial products.
Incorrect
Hong Kong Financial Regulatory Regime is able to address new and complex financial products.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
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Question 18 of 567
18. Question
1 pointsQID903:Which of the following are not common objectives of financial regulators in Hong Kong?
I. Promote intervention to enhance international and local market confidence.
II. Provide investment advice to retail investors
III. Encourage the installation of a sound technical infrastructure for the functioning of the financial markets
IV. Ensure that the legal framework of financial regulation is certain, adequate and fairly enforcedCorrect
Frequent Intervention is not an objective of financial regulators in Hong Kong. Providing Investment advice is not a job that regulators will do, it’s the job of intermediaries.
Incorrect
Frequent Intervention is not an objective of financial regulators in Hong Kong. Providing Investment advice is not a job that regulators will do, it’s the job of intermediaries.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.3
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Question 19 of 567
19. Question
1 pointsQID3077:Which of the following products are included in the securities-related products addressed by the manual for the licensing regime?
I. Unit trusts/mutual funds
II. Equity linked instruments
III. Virtual assets regarded as securities IV. Exchange-traded futuresCorrect
Unit trusts/mutual funds (I), equity-linked instruments(II), and virtual assets regarded as securities (III) are traded on SEHK. However, Exchange-traded futures (IV) are traded on HKFE.
Incorrect
Unit trusts/mutual funds (I), equity-linked instruments(II), and virtual assets regarded as securities (III) are traded on SEHK. However, Exchange-traded futures (IV) are traded on HKFE.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.4
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Question 20 of 567
20. Question
1 pointsQID3073:Which of the following securities-related products is NOT traded on The Stock Exchange of Hong Kong Limited (SEHK)?
Correct
Exchange-traded futures are traded on the Hong Kong Futures Exchange Limited (HKFE) and not on The Stock Exchange of Hong Kong Limited (SEHK), making option D the correct answer.
Incorrect
Exchange-traded futures are traded on the Hong Kong Futures Exchange Limited (HKFE) and not on The Stock Exchange of Hong Kong Limited (SEHK), making option D the correct answer.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.4
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Question 21 of 567
21. Question
1 pointsQID3074:Which of the following are securities-related products addressed in the context of the licensing regime?
I. Equities
II. Bonds and other debt instruments
III. Equity linked instruments
IV. Standard futures contractsCorrect
Equities (I), bonds and other debt instruments (II), and equity-linked instruments (III) are securities-related products under the licensing regime. However, Standard futures contracts (IV) are not regarded as securities-related products.
Incorrect
Equities (I), bonds and other debt instruments (II), and equity-linked instruments (III) are securities-related products under the licensing regime. However, Standard futures contracts (IV) are not regarded as securities-related products.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.4
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Question 22 of 567
22. Question
1 pointsQID790:Which of the following categories does not fall under the securities and futures services in Hong Kong?
Correct
Advising a trust is not a securities and futures service in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
Advising a trust is not a securities and futures service in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.6
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Question 23 of 567
23. Question
1 pointsQID789:Which of the following activities falls under Hong Kong’s securities and futures services?
I. Trading securities on behalf of clients on the Stock Exchange of Hong Kong (SEHK).
II. Providing margin financing and accommodation on securities trading
III. Acting as an “introducing agent”
IV. Conducting stock borrowing and lending transactions.Correct
All of these services fall under Hong Kong’s securities and futures services.
Incorrect
All of these services fall under Hong Kong’s securities and futures services.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.6
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Question 24 of 567
24. Question
1 pointsQID4:Which of the following activities is a financial service provided by a financial intermediary?
Correct
Financial intermediaries must be compensated to be classified as providers of financial transactions and services. Establishing a tutorial company offers educational services, not financial ones. Managing assets without compensation doesn’t fall under financial services. Therefore, signing a rental agreement for a bank, which is not a financial contract but a real estate contract, is not considered a financial intermediary service. However, loaning money to others and charging interest for the principal is a financial service that involves compensation for a financial transaction.
Incorrect
Financial intermediaries must be compensated to be classified as providers of financial transactions and services. Establishing a tutorial company offers educational services, not financial ones. Managing assets without compensation doesn’t fall under financial services. Therefore, signing a rental agreement for a bank, which is not a financial contract but a real estate contract, is not considered a financial intermediary service. However, loaning money to others and charging interest for the principal is a financial service that involves compensation for a financial transaction.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.6
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Question 25 of 567
25. Question
1 pointsQID2674:Which of the following activity is subject to supervision by the financial regulators?
Correct
Providing loans and collecting interest is money lending and is a regulated financial intermediary activity.
Incorrect
Providing loans and collecting interest is money lending and is a regulated financial intermediary activity.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.6
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Question 26 of 567
26. Question
1 pointsQID792:Which of the following individuals/institutions is NOT a provider of securities and futures investment products and services in Hong Kong?
Correct
Intermediaries are providers of securities and futures investment products and services in Hong Kong. Institutional investors are participants but not providers.
Incorrect
Intermediaries are providers of securities and futures investment products and services in Hong Kong. Institutional investors are participants but not providers.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.7
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Question 27 of 567
27. Question
1 pointsQID5:Which of the followings is not a financial service provider?
Correct
In financial markets, providers of financial products and services include principals and intermediaries. Fund managers, stockbrokers, and independent financial advisers are all intermediaries. Auditors are professionals supporting financial markets.
Incorrect
In financial markets, providers of financial products and services include principals and intermediaries. Fund managers, stockbrokers, and independent financial advisers are all intermediaries. Auditors are professionals supporting financial markets.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.7
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Question 28 of 567
28. Question
1 pointsQID791:Which of the following are major providers of securities investment and advisory service in Hong Kong?
I. An intermediary trading securities on the Stock Exchange of Hong Kong Limited (SEHK)
II. An intermediary acting on behalf of a foreign intermediary
III. An underwriter
IV. Insurance companiesCorrect
The principal service providers in the securities investment and advising business are:
(a) intermediaries who are participants of the SEHK;
(b) intermediaries who act for foreign securities companies;
(c) underwriters;
(d) fund and portfolio managers;
(e) approved agents who introduce clients to exchange participants or other brokers but do not handle client assets;
(f) corporate finance advisers;
(g) advisers to retail investors;
(h) virtual asset service providers;
(i) financial planners for collective investment schemes (“CISs”);
(j) securities analysts;
(k) licensed banks;
(l) trust companies;
(m) securities margin financiers;
(n) support service providers: lawyers, accountants, auditors and valuers;
(o) listed companies;
(p) financial journalists and radio broadcasters;
(q) market operators who provide exchange and/or clearing functions for transactions in securities, i.e. HKEX, including the SEHK and Hong Kong Securities Clearing Company Limited;
(r) The Investor Compensation Company Limited (“ICC”): the ICC is an independent company recognised by the SFC for dealing with investor compensation matters;
(s) ATS providers: provide by means of electronic facilities, a trading mechanism for securities and futures contracts other than the operations of a recognised exchange company or a recognised clearing house (at the moment this would only cover the SEHK, HKFE and their related clearing houses), for example, trade confirmation and matching systems provided by brokers;
(t) exchanges from outside Hong Kong: there are dealers in Hong Kong who provide local investors with access to overseas exchanges;
(u) share registrars (who have formed a Federation of Share Registrars, with the approval of the SFC) providing share registry services to issuers of listed securities; and
(v) nominee companies that hold client assets of intermediaries.Incorrect
The principal service providers in the securities investment and advising business are:
(a) intermediaries who are participants of the SEHK;
(b) intermediaries who act for foreign securities companies;
(c) underwriters;
(d) fund and portfolio managers;
(e) approved agents who introduce clients to exchange participants or other brokers but do not handle client assets;
(f) corporate finance advisers;
(g) advisers to retail investors;
(h) virtual asset service providers;
(i) financial planners for collective investment schemes (“CISs”);
(j) securities analysts;
(k) licensed banks;
(l) trust companies;
(m) securities margin financiers;
(n) support service providers: lawyers, accountants, auditors and valuers;
(o) listed companies;
(p) financial journalists and radio broadcasters;
(q) market operators who provide exchange and/or clearing functions for transactions in securities, i.e. HKEX, including the SEHK and Hong Kong Securities Clearing Company Limited;
(r) The Investor Compensation Company Limited (“ICC”): the ICC is an independent company recognised by the SFC for dealing with investor compensation matters;
(s) ATS providers: provide by means of electronic facilities, a trading mechanism for securities and futures contracts other than the operations of a recognised exchange company or a recognised clearing house (at the moment this would only cover the SEHK, HKFE and their related clearing houses), for example, trade confirmation and matching systems provided by brokers;
(t) exchanges from outside Hong Kong: there are dealers in Hong Kong who provide local investors with access to overseas exchanges;
(u) share registrars (who have formed a Federation of Share Registrars, with the approval of the SFC) providing share registry services to issuers of listed securities; and
(v) nominee companies that hold client assets of intermediaries.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.7
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Question 29 of 567
29. Question
1 pointsQID3081:Which of the following entities provides electronic facilities for trading and clearing mechanisms for securities and futures contracts, other than the operations of a recognized exchange company or a recognized clearing house?
Correct
ATS providers offer electronic facilities that include both trading and clearing mechanisms for securities and futures contracts, which are distinct from the operations of recognized exchange companies or recognized clearing houses.
Incorrect
ATS providers offer electronic facilities that include both trading and clearing mechanisms for securities and futures contracts, which are distinct from the operations of recognized exchange companies or recognized clearing houses.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.1.7
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Question 30 of 567
30. Question
1 pointsQID2718:Which of the following is not a common consequence of inadequate corporate governance standards?
Correct
Common consequences of deficit in corporate governance standards:
I. Insider trading and other forms of market misconduct
II. Misfeasance, fraud, and misconduct by directors, managers, and other staff causing losses to the company or shareholders
IV. The price of the connected transaction deviates from the market price, causing losses to the company and shareholdersIncorrect
Common consequences of deficit in corporate governance standards:
I. Insider trading and other forms of market misconduct
II. Misfeasance, fraud, and misconduct by directors, managers, and other staff causing losses to the company or shareholders
IV. The price of the connected transaction deviates from the market price, causing losses to the company and shareholdersHint
Reference Chapter:1.10.10
-
Question 31 of 567
31. Question
1 pointsQID1243:In order to achieve the goal of supervising the industry, the SFC:
I. Regular inspections, including on-site inspections.
II. Unscheduled inspections, including on-site inspections.
III. Obtaining information from Licensed Corporations (LC)s.
IV. Obtaining information from the Registered Institutions (RI)s.Correct
In furtherance of these aims, the SFC conducts regular inspections of licensed corporations which may be conducted either on-site or via a request for information to be provided. The maintenance of proper documentation is critical in this regard.
Incorrect
In furtherance of these aims, the SFC conducts regular inspections of licensed corporations which may be conducted either on-site or via a request for information to be provided. The maintenance of proper documentation is critical in this regard.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.12
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Question 32 of 567
32. Question
1 pointsQID1244:In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements in Hong Kong and overseas jurisdictions, which of the following measures can intermediaries take for better coordination?
I. Engage a dedicated compliance officer to oversee adherence to the compliance manual.
II. Appoint a director to serve as a Compliance Officer to oversee adherence to the compliance manual.
III. Maintain close contact with the regulators.
IV. Complement the manual with well defined operational procedures and practices.Correct
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the securities dealer’s or adviser’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern. In many cases, a dedicated compliance officer is engaged to oversee adherence to the manual, maintain close contact with the regulators and keep abreast of regulatory developments affecting the securities dealer’s or adviser’s business.
Incorrect
In order to facilitate compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements (in Hong Kong and, where applicable, in overseas jurisdictions), there is a growing tendency to adopt a detailed compliance manual which sets out the securities dealer’s or adviser’s policies and procedures in relation to matters of regulatory concern. In many cases, a dedicated compliance officer is engaged to oversee adherence to the manual, maintain close contact with the regulators and keep abreast of regulatory developments affecting the securities dealer’s or adviser’s business.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.14
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Question 33 of 567
33. Question
1 pointsQID507:Which of the following functions are related to the compliance function of a licensed corporation?
I. The review of record keeping
II. The review of prevention of money laundering
III. The review of client, proprietary and staff dealings
IV. The review of Compliance with all legal and regulator requirementsCorrect
All of these functions are essential as stated in different regulations and guidelines such as the Code of Conduct, the FMCC, AMLO, PDPO, and others.
Incorrect
All of these functions are essential as stated in different regulations and guidelines such as the Code of Conduct, the FMCC, AMLO, PDPO, and others.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.3
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Question 34 of 567
34. Question
1 pointsQID1238:To promote, encourage and enforce good compliance practices. Senior management of Licensed Corporations (LC)s and Registered Institutions (RI)s must establish:
I. Good line and reporting structures.
II. Well defined functions and responsibilities.
III. Effective communications channels.
IV. Appropriate transparency and disclosure practices.Correct
Senior management must provide the leadership and drive to promote, encourage and enforce, if necessary, good compliance practices. It must establish:
(a) good line and reporting structures;
(b) clearly defined functions and responsibilities;
(c.) effective communications;
(d) appropriate transparency and disclosure practices.Incorrect
Senior management must provide the leadership and drive to promote, encourage and enforce, if necessary, good compliance practices. It must establish:
(a) good line and reporting structures;
(b) clearly defined functions and responsibilities;
(c.) effective communications;
(d) appropriate transparency and disclosure practices.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.3
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Question 35 of 567
35. Question
1 pointsQID2441:A good corporate-governance is not related to which of the following people?
Correct
A good corporate-governance is not related to former employees.
Incorrect
A good corporate-governance is not related to former employees.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 36 of 567
36. Question
1 pointsQID1237:Which of the following descriptions about corporate governance are correct?
I. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders.
II. The governance issue is also concerned with the system by which companies are directed and controlled.
III. The activities of intermediaries frequently concern listed corporations. Accordingly, in addition to considering their own regulatory and corporate governance position, intermediaries need to be aware of the wider impact of corporate governance on their clients and the market.
IV. Markets which exhibit a higher degree of good corporate governance are regarded as more competitive in the international arena.Correct
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers). The governance issue is therefore also concerned with the system by which companies are directed and controlled.
The activities of intermediaries frequently concern listed corporations. Accordingly, in addition to considering their own regulatory and corporate governance position, intermediaries need to be aware of the wider impact of corporate governance on their clients and the market. It is now generally accepted that investors attach considerable importance to corporate governance when assessing the value of a stock, and that markets which exhibit a higher degree of good corporate governance are regarded as more competitive in the international arena.Incorrect
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers). The governance issue is therefore also concerned with the system by which companies are directed and controlled.
The activities of intermediaries frequently concern listed corporations. Accordingly, in addition to considering their own regulatory and corporate governance position, intermediaries need to be aware of the wider impact of corporate governance on their clients and the market. It is now generally accepted that investors attach considerable importance to corporate governance when assessing the value of a stock, and that markets which exhibit a higher degree of good corporate governance are regarded as more competitive in the international arena.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 37 of 567
37. Question
1 pointsQID508:Which of the following is NOT included the set of core principles of corporate governance?
Correct
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (“OECD”) has issued a set of core principles of corporate governance practices to include fairness, transparency, accountability and responsibility. Leadership is not one of those principles.
Incorrect
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (“OECD”) has issued a set of core principles of corporate governance practices to include fairness, transparency, accountability and responsibility. Leadership is not one of those principles.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 38 of 567
38. Question
1 pointsQID1239:Corporate governance describes which of the following relationship?
Correct
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Incorrect
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
-
Question 39 of 567
39. Question
1 pointsQID509:Corporate governance refers to the system of by which companies are directed and controlled and concerns which of the following groups of people?
I. Company management.
II. Board of Directors.
III. Shareholders.
IV. Stakeholders.Correct
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Incorrect
Corporate governance has been defined in various ways. It can be seen as primarily concerned with the proper relationship between a company’s management, its board and its shareholders, and possibly also its stakeholders (i.e. groups who have a stake in the healthy existence of a corporation, such as employees, creditors and customers).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.5
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Question 40 of 567
40. Question
1 pointsQID512:Good governance practices can include which of the following ways?
I. Installing appropriate checks and balances on the board of
directors and senior management.
II. Having sufficient transparency and disclosure of important facts and information to stakeholders.
III. Installing strong protective structures for majority shareholder.
IV. Identifying and penalizing corporate wrongdoing.Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.
(d) identifying and penalising corporate wrongdoing.Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.
(d) identifying and penalising corporate wrongdoing.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 41 of 567
41. Question
1 pointsQID510:Good corporate governance includes which of the following features?
I. The recruitment of experienced executive directors who are realistically rewarded to ensure that the business is run
efficiently.
II. The installation of a well regulated structure incorporating close and detailed top managerial supervision of day-to-day
operations of the business.
III. The recruitment of experienced non-executive directors with the objective of ensuring a good balance between executive
and non-executive directors.
IV. Installation of audit and remuneration committees who will ensure independent audits and fair performance geared reward structures.Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of Chairman and CEO; appointment of independent non-executive directors; establishment of independent audit committees; setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management.Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of Chairman and CEO; appointment of independent non-executive directors; establishment of independent audit committees; setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 42 of 567
42. Question
1 pointsQID929:Which of the following are not examples of good corporate governance?
I. Set up remuneration committee to control the remuneration of management.
II. Assign the management to multiple roles to cut cost.
III. Offer high degree of discretionary powers to the management to allow them to enhance efficiency.
IV. Install check and balances to limited the power of the managementCorrect
The essence of corporate governance is to enhance transparency and check and balance. The powers of the management should be limited, therefore, installation of check and balances and limiting the management’s remuneration are good practices.
Incorrect
The essence of corporate governance is to enhance transparency and check and balance. The powers of the management should be limited, therefore, installation of check and balances and limiting the management’s remuneration are good practices.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 43 of 567
43. Question
1 pointsQID1240:Which of the following is NOT a probable measure that can be taken to improve corporate governance?
Correct
It’s not required to protect the interests of the management.
Incorrect
It’s not required to protect the interests of the management.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
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Question 44 of 567
44. Question
1 pointsQID1241:The primary objective of good corporate governance is to:
Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company.
Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
-
Question 45 of 567
45. Question
1 pointsQID1242:A company may improve its corporate governance through the following means with the exception of:
Correct
Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of the chairman and chief executive officer, appointment of independent non-executive directors, establishment of independent audit committees, and setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management;
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c.) adopting international accounting and auditing standards;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.
(e) identifying and penalising corporate wrongdoing.Incorrect
Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances, such as separating the functions of the chairman and chief executive officer, appointment of independent non-executive directors, establishment of independent audit committees, and setting up committees to control the remuneration and benefits of directors and senior management;
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c.) adopting international accounting and auditing standards;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.
(e) identifying and penalising corporate wrongdoing.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
-
Question 46 of 567
46. Question
1 pointsQID511:Which of the following measures reflect effective corporate governance?
I. Installing appropriate checks and balances.
II. Increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders , stakeholders and the public.
III. Adopting international accounting and auditing standards.
IV. Installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.Correct
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) adopting international accounting and auditing standards;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any corporate business is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of the company. Having regard to the general concepts set out by the OECD, some of the ways a company may improve its governance are as follows:
(a) installing appropriate checks and balances.
(b) increasing transparency and disclosure to shareholders, stakeholders and the public;
(c) adopting international accounting and auditing standards;
(d) installing strong protective structures for minority shareholders, creditors and other lenders.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
-
Question 47 of 567
47. Question
1 pointsQID2676:Whats the objective of SFC requiring the disclosure of rights?
Correct
Disclosure requiremetns are in place to enhance transperancy
Incorrect
Disclosure requiremetns are in place to enhance transperancy
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
-
Question 48 of 567
48. Question
1 pointsQID1684:Good Corporate governance are not required to be responsible for the interest of which of the following
Correct
A key objective of good governance in any company is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of thecompany.
Good Corporate governance are not required to be responsible for the interest of Former Employees.Incorrect
A key objective of good governance in any company is to avoid management taking improper advantage of its position to benefit itself in preference to the legitimate interests of thecompany.
Good Corporate governance are not required to be responsible for the interest of Former Employees.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
-
Question 49 of 567
49. Question
1 pointsQID971:Good corporate governance should separate the functions of
Correct
Good corporate governance should separate the functions of Chairman and CEO.
Incorrect
Good corporate governance should separate the functions of Chairman and CEO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
-
Question 50 of 567
50. Question
1 pointsQID2757:Which of the following is a concept provided by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development that a company can improve the level of corporate governance?
I. Distinguish between the Chief Executive Officer and the Chairman of the Board
II. Enhance transparency disclosure to shareholders and stakeholders
III. Establish a compensation committee to monitor senior management compensation
IV. Establish a robust protection structure for minority shareholders, creditors or other stakeholdersCorrect
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development offers the concept that companies can improve the level of corporate governance by the following methods:
I. Distinguish between the Chief Executive Officer and the Chairman
II. Enhance transparency disclosure to shareholders and stakeholders
III. Establish a compensation committee to monitor senior management compensation
IV. Establish a strong protection structure for minority shareholders, creditors, or other stakeholders
V. Establish an independent audit committee
VI. Identify business misconduct
VII. Adopt international accounting and auditing standardsIncorrect
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development offers the concept that companies can improve the level of corporate governance by the following methods:
I. Distinguish between the Chief Executive Officer and the Chairman
II. Enhance transparency disclosure to shareholders and stakeholders
III. Establish a compensation committee to monitor senior management compensation
IV. Establish a strong protection structure for minority shareholders, creditors, or other stakeholders
V. Establish an independent audit committee
VI. Identify business misconduct
VII. Adopt international accounting and auditing standardsHint
Reference Chapter:1.10.9
-
Question 51 of 567
51. Question
1 pointsQID90:In which of the following circumstances will the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) investigate a licensed corporation?
I. When the licensed corporation’s operations deteriorate and it is unable to pay the licence fee.
II. When clients lodge complaints against the licensed corporation for failing to inform them about the whereabouts of deposited funds upon their requests.
III. When an informant provides information that the licensed corporation is mismanaged, growth has slowed, and it is contemplating a sale.
IV. When an informant provides information that the licensed corporation is mismanaged and is incurring losses.Correct
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes, and guidelines.
Failure to pay license fees on time is a violation of the Securities and Futures (Fees) Rules;
Failure to tell clients where their money is going is a breach of the Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules.
So options I and II are correct.Incorrect
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes, and guidelines.
Failure to pay license fees on time is a violation of the Securities and Futures (Fees) Rules;
Failure to tell clients where their money is going is a breach of the Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules.
So options I and II are correct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.3
-
Question 52 of 567
52. Question
1 pointsQID888:Can the SFC conduct supervisory inspections on the associated entity of an intermediary?
Correct
The SFC can conduct supervisory inspections on an intermediary or an associated entity of an intermediary.
Incorrect
The SFC can conduct supervisory inspections on an intermediary or an associated entity of an intermediary.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.3
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Question 53 of 567
53. Question
1 pointsQID206:These are key provisions of the SFO that give the SFC considerable powers to investigate, among other things, possible breaches of the SFO, misfeasance and activities not in the public interest. The powers that SFC possesses include which of the followings?
I. SFC can only investigate licenced corporation
II. SFC can require an individual to provide evidence to an investigation, regardless of whether the individual is an intermediary or not.
III. SFC may apply to the court to order a person who does not comply with requirements made by the authorised person or investigator under relevant provisions to do so.
IV. SFC may require an individual under investigation to make a statutory declaration that he is unable to provide the evidence for reasons to be stated, if such is the case.Correct
The SFC may authorise an employee (or another person with the consent of the Financial Secretary) to carry out an investigation. The person so authorised may investigate any person. A person under investigation is required to:
(a) provide documents and explanations;
(e.) make a statutory declaration that he is unable to provide the evidence for reasons to be stated, if such is the case.
The SFC may apply to the court to order a person who does not comply with requirements made by the authorised person or investigator under relevant provisions to do so (s. 185, SFO).Incorrect
The SFC may authorise an employee (or another person with the consent of the Financial Secretary) to carry out an investigation. The person so authorised may investigate any person. A person under investigation is required to:
(a) provide documents and explanations;
(e.) make a statutory declaration that he is unable to provide the evidence for reasons to be stated, if such is the case.
The SFC may apply to the court to order a person who does not comply with requirements made by the authorised person or investigator under relevant provisions to do so (s. 185, SFO).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.6
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Question 54 of 567
54. Question
1 pointsQID2690:Ms. Lam, a private investor, is requested by the SFC to assist in an investigation under the SFO. Which of the following statements about her obligations and potential legal consequences is correct?
Correct
Under the SFO, the SFC is authorized to investigate any person and to require assistance in these investigations.A person is guilty of an offense if, without reasonable excuse, they fail to comply with the requests of an investigator, or if they provide a response that is false or misleading. Such offenses can lead to criminal prosecution.
Incorrect
Under the SFO, the SFC is authorized to investigate any person and to require assistance in these investigations.A person is guilty of an offense if, without reasonable excuse, they fail to comply with the requests of an investigator, or if they provide a response that is false or misleading. Such offenses can lead to criminal prosecution.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.6
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Question 55 of 567
55. Question
1 pointsQID205:The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is conducting an investigation on insider trading. Miss Ko, a retail investor, is required to provide information in the course of the investigation. While Miss Ko is not involved in insider trading, is she required to provide information to the SFC?
Correct
The SFC has the power to investigate any person in connection with suspicions of malpractice, fraud, or other market misconduct or situations where the interest of the investing public may be jeopardised. It can require the person under investigation to provide information during such investigations. This includes retail investors like Miss Ko. If the person under investigation is unable to provide evidence, they must make a statutory declaration stating the reasons for their inability.
Incorrect
The SFC has the power to investigate any person in connection with suspicions of malpractice, fraud, or other market misconduct or situations where the interest of the investing public may be jeopardised. It can require the person under investigation to provide information during such investigations. This includes retail investors like Miss Ko. If the person under investigation is unable to provide evidence, they must make a statutory declaration stating the reasons for their inability.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.7
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Question 56 of 567
56. Question
1 pointsQID219:Mdm. Liu is a senior citizen. She is a stock investment enthusiast but suffers losses often. The SFC recently conducted an investigation on a company called Sana Seoi Bean Curd and discovered that Mdm. Liu traded the company’s stocks frequently. Thus, the SFC suspected Mdm. Liu of being involved in acts of market misconduct such as the manipulation of the stock market and requested that she participate in the investigation process. Mdm. Liu had neither knowledge, nor intention of manipulating the stock market. As the SFC investigations were going on for a long time, Mdm. Liu wanted to end the meeting earlier and thus deliberately provided false information perfunctorily to the SFC so as to complete the investigation. Had Mdm. Liu committed an offence according to the Securities and Futures Ordinance?
Correct
A person commits an offence if he provides to the SFC (whether in applications or in other circumstances) false or misleading information as to a material particular knowingly or recklessly as to whether it is false or misleading (ss. 383 and 384, SFO).
Incorrect
A person commits an offence if he provides to the SFC (whether in applications or in other circumstances) false or misleading information as to a material particular knowingly or recklessly as to whether it is false or misleading (ss. 383 and 384, SFO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.8
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Question 57 of 567
57. Question
1 pointsQID208:The issue of warrant that SFC receives when it applies to the magistrate does NOT include which of the following items of power?
Correct
Six months is the longest period permitted for an order to retain documents established by a regular warrant. Any period beyond that must be requested.
Incorrect
Six months is the longest period permitted for an order to retain documents established by a regular warrant. Any period beyond that must be requested.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.11.9
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Question 58 of 567
58. Question
1 pointsQID207:An employee of the SFC, an authorised person or an investigator may, under which of the following appropriate circumstances, apply to a magistrate for the issue of a warrant?
I. Authorizing specified persons, a police officer and such other persons as may be necessary to assist in the execution of the warrant to enter specified premises, if necessary by force, at any time within 7 days.
II. Requiring any person on the premises to produce any relevant documents.
III. Prohibiting any person to erase or alter or remove any relevant documents.
IV. Authorizing the specified persons to search for, seize and remove any relevant documents.Correct
An employee of the SFC, an authorised person or an investigator may, in appropriate circumstances, apply to a magistrate for the issue of a warrant:
(a) authorising specified persons, a police officer and such other persons as may be necessary to assist in the execution of the warrant to enter specified premises, if necessary by force, at any time within seven days;
(b) requiring any person on the premises to produce any relevant documents;
© prohibiting any person to erase or alter or remove any relevant documents; and
(d) authorising the specified persons to:
(i) search for, seize and remove any relevant documentsIncorrect
An employee of the SFC, an authorised person or an investigator may, in appropriate circumstances, apply to a magistrate for the issue of a warrant:
(a) authorising specified persons, a police officer and such other persons as may be necessary to assist in the execution of the warrant to enter specified premises, if necessary by force, at any time within seven days;
(b) requiring any person on the premises to produce any relevant documents;
© prohibiting any person to erase or alter or remove any relevant documents; and
(d) authorising the specified persons to:
(i) search for, seize and remove any relevant documentsHint
Reference Chapter:1.11.9
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Question 59 of 567
59. Question
1 pointsQID794:Please rank the importance of the following in descending order
Correct
Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offences and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken. A failure on the part of an intermediary or its representative to comply with a code of conduct is not a breach of law and does not by itself constitute an offence under the law.
Incorrect
Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offences and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken. A failure on the part of an intermediary or its representative to comply with a code of conduct is not a breach of law and does not by itself constitute an offence under the law.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.
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Question 60 of 567
60. Question
1 pointsQID1035:The Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) is the principal legislative document governing which markets in Hong Kong?
Correct
The SFO is the principal legislative document governing the securities market in Hong Kong.
Incorrect
The SFO is the principal legislative document governing the securities market in Hong Kong.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.1
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Question 61 of 567
61. Question
1 pointsQID847:The rules issued by the SFC, such as Client Securities Rules, are
Correct
These are some of the Major Subsidiary Legislation including:
1.1 Securities and Futures (Financial Resources) Rules
1.2 Securities and Futures (Client Securities) Rules
1.3 Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules
1.4 Securities and Futures (Keeping of Records) Rules
1.5 Securities and Futures (Contract Notes, Statements of Account and Receipts) Rules
1.6 Securities and Futures (Accounts and Audit) Rules,
plus many others.Incorrect
These are some of the Major Subsidiary Legislation including:
1.1 Securities and Futures (Financial Resources) Rules
1.2 Securities and Futures (Client Securities) Rules
1.3 Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules
1.4 Securities and Futures (Keeping of Records) Rules
1.5 Securities and Futures (Contract Notes, Statements of Account and Receipts) Rules
1.6 Securities and Futures (Accounts and Audit) Rules,
plus many others.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.2
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Question 62 of 567
62. Question
1 pointsQID1036:Which of the following are the power that the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) empowers the SFC with?
I. The power to introduce subsidiary legislation.
II. The power to issue codes and guidelines.
III. The power to amend the Securities and Futures Ordinance.
IV. The power to revoke the Securities and Futures Ordinance.Correct
Part VII empowers the SFC to make subsidiary legislation (s. 168, SFO) and/or codes (s. 169, SFO).
Incorrect
Part VII empowers the SFC to make subsidiary legislation (s. 168, SFO) and/or codes (s. 169, SFO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.2
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Question 63 of 567
63. Question
1 pointsQID190:The SFO has provided powers for the SFC to make detailed rules relating to which of the following?
I. Financial Resources
II. Handling of client money and other client assets
III. The keeping of accounts and records
IV. Auditing mattersCorrect
The SFO grants the SFC powers to make detailed rules relating to:
(a.) their financial resources;
(b.) the handling of client money and other client assets;
(c.) the keeping of accounts and records; and
(d.) auditing matters.Incorrect
The SFO grants the SFC powers to make detailed rules relating to:
(a.) their financial resources;
(b.) the handling of client money and other client assets;
(c.) the keeping of accounts and records; and
(d.) auditing matters.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 64 of 567
64. Question
1 pointsQID85:What is the legal status of codes and guidelines issued by the SFC?
I. Codes of conduct are subsidiary legislation and have the force of law.
II. Guidelines are subsidiary legislation and have the force of law.
III. Codes of conduct do not have the force of law, a breach does not by itself render a person liable to any judicial or other proceedings.
IV. Guidelines do not have the force of law, a breach does not by itself render a person liable to any judicial or other proceedings.Correct
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Incorrect
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 65 of 567
65. Question
1 pointsQID83:Which of the following correctly describes the status of SFC’s code of conducts and guidelines?
Correct
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Incorrect
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable.
However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 66 of 567
66. Question
1 pointsQID87:Under the provisions of the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO), which of the following statements relating to rules and codes of conduct are correct?
I. Failure by a licensed person to comply with a material provision of a code of conduct will of itself make the person liable to judicial proceedings.
II. A code of conduct violation shall be admissible as evidence in court proceedings.
III. The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is empowered under the SFO to make rules or codes of conduct.
IV. A breach of a provision in a code of conduct by a licensed person may cast doubts on his fitness and properness to hold the licence.Correct
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines:
i) Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offenses and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken; the SFC may refer serious cases to law enforcement agencies such as the Commercial Crimes Bureau of the Hong Kong Police Force or the Independent Commission Against Corruption (“ICAC”) for investigation
and action.
Ii) The SFC may also apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets or carrying on all or a part of his business if it can make a case to show that it is in the public interest to issue such an order.
Iii) Persons prejudiced by the perpetration of market misconduct may take civil action against the wrongdoer through the courts to obtain redress. The SFO has provisions for the findings of the Market Misconduct Tribunal to be admissible in evidence in private civil
actions.
Iv) Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC can penalize licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the
licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.
V) The SFC has the power to reprimand (privately or publicly), to fine, and to suspend or revoke a license or registration concerning all or any part of the regulated activities specified on the license or certificate of registration.Incorrect
The SFC may enquire into or investigate suspected breaches of the SFO and any subsidiary legislation, codes and guidelines:
i) Breaches of the SFO and subsidiary legislation are legal offenses and will be investigated by the SFC and enforcement action taken; the SFC may refer serious cases to law enforcement agencies such as the Commercial Crimes Bureau of the Hong Kong Police Force or the Independent Commission Against Corruption (“ICAC”) for investigation
and action.
Ii) The SFC may also apply to the courts for an injunction to restrain a person from dealing with his assets or carrying on all or a part of his business if it can make a case to show that it is in the public interest to issue such an order.
Iii) Persons prejudiced by the perpetration of market misconduct may take civil action against the wrongdoer through the courts to obtain redress. The SFO has provisions for the findings of the Market Misconduct Tribunal to be admissible in evidence in private civil
actions.
Iv) Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC can penalize licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the
licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.
V) The SFC has the power to reprimand (privately or publicly), to fine, and to suspend or revoke a license or registration concerning all or any part of the regulated activities specified on the license or certificate of registration.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 67 of 567
67. Question
1 pointsQID420:Which of the following codes specifies conduct requirements for SFC licensees involved in the discretionary management of CISs, and supplements the SFC’s codes and requirements for all licensees?
Correct
The FMCC applies to intermediaries conducting discretionary management of CISs (whether or not the CISs are authorised by the SFC) and their representatives (“Fund Managers”).
Incorrect
The FMCC applies to intermediaries conducting discretionary management of CISs (whether or not the CISs are authorised by the SFC) and their representatives (“Fund Managers”).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 68 of 567
68. Question
1 pointsQID1037:Failing to follow SFC-issued codes, guidelines and guidance notes may result in which of the following?
I. Reflect adversely on the fitness and properness of licensed or registered persons to continue to be so licensed or registered.
II. Imprisonment.
III. Civil consequences.
IV. A higher tax bracket.Correct
The SFO also empowers the SFC to issue codes, guidelines and guidance notes. These do not have the force of law and do not override the provisions of any applicable law. However, a
failure to follow the spirit of the codes, guidelines and guidance notes may reflect adversely on the fitness and properness of licensed or registered persons to continue to be so licensed or
registered.Incorrect
The SFO also empowers the SFC to issue codes, guidelines and guidance notes. These do not have the force of law and do not override the provisions of any applicable law. However, a
failure to follow the spirit of the codes, guidelines and guidance notes may reflect adversely on the fitness and properness of licensed or registered persons to continue to be so licensed or
registered.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 69 of 567
69. Question
1 pointsQID415:Codes and guidelines issued by the SFC which apply to licensed or registered persons in the Asset Management Industries includes
I. The Conduct Guidelines of Intermediaries
II. The Code of Conduct
III. The Internal Control Guidelines (ICG)
IV. The Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (“GAML”)Correct
Option I included in the question is not a real code, the other three do exist and apply to asset managers.
Incorrect
Option I included in the question is not a real code, the other three do exist and apply to asset managers.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 70 of 567
70. Question
1 pointsQID773:The SFC-issued codes, guidelines and guidance notes
Correct
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.
Incorrect
Codes and guidelines do not have the force of law and are not legally enforceable. However, the SFC is able to penalise licensed or registered persons breaching the codes and guidelines by applying the blanket principle that a breach of these may impugn the licensed or registered person’s fitness and properness to remain licensed or registered.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.2.3
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Question 71 of 567
71. Question
1 pointsQID163:According to the CO, which of the following methods of liquidation is accepted?
I. Compulsory Liquidation
II. Members’ Voluntary Winding-Up
III. Creditors’ Voluntary Winding-Up
IV. Director Compulsory LiquidationCorrect
A compulsory winding-up is ordered by the court, which will appoint a liquidator; a voluntary winding-up is started by the members. If the members declare that the company can meet its debts within one year, there will be a members’ voluntary winding-up; if not, it will be a creditors’ voluntary winding-up with a committee of inspection that will supervise the process.
Incorrect
A compulsory winding-up is ordered by the court, which will appoint a liquidator; a voluntary winding-up is started by the members. If the members declare that the company can meet its debts within one year, there will be a members’ voluntary winding-up; if not, it will be a creditors’ voluntary winding-up with a committee of inspection that will supervise the process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.
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Question 72 of 567
72. Question
1 pointsQID1050:According to the new regulations of the New Company Ordinance (NCO), which of the following is NOT included in the articles of association?
Correct
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private
companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Incorrect
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private
companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.10
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Question 73 of 567
73. Question
1 pointsQID137:Which of the following are included in the model articles of association for private companies and public companies?
I. Capital
II. Members
III. Officers
IV. Miscellaneous provisionCorrect
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Incorrect
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.10
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Question 74 of 567
74. Question
1 pointsQID1042:Which of the following should be included and defined in the articles of association?
I. Members, including meeting and procedures
II. Officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointment of managing directors and company secretaries
III. Capital, such as dividends, reserves, accounts and audit.
IV. Miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Correct
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Incorrect
Model articles of association for private companies, public companies and guarantee companies are provided in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice. Model articles of private companies and public companies consist broadly of four parts including matters relating to:
(a) officers, including powers, duties, appointments and disqualifications of directors, appointments and removal of company secretaries;
(b) members, including meetings and voting procedures;
© capital, such as share capital, rights and dealings with shares and dividends; and
(d) miscellaneous provisions such as communications to and by the company and administrative arrangements.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.10
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Question 75 of 567
75. Question
1 pointsQID1056:Which of the following may cast votes in company AGM that passes ordinary resolution and special resolutions?
Correct
Company meetings of shareholders are very important as they provide the only opportunity for shareholders to exercise any control over the affairs of the company or take part in its operations.
Incorrect
Company meetings of shareholders are very important as they provide the only opportunity for shareholders to exercise any control over the affairs of the company or take part in its operations.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.11
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Question 76 of 567
76. Question
1 pointsQID1048:General meetings of shareholders are very important as
Correct
Company meetings of shareholders are very important as they provide the only opportunity for shareholders to exercise any control over the affairs of the company or take part in its operations.
Incorrect
Company meetings of shareholders are very important as they provide the only opportunity for shareholders to exercise any control over the affairs of the company or take part in its operations.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.11
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Question 77 of 567
77. Question
1 pointsQID1053:Companies are required to held an annual general meeting of shareholders, unless
Correct
A company is required by the CO to hold an annual general meeting of shareholders (s. 610, CO). Companies are permitted to dispense with the requirement to hold annual general meetings by passing a written resolution or a resolution at a general meeting with unanimous shareholders’ consent.
Incorrect
A company is required by the CO to hold an annual general meeting of shareholders (s. 610, CO). Companies are permitted to dispense with the requirement to hold annual general meetings by passing a written resolution or a resolution at a general meeting with unanimous shareholders’ consent.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.12
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Question 78 of 567
78. Question
1 pointsQID2422:Which of the following can call a meeting other than the annual general meetings?
I. Shareholders
II. Directors
III. Creditors
IV. CourtCorrect
Which of the following can call a meeting other than the annual general meetings?
I. Shareholders
II. Directors
III. CourtIncorrect
Which of the following can call a meeting other than the annual general meetings?
I. Shareholders
II. Directors
III. CourtHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.13
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Question 79 of 567
79. Question
1 pointsQID1054:Company meetings can be requested by which of the following
I. Directors
II. The court
III. Shareholders
IV. LiquidatorCorrect
Other general meetings may be requested by directors, shareholders and the court.
Incorrect
Other general meetings may be requested by directors, shareholders and the court.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.13
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Question 80 of 567
80. Question
1 pointsQID1058:The first AGM should be held within how many months of incorporation of a public company?
Correct
Unless exempted, companies must hold an annual general meeting within six months (for public companies) or nine months (for private companies or guarantee companies) after the end of their accounting reference period by reference to which its financial year is determined.
Incorrect
Unless exempted, companies must hold an annual general meeting within six months (for public companies) or nine months (for private companies or guarantee companies) after the end of their accounting reference period by reference to which its financial year is determined.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
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Question 81 of 567
81. Question
1 pointsQID1055:After a company is incorporated and holds its first annual general meeting, at least how many months should it hold general meetings?
Correct
In Hong Kong, a company must hold its first Annual General Meeting (AGM) within 18 months of its incorporation. This allows new companies some flexibility to organize their initial statutory meeting without the immediate annual pressure. After the first AGM, subsequent AGMs must be held every calendar year, and the interval between the AGM and the next must not exceed 15 months, as stated previously.
Incorrect
In Hong Kong, a company must hold its first Annual General Meeting (AGM) within 18 months of its incorporation. This allows new companies some flexibility to organize their initial statutory meeting without the immediate annual pressure. After the first AGM, subsequent AGMs must be held every calendar year, and the interval between the AGM and the next must not exceed 15 months, as stated previously.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
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Question 82 of 567
82. Question
1 pointsQID1059:What should an auditor do if he/she believes that there is something seriously wrong with a company’s financial position?
Correct
The usual audit report does not give much opportunity for questions as it is normally in a standard format stating that the accounts present a “true and fair view” of the company’s financial position, unless something is seriously wrong, when the auditors will include a qualification in the report.
Incorrect
The usual audit report does not give much opportunity for questions as it is normally in a standard format stating that the accounts present a “true and fair view” of the company’s financial position, unless something is seriously wrong, when the auditors will include a qualification in the report.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
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Question 83 of 567
83. Question
1 pointsQID1057:The AGM includes the presentation and approval of which of the following?
I. Annual accounts and audit reports
II. Declaration of dividends
III. Assignment of Directors
IV. Assignment of AuditorsCorrect
The business of an annual general meeting includes the consideration of the annual accounts, the declaration of dividends, the election of directors to replace retiring ones, and the appointment of auditors.
Incorrect
The business of an annual general meeting includes the consideration of the annual accounts, the declaration of dividends, the election of directors to replace retiring ones, and the appointment of auditors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.14
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Question 84 of 567
84. Question
1 pointsQID1604:Which of the following resolutions cannot be passed by circularisation and signed by all members?
I. The removal of a director before his term expires
II. Reduction of share capital
III. Alteration of objects and articles of association
IV. The removal of auditors before the expiration of their term of officeCorrect
According to the Companies Ordinance, all the mentioned items require formal resolutions at a members’ meeting, rather than being accomplished merely by issuing a circular and obtaining member signatures. This includes the removal of a director or an auditor before their term has ended, reduction of share capital, and amendments to the objects or articles of association, all of which need to be resolved through a meeting to ensure transparency and fairness in the company’s decision-making process.
Incorrect
According to the Companies Ordinance, all the mentioned items require formal resolutions at a members’ meeting, rather than being accomplished merely by issuing a circular and obtaining member signatures. This includes the removal of a director or an auditor before their term has ended, reduction of share capital, and amendments to the objects or articles of association, all of which need to be resolved through a meeting to ensure transparency and fairness in the company’s decision-making process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.15
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Question 85 of 567
85. Question
1 pointsQID1062:Which of the following descriptions about resolutions is correct?
Correct
Under s. 548, CO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members.
Incorrect
Under s. 548, CO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.15
-
Question 86 of 567
86. Question
1 pointsQID1060:If the shareholder are not happy with the performance of the directors, how can they replace the directors?
Correct
Under s. 548, CO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members except for:
(b) the removal of a director before his term expires.Incorrect
Under s. 548, CO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members except for:
(b) the removal of a director before his term expires.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.15
-
Question 87 of 567
87. Question
1 pointsQID145:Most corporate resolutions can be passed in which of the following ways?
Correct
Under s. 548, CO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members except for:
(a) the removal of auditors before the expiration of their term of office; or
(b) the removal of a director before his term expires.
These must be put to members at a general meeting as ordinary resolutions.Incorrect
Under s. 548, CO, resolutions may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members except for:
(a) the removal of auditors before the expiration of their term of office; or
(b) the removal of a director before his term expires.
These must be put to members at a general meeting as ordinary resolutions.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.15
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Question 88 of 567
88. Question
1 pointsQID2839:Which of the following can be done by ordinary resolution?
Correct
Removal of auditors and directors can be done by ordinary resolution.
Reduction of share capital, liquidation, amendment of articles of association all require special resolutions.
Incorrect
Removal of auditors and directors can be done by ordinary resolution.
Reduction of share capital, liquidation, amendment of articles of association all require special resolutions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.15
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Question 89 of 567
89. Question
1 pointsQID1061:Which of the following matters must be passed by ordinary resolutions?
I. Dismissal of an auditor before his term of office expires.
II. Dismissal of a director before his term of office expires.
III. Dismissal of an auditor when his term of office expires.
IV. Dismissal of a director when his term of office expires.Correct
Under Section 548 of the Companies Ordinance, resolutions may be passed by circulating them to all members and obtaining their signatures, except for the removal of auditors before the expiration of their term of office and the removal of a director before his term expires. These must be presented to members at a general meeting as ordinary resolutions.
Incorrect
Under Section 548 of the Companies Ordinance, resolutions may be passed by circulating them to all members and obtaining their signatures, except for the removal of auditors before the expiration of their term of office and the removal of a director before his term expires. These must be presented to members at a general meeting as ordinary resolutions.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.15
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Question 90 of 567
90. Question
1 pointsQID1063:What is the passing rate of a special resolution?
Correct
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy).
Incorrect
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
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Question 91 of 567
91. Question
1 pointsQID1069:Which of the following matters need to be passed through special resolutions?
I. Reduction of share capital
II. Winding up of the company
III. Deletion, alteration, and addition to the company’s articles of association
IV. Replacement of directors and/or auditorsCorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Incorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
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Question 92 of 567
92. Question
1 pointsQID1068:Which of the following descriptions about a special resolution is correct?
I. It may be passed by circularisation and signed by all members
II. It must be passed by at least 75% of members.
III. A notice period of not less than 14 days’ must be given.
IV. A printed copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Registrar of Companies within 15 days of it being passed.Correct
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given. Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
© alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).
A copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Registrar of Companies within 15 days of it being passed.Incorrect
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given. Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
© alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).
A copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Registrar of Companies within 15 days of it being passed.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
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Question 93 of 567
93. Question
1 pointsQID1067:A printed copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Company Registrar within how many days after being passed?
Correct
A copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Registrar of Companies within 15 days of it being passed.
Incorrect
A copy of a special resolution must be lodged with the Registrar of Companies within 15 days of it being passed.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
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Question 94 of 567
94. Question
1 pointsQID1066:Which of the following shall be passed under a special resolution?
I. Reduction of share capital
II. Winding up of the company voluntarily or by court
III. Alteration of objects, articles or conditions in the articles of association.
IV. Assignment and removal of DirectorsCorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Incorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 95 of 567
95. Question
1 pointsQID1064:Which of the following matters are passed under special resolutions?
I. Reduction of share capital
II. Winding up of the company voluntarily or by court
III. Alteration of objects in articles of association
IV. Disposal of company assetsCorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Incorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(c) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the NCO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in the articles of association (for existing companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 96 of 567
96. Question
1 pointsQID144:Special Resolutions are passed by which of the following individuals or entities?
Correct
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice
specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.Incorrect
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice
specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
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Question 97 of 567
97. Question
1 pointsQID141:Which of the following are required to pass a special resolution?
I. Reduction of share capital
II. Winding up the company
III. Determining and declaring dividends and profits
IV. Alteration of objects and articles of associationCorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(C) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the CO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in
the articles of association (for existing companies).Incorrect
Examples of matters which need special resolutions are:
(a) reduction of share capital;
(b) winding up of the company voluntarily or by court; and
(C) alteration of objects, articles of association (for companies formed and registered under the CO) and conditions in memoranda of association that could have been included in
the articles of association (for existing companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
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Question 98 of 567
98. Question
1 pointsQID2790:How long the notice period should be for a special resolution?
Correct
Special resolutions should have a 14-day notice period.
Incorrect
Special resolutions should have a 14-day notice period.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
-
Question 99 of 567
99. Question
1 pointsQID140:Which of the following statements about special resolutions are correct?
I. It is a resolution that is passed by at least 50% of members at a general meeting.
II. It is a resolution that is passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting.
III. The notice period of an intention to pass a special resolution must be no less than 14 days.
IV. The notice period of an intention to pass a special resolution must be no less than 21 days.Correct
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice
specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.Incorrect
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice
specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
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Question 100 of 567
100. Question
1 pointsQID1065:A special resolution requires how many days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution to been given?
Correct
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.
Incorrect
A special resolution is one passed by at least 75% of members at a general meeting (voting in person or, where proxies are allowed, by proxy), of which not less than 14 days’ notice specifying the intention to pass the resolution has been given.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.17
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Question 101 of 567
101. Question
1 pointsQID1070:What is the passing rate of an ordinary resolution?
Correct
An ordinary resolution is a resolution which may be passed by a simple majority of those present and voting at a meeting of members. Notice must be given.
Incorrect
An ordinary resolution is a resolution which may be passed by a simple majority of those present and voting at a meeting of members. Notice must be given.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.18
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Question 102 of 567
102. Question
1 pointsQID1071:An ordinary resolution is a resolution which may be passed by what percentage of voting at a meeting of members?
Correct
An ordinary resolution is a resolution which may be passed by a simple majority of those present and voting at a meeting of members. Notice must be given.
Incorrect
An ordinary resolution is a resolution which may be passed by a simple majority of those present and voting at a meeting of members. Notice must be given.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.18
-
Question 103 of 567
103. Question
1 pointsQID1073:Which of the following are NOT powers exercisable by members in the general meeting?
Correct
These include:
(a) changes to articles of association and company name;
© issue of shares at a discount;
(d) alteration of capital including reduction.Incorrect
These include:
(a) changes to articles of association and company name;
© issue of shares at a discount;
(d) alteration of capital including reduction.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.19
-
Question 104 of 567
104. Question
1 pointsQID1072:Which of the following are powers exercisable by members in general meeting?
I. Removal of directors
II. Disposal of assets
III. Approval of payments for loss of office
IV. Approval of payments for profit of officeCorrect
These include:
(h) removal of directors;
(i) disposal of company assets;
(j) approval of payments for loss of officeIncorrect
These include:
(h) removal of directors;
(i) disposal of company assets;
(j) approval of payments for loss of officeHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.19
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Question 105 of 567
105. Question
1 pointsQID1039:What are the major features of the Companies Ordinance?
I. The CO permits the formation of a company by one or more persons (s. 67, CO).
II. The CO provides that one member constitutes a quorum for a meeting of a company having only one member.
III. The CO permits the formation of a company by one or more companies.
IV. The CO permits the permits the formation of a company by two or more persons (s. 67, CO).Correct
The CO permits the formation of a company by one or more persons (s. 67, CO). The CO also provides that one member
constitutes a quorum for a meeting of a company having only one member.Incorrect
The CO permits the formation of a company by one or more persons (s. 67, CO). The CO also provides that one member
constitutes a quorum for a meeting of a company having only one member.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.2
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Question 106 of 567
106. Question
1 pointsQID1075:If a variation of the rights of the holders of a class of a shares in a company occurs, shareholders who believe that such variation is against their interests may petition the court to have the variation cancelled. What is the threshold for such a petition to occur?
Correct
There are provisions in the NCO and in Companies (Model Articles) Notice which enable a
company to vary the rights of the holders of a class of shares. However, if a variation is being processed, the holders of at least 10% of the total voting rights of the shares in that class may petition the court to have the variation cancelled if it is against their interests.Incorrect
There are provisions in the NCO and in Companies (Model Articles) Notice which enable a
company to vary the rights of the holders of a class of shares. However, if a variation is being processed, the holders of at least 10% of the total voting rights of the shares in that class may petition the court to have the variation cancelled if it is against their interests.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.20
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Question 107 of 567
107. Question
1 pointsQID2749:If the rights of the shareholders are changed, under what percentage of voting rights can a petition be filed with the court to cancel the change?
Correct
When the rights of the shareholders are changed, as long as there are more than 10% of the voting rights, a petition can be filed with the court to cancel the change.
Incorrect
When the rights of the shareholders are changed, as long as there are more than 10% of the voting rights, a petition can be filed with the court to cancel the change.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.20
-
Question 108 of 567
108. Question
1 pointsQID1076:If a company is functional and can form resolutions through the AGM, the court will generally not interfere in its matters. This practice is based on which of the following principles?
Correct
The court will not generally interfere in internal management matters or where the company can deal with the matter by calling a meeting. This is the principle of majority power.
Incorrect
The court will not generally interfere in internal management matters or where the company can deal with the matter by calling a meeting. This is the principle of majority power.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.22
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Question 109 of 567
109. Question
1 pointsQID1077:The court will not generally interfere in internal management matters or where the company can deal with the matter by calling a meeting. This is the principle of
Correct
The court will not generally interfere in internal management matters or where the company can deal with the matter by calling a meeting. This is the principle of majority power.
Incorrect
The court will not generally interfere in internal management matters or where the company can deal with the matter by calling a meeting. This is the principle of majority power.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.22
-
Question 110 of 567
110. Question
1 pointsQID146:Under the Companies Ordinance, can members petition the court to wind up the company?
Correct
To ensure that the principle of majority power is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the CO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(a) a special resolution is required for certain matters.
(b) Court sanction is required where the decision of the company will directly affectcreditors.
(c) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up share capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a general meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
(f) A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Incorrect
To ensure that the principle of majority power is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the CO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(a) a special resolution is required for certain matters.
(b) Court sanction is required where the decision of the company will directly affectcreditors.
(c) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up share capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a general meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
(f) A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
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Question 111 of 567
111. Question
1 pointsQID1082:Vita Milk, a listed company is undergoing structural reform, which includes a series of share placing and new debt financing arrangements. Sharon Chan is a 1% stakeholder of Vita Milk and she believes such actions are against her rights. She can
I. Apply to court for an order if she considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to interest of member’s.
II. Solely request the directors to call for a meeting; if the directors will not, she may do so on her own.
III. Rally 100 shareholders or 10% of the holders of the issued shares and request the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator to look into the company’s affairs
IV. Petition to the commercial crime Bureau of Hong Kong to establish a special unit to investigate such actions.Correct
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
On the other hand,
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
Sharon cannot call a meeting on her own.Incorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
On the other hand,
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
Sharon cannot call a meeting on her own.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
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Question 112 of 567
112. Question
1 pointsQID1081:Mr. Ko is a major stakeholder of Yellow River Trading Limited and owns 15% of outstanding shares of Yellow River Trading Limited. Yellow River Trading Limited plans to sell its shares to Mr. Wan and a number of high net worth individuals through a shares placement at a discount. Mr. Ko believes these actions are diluting his shares without his consent, what are the possible actions that can be taken by Mr Ko?
I. Appeal to the court to cancel such actions.
II. Petition to start an AGM immediately to stop the placement.
III. Request the financial secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs
IV. Request a special hearing from the ICAC.Correct
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the CO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.Incorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the CO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
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Question 113 of 567
113. Question
1 pointsQID1080:Mr. Wan is a shareholder of Vita Milk, a company listed on the SEHK. Recently, Vita Milk issued a large number of convertible bonds without legitimate reasons. Mr. Wan believes that he can petition against such actions. Where and to whom should Mr Wan file a petition?
Correct
Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
Incorrect
Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
-
Question 114 of 567
114. Question
1 pointsQID1079:To ensure there is no abuse of majority power, which of the following safeguards are provided under the CO to protect the interests of minority shareholders?
I. Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
II. Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
III. 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
IV. A member may petition for a winding up.Correct
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Incorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
-
Question 115 of 567
115. Question
1 pointsQID1084:The court, upon recognizing a petition from the minority shareholder of a company, will most likely
Correct
A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.
Incorrect
A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
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Question 116 of 567
116. Question
1 pointsQID1083:To ensure there is no abuse of majority power, which of the following safeguards are provided under the CO to protect the interests of minority shareholders?
I. Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
II. Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
III. 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
IV. A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.Correct
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the CO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
(f) A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.Incorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the CO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(c.) Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(d) Members with 5% of the paid-up capital which carries voting rights may request the directors to call a meeting; if the directors will not, the members may do so.
(e.) 100 members or 10% of the holders of the issued shares may ask the Financial Secretary to appoint an investigator into the company’s affairs.
(f) A member may apply to the court for an order if he considers that the affairs of the company are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the members generally or of some part of the members.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
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Question 117 of 567
117. Question
1 pointsQID1078:Which of the following are safeguards provided under the CO to protect the interest of minority shareholders?
I. The requirement of passing a special resolution for matters of great significance.
II. Court sanctions where the decision of the company will directly affect creditors.
III. Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
IV. A member may petition for a winding upCorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(a) As seen in section 3.17 above, a special resolution is required for certain matters.
(b) Court sanction is required where the decision of the company will directly affect creditors.
© Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Incorrect
To ensure that this principle is not abused, certain safeguards are provided under the NCO to protect the interests of minority shareholders:
(a) As seen in section 3.17 above, a special resolution is required for certain matters.
(b) Court sanction is required where the decision of the company will directly affect creditors.
© Dissenting members may appeal to the court to have certain resolutions cancelled.
(g) A member may petition for a winding up.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
-
Question 118 of 567
118. Question
1 pointsQID2823:Measures to protect minority shareholders do not include
Correct
Measures to protect minority shareholders include:
1. Members with 5% of the voting rights may request the directors to call a general meeting. If the directors refuse, they can convene a general meeting on their own.
2. 100 members or 10% of the holder of the issued shares can request the Financial Secretary to investigate the company’s affairs
3. Dissenting members can appeal to the court to revoke certain company resolutions
4. Any member may petition the court for the winding-up of the company.
5. If a member believes that their interests are impaired, they can apply to the court for an orderIncorrect
Measures to protect minority shareholders include:
1. Members with 5% of the voting rights may request the directors to call a general meeting. If the directors refuse, they can convene a general meeting on their own.
2. 100 members or 10% of the holder of the issued shares can request the Financial Secretary to investigate the company’s affairs
3. Dissenting members can appeal to the court to revoke certain company resolutions
4. Any member may petition the court for the winding-up of the company.
5. If a member believes that their interests are impaired, they can apply to the court for an orderHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.23
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Question 119 of 567
119. Question
1 pointsQID1085:The court may NOT intervene to allow an individual to bring an action
Correct
The court may intervene to allow an individual member or members to bring an action:
(a) to enforce some personal rights (a personal action);
(b) where a right has been infringed which affects all or a number of members in a similar way (a joint action); or
(c) on behalf of the company where misconduct has been committed against the company, for example by a director of the company or a third party (a derivative action).Incorrect
The court may intervene to allow an individual member or members to bring an action:
(a) to enforce some personal rights (a personal action);
(b) where a right has been infringed which affects all or a number of members in a similar way (a joint action); or
(c) on behalf of the company where misconduct has been committed against the company, for example by a director of the company or a third party (a derivative action).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.24
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Question 120 of 567
120. Question
1 pointsQID1087:Which of the following descriptions is an accurate representation of director under theCO?
Correct
The CO merely defines a director as including a person who occupies the position of director, by whatever name he is called. The CO itself refers very little to directors but there is more about them in Companies (Model Articles) Notice. The CO says that every company (not being a private company) must have at least two directors (s. 453, CO) and every private company must have at least one director (s. 454, CO).
Incorrect
The CO merely defines a director as including a person who occupies the position of director, by whatever name he is called. The CO itself refers very little to directors but there is more about them in Companies (Model Articles) Notice. The CO says that every company (not being a private company) must have at least two directors (s. 453, CO) and every private company must have at least one director (s. 454, CO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.25
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Question 121 of 567
121. Question
1 pointsQID1086:Which of the following descriptions are accurate representations of director under the CO?
I. A director is a person who occupies the position of director and bears whatever title.
II. Guarantee Companies and Public Companies must have at least two directors.
III. Private Companies must have at least one director.
IV. Directors are appointed by the members acting in general meeting.Correct
The CO merely defines a director as including a person who occupies the position of director, by whatever name he is called. The CO itself refers very little to directors but there is more about them in Companies (Model Articles) Notice. The CO says that every company (not being a private company) must have at least two directors (s. 453, CO) and every private company must have at least one director (s. 454, CO). The directors must be appointed by the members acting in general meeting.
Incorrect
The CO merely defines a director as including a person who occupies the position of director, by whatever name he is called. The CO itself refers very little to directors but there is more about them in Companies (Model Articles) Notice. The CO says that every company (not being a private company) must have at least two directors (s. 453, CO) and every private company must have at least one director (s. 454, CO). The directors must be appointed by the members acting in general meeting.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.25
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Question 122 of 567
122. Question
1 pointsQID2579:Which of the following is correct based on the NCO regarding director(s) of private companies?
Correct
Every private company is required to have at least one director, and at least one director must be a natural person.
Incorrect
Every private company is required to have at least one director, and at least one director must be a natural person.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.26
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Question 123 of 567
123. Question
1 pointsQID2686:Under the company ordinance regarding directors of a company, which of the following is true?
Correct
Every private company (other than one within the same group as a listed company) is required to have at least one director who is a natural person.
Incorrect
Every private company (other than one within the same group as a listed company) is required to have at least one director who is a natural person.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.26
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Question 124 of 567
124. Question
1 pointsQID1088:Every private company is required to have at least one director who is
Correct
Every private company (other than one within the same group as a listed company) is required to have at least one director who is a natural person.
Incorrect
Every private company (other than one within the same group as a listed company) is required to have at least one director who is a natural person.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.26
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Question 125 of 567
125. Question
1 pointsQID1089:Which of the following is an accurate representation of shadow directors?
Correct
Shadow directors are “persons in accordance with whose directions or instructions (excluding advice given in a professional capacity) the directors, or a majority of the directors, of a body corporate are accustomed to act”.
Incorrect
Shadow directors are “persons in accordance with whose directions or instructions (excluding advice given in a professional capacity) the directors, or a majority of the directors, of a body corporate are accustomed to act”.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.27
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Question 126 of 567
126. Question
1 pointsQID147:Who among the following individuals can be considered a shadow director?
Correct
Shadow directors are “persons in accordance with whose directions or instructions (excluding advice given in a professional capacity) the directors, or a majority of the directors, of a body corporate are accustomed to act”.
Incorrect
Shadow directors are “persons in accordance with whose directions or instructions (excluding advice given in a professional capacity) the directors, or a majority of the directors, of a body corporate are accustomed to act”.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.27
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Question 127 of 567
127. Question
1 pointsQID1091:Which of the following are officers of a company under the CO?
I. Managers
II. Company Secretary
III. Major Shareholders
IV. DirectorsCorrect
An officer, according to the CO, includes a director, manager or company secretary.
Incorrect
An officer, according to the CO, includes a director, manager or company secretary.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.28
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Question 128 of 567
128. Question
1 pointsQID1096:What are the necessary conditions for becoming a director in Hong Kong?
I. Be 18 years old and above.
II. Must not be an undischarged bankrupt.
III. Must not be disqualified by court order.
IV. Be a director of a recently wound up company.Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 129 of 567
129. Question
1 pointsQID148:Which of the following actions may result in disqualification as director by court order?
I. Ms. Chung was persistently in default in relation to the Companies Ordinance or when acting as a liquidator or receiver
II. Mr. Tse committed fraud concerning minor company matters, including the preparation of false accounts
III. Ms. Wang served as a director last year of an insolvent company that was liquidated due to the poor management of other directors
IV. Mr. Ng was convicted of an indictable offence involving fraud, dishonesty, or related to the formation or operation of companiesCorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must not be disqualified by a court order. The four primary grounds for such an order include conviction for an indictable offence involving fraud, dishonesty, or related to the formation or management of companies; persistent default concerning the Companies Ordinance or when acting as a liquidator or receiver; committing fraud in relation to company matters or engaging in fraudulent trading; and being deemed an unfit director while serving in an insolvent company.
Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must not be disqualified by a court order. The four primary grounds for such an order include conviction for an indictable offence involving fraud, dishonesty, or related to the formation or management of companies; persistent default concerning the Companies Ordinance or when acting as a liquidator or receiver; committing fraud in relation to company matters or engaging in fraudulent trading; and being deemed an unfit director while serving in an insolvent company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 130 of 567
130. Question
1 pointsQID149:Which of the following are potential barriers of becoming a director of a company?
I. Anyone aged 21 or below
II. Undischarged bankrupts
III. Persistent default in relation to the NCO
IV. A finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent companyCorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c) They must not be disqualified by court order; the four principal grounds for such an order being:
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the CO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c) They must not be disqualified by court order; the four principal grounds for such an order being:
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the CO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 131 of 567
131. Question
1 pointsQID1095:Which of the following condition does not result in being disqualified by court order and the person is able to act as a director of a company?
Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the CO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.
Fraud and the other disqualifications apply to directors and shadow directors (e.g. see section 3.5, Topic 7, which describes disqualification orders made by the Market Misconduct Tribunal (“MMT”) preventing persons committing market misconduct from being directors of companies).Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the CO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.
Fraud and the other disqualifications apply to directors and shadow directors (e.g. see section 3.5, Topic 7, which describes disqualification orders made by the Market Misconduct Tribunal (“MMT”) preventing persons committing market misconduct from being directors of companies).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 132 of 567
132. Question
1 pointsQID1090:Vita Milk is a private company engaging in dairy products trading, which of the following individual can act as a director of Vita Milk?
Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
There is Mr. Chan only who satisfies all the conditions above.Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
There is Mr. Chan only who satisfies all the conditions above.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 133 of 567
133. Question
1 pointsQID1092:Which of the following persons are not qualified to serve as a director?
I. Persons that are under the age of 18.
II. Persons that are undischarged bankrupts.
III. Persons disqualified by court.
IV. Persons who do not satisfy the statutory net worth requirement.Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 134 of 567
134. Question
1 pointsQID1093:Which of the following are principal grounds that a court may disqualify a person from becoming a director?
I. Conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies
II. Persistent default in relation to the CO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver
III. Fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading
IV. A finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the CO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.
(i) conviction of an indictable offence for fraud or dishonesty or relating to forming or operating companies;
(ii) persistent default in relation to the CO or in acting as a liquidator or receiver;
(iii) fraud in relation to company matters or fraudulent trading; or
(iv) a finding of being unfit during directorship of an insolvent company.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 135 of 567
135. Question
1 pointsQID1094:Which of the following criteria must be met before a person can be appointed as a director?
I. Must be at least 18 years of age.
II. Must not be undischarged bankrupts.
III. Must not be disqualified by court order.
IV. Must not be a shareholder of a liquidated company.Correct
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Incorrect
Persons to be appointed directors must meet the following requirements:
(a) They must be at least 18 years of age.
(b) They must not be undischarged bankrupts.
(c.) They must not be disqualified by court order.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.29
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Question 136 of 567
136. Question
1 pointsQID1040:Which of the following descriptions about the New Companies Ordinance are correct?
I. A company is a legal entity distinct from its members and is a legal person.
II. The company can make contracts.
III. The company can be sued.
IV. The company can be involved in crime and torts.Correct
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts.
Incorrect
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.3
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Question 137 of 567
137. Question
1 pointsQID1041:Which of the following descriptions of a company is NOT correct under the NCO?
Correct
A company can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Incorrect
A company can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.3
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Question 138 of 567
138. Question
1 pointsQID134:Which of the following descriptions about companies are correct?
I. An entity that is independent of its members (shareholder).
II. An entity that can sue.
III. An entity that can be sued.
IV. A company can commit crimes and tortsCorrect
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts. It also has perpetual succession and will only cease to exist if it is dissolved. It can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Incorrect
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts. It also has perpetual succession and will only cease to exist if it is dissolved. It can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.3
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Question 139 of 567
139. Question
1 pointsQID774:Which of the following descriptions about a limited company is NOT correct?
Correct
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts. It also has perpetual succession and will only cease to exist if it is dissolved. It can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Answer A is not included in this definition.Incorrect
A company is a legal entity distinct from its members. It is a legal person and can make contracts, take legal action, sue and be sued, own property and commit crimes and torts. It also has perpetual succession and will only cease to exist if it is dissolved. It can be a limited company, the normal form of most companies, where the liability of its members is limited.
Answer A is not included in this definition.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.3
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Question 140 of 567
140. Question
1 pointsQID2849:Which of the following statements about the directors of a company is correct?
I. Except as restricted by the company’s articles of association, company regulations or special resolutions, the directors may exercise all the powers of the company.
II. If the directors are unwilling to act, members may intervene in management matters at a general meeting.
III. Members may limit the powers of directors by resolution at a general meeting.
IV. Directors should hold a meeting (board meeting) before making a decision, and exercise their power only after the resolution is passed at the meeting.Correct
Members cannot pass a resolution at a general meeting to limit the powers of a director unless the director is unwilling to act or the director is in breach of fiduciary duty.
Incorrect
Members cannot pass a resolution at a general meeting to limit the powers of a director unless the director is unwilling to act or the director is in breach of fiduciary duty.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.30
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Question 141 of 567
141. Question
1 pointsQID1098:Shareholders can interfere and override management actions of the directors if:
I. the directors are unwilling to act
II. the directors’ actions result in operating losses
III. The directors are seeking approval to act beyond their powers
IV. The directors are acting in breach of their fiduciary dutiesCorrect
Directors in these circumstances are not bound by resolutions passed by members in a general meeting, nor can the members override future management actions of the directors. Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Incorrect
Directors in these circumstances are not bound by resolutions passed by members in a general meeting, nor can the members override future management actions of the directors. Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.31
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Question 142 of 567
142. Question
1 pointsQID1097:Generally speaking, directors are not bound by resolutions passed by members in a general meeting, nor can the members override future management actions of the directors. Members in general meeting may NOT intervene in the management if:
Correct
Directors in these circumstances are not bound by resolutions passed by members in a general meeting, nor can the members override future management actions of the directors. Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Incorrect
Directors in these circumstances are not bound by resolutions passed by members in a general meeting, nor can the members override future management actions of the directors. Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.31
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Question 143 of 567
143. Question
1 pointsQID884:What actions can company members take when directors are unwilling to act, seeking approval to act beyond their powers, or acting in breach of their fiduciary duties?
I. Members may act on behalf of the directors
II. Approve the directors to acts beyond their powers
III. Ratify the breach of fiduciary duties
IV. Remove the directorsCorrect
Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Incorrect
Members in general meeting may only intervene in the management if the directors are:
(a) unwilling to act;
(b) seeking approval to act beyond their powers (the members can approve such acts by ordinary resolution); or
(c.) acting in breach of their fiduciary duties (the members may ratify such breaches in general meeting).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.31
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Question 144 of 567
144. Question
1 pointsQID1099:Under common law, how should directors act and make decisions?
I. Exercise their power collaboratively by having meetings with a proper quorum, passing resolutions and have to be minuted.
II. Directors can act independently if the articles of association allow the board to delegate its power to its individual directors, to committees and to the managing director.
III. For private companies, a written record of a decision made by the sole director of a private company will prevail.Correct
Under common law, directors should exercise their powers as a group by having meetings (board of directors’ meetings or board meetings) with a proper quorum, passing resolutions that have to be minuted. This can be avoided as usually the company’s articles of association allow the board to delegate its powers to individual directors, to committees and to the managing director. Under s. 483, NCO, a written record of a decision made by the sole director of a private company shall be sufficient evidence of that decision.
Incorrect
Under common law, directors should exercise their powers as a group by having meetings (board of directors’ meetings or board meetings) with a proper quorum, passing resolutions that have to be minuted. This can be avoided as usually the company’s articles of association allow the board to delegate its powers to individual directors, to committees and to the managing director. Under s. 483, NCO, a written record of a decision made by the sole director of a private company shall be sufficient evidence of that decision.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.32
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Question 145 of 567
145. Question
1 pointsQID1102:Under common law, although the directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company, this does not mean they have to:
Correct
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Incorrect
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.33
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Question 146 of 567
146. Question
1 pointsQID1100:There is a fiduciary relationship between the directors of a company and the company itself, the directors should act with the utmost good faith towards their principals, which include which of the followings?
I. Determine appropriate remuneration for its directorship through a resolution.
II. Act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
III. Exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
IV. Not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Correct
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Incorrect
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.33
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Question 147 of 567
147. Question
1 pointsQID1101:Under common law, the directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company and they must:
I. Act with utmost good faith towards the company.
II. Act bona fide for the benefit of the company.
III. Exercise their powers for their proper purpose.
IV. Not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Correct
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Incorrect
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c.) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.33
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Question 148 of 567
148. Question
1 pointsQID151:Which of the following are fiduciary duties of directors?
I. Act bona fide for the benefit of the company
II. Exercise their powers for their proper purpose
III. Not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests
IV. Not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and the companies interestsCorrect
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost
good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Incorrect
The directors have a fiduciary relationship with the company. They must act with the utmost
good faith towards their principal, i.e. the company; and:
(a) act bona fide for the benefit of the company;
(b) exercise their powers for their proper purpose; and
(c) not allow any conflict of interest between their duties as directors and their personal interests.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.33
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Question 149 of 567
149. Question
1 pointsQID152:To determine whether a director is diligent, skilful and accountable to the company, which of the following methods are utilized?
I. Qualifying Exam
II. Objective Test
III. Subjective Test
IV. Continuous Professional AssessmentCorrect
The CO provisions set out a mixed objective and subjective test in the determination of the standard of directors’ duty of care, skill and diligence. To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person:
(a) the general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test); and
(b) the general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test).Incorrect
The CO provisions set out a mixed objective and subjective test in the determination of the standard of directors’ duty of care, skill and diligence. To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person:
(a) the general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test); and
(b) the general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.34
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Question 150 of 567
150. Question
1 pointsQID1103:A director is expected to perform under the following principles with the exception of
Correct
To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person with:
(a) the general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test); and
(b) the general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test).Incorrect
To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person with:
(a) the general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test); and
(b) the general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.34
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Question 151 of 567
151. Question
1 pointsQID1104:The NCO imposes on director’s requirement to exercise reasonable care, skill and diligence. To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person with:
I. The general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test)
II. The general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test)
III. The general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (subjective test)
IV. The general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (objective test)Correct
To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person with:
(a) the general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test); and
(b) the general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test).Incorrect
To determine whether a director of the company has breached the duty of care, skill and diligence owed by him to the company, his conduct is compared to the standard that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person with:
(a) the general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (objective test); and
(b) the general knowledge, skill and experience that the director has (subjective test).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.34
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Question 152 of 567
152. Question
1 pointsQID153:iss Ko, an employee of Hai Nei Company, has committed an act of market misconduct while undertaking the company’s business and is facing charges. In which of the following scenarios would Mr. Wan, the director of Hoi Nei Company, be legally accountable?
Correct
Directors are additionally subject to other, more specific duties
imposed upon them by particular statutory provisions. For example, Twelfth Schedule, the CWUMPO provides for a fine and/or imprisonment for a director that authorises the issue of
a prospectus containing an untrue statement. Where a director breaches strict requirements of the NCO, such as failing to prepare financial statements when required to do so, liability
will also arise. It is therefore important that directors understand both the general and the specific responsibilities imposed upon them, and how to properly discharge them, in order to fulfil their roles as directors and to address their exposure to directors’ liabilities.Incorrect
Directors are additionally subject to other, more specific duties
imposed upon them by particular statutory provisions. For example, Twelfth Schedule, the CWUMPO provides for a fine and/or imprisonment for a director that authorises the issue of
a prospectus containing an untrue statement. Where a director breaches strict requirements of the NCO, such as failing to prepare financial statements when required to do so, liability
will also arise. It is therefore important that directors understand both the general and the specific responsibilities imposed upon them, and how to properly discharge them, in order to fulfil their roles as directors and to address their exposure to directors’ liabilities.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.35
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Question 153 of 567
153. Question
1 pointsQID1105:According to the NCO which has defined the statutory liabilities of directors, directors may incur liabilities due to:
I. Breaches of fiduciary duties.
II. Failure to give continuous attention to the affairs of the company.
III. Failure to act with due care and skill.
IV. Breaches of statutory duties.Correct
Where a director breaches strict requirements of the CO,
such as failing to prepare financial statements when required to do so, liability will also arise. It is therefore important that directors understand both the general and the specific
responsibilities imposed upon them, and how to properly discharge them, in order to fulfil their roles as directors and to address their exposure to directors’ liabilities.
Any ratification by a company of conduct by a director in relation to negligence, default, breach of duty or breach of trust in relation to the company must be approved by resolution of the members of the companyIncorrect
Where a director breaches strict requirements of the CO,
such as failing to prepare financial statements when required to do so, liability will also arise. It is therefore important that directors understand both the general and the specific
responsibilities imposed upon them, and how to properly discharge them, in order to fulfil their roles as directors and to address their exposure to directors’ liabilities.
Any ratification by a company of conduct by a director in relation to negligence, default, breach of duty or breach of trust in relation to the company must be approved by resolution of the members of the companyHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.35
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Question 154 of 567
154. Question
1 pointsQID885:Mr. Ko is a shareholder of Yellow River Trading. He believes Mr. David Wan, a director of Yellow River Trading, is breaching his statutory duties in recent electronics trading transactions. What are the actions that Mr Ko can take?
I. Obtain an injunction stopping such action.
II. If Mr. Wan has not disclosed a personal interest in a contract he has made on behalf of the company, the contract may be avoided at the option of the company.
III. All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
IV. If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Correct
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Incorrect
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.36
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Question 155 of 567
155. Question
1 pointsQID883:What are the possible remedies for a breach of duty by directors?
I. It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
II. If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company.
III. All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
IV. If the directors have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the members for such profits.Correct
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Incorrect
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.36
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Question 156 of 567
156. Question
1 pointsQID159:What are possible reliefs for directors for a breach?
I. The company can obtain an injunction, request for cancellation of contract or sue for damages
II. The company can submit the case to the SFC Fiduciary Committee.
III. The directors who are in breach should be accountable to the company for profits and damages.
IV. The directors who are in breach should be accountable to the company for profits and damages in addition to the interest owed.Correct
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Incorrect
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.36
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Question 157 of 567
157. Question
1 pointsQID886:What are the possible remedies for a breach of duty by directors?
I. It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
II. If the directors have disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company.
III. All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
IV. If the directors have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Correct
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Incorrect
The company may have the following remedies for a breach of duty by directors:
(a) It may obtain an injunction stopping such action.
(b) If the directors have not disclosed a personal interest in a contract they have made on behalf of the company, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the company, i.e. rescission.
(c.) All directors who have acted in breach of their duties will be jointly and severally liable to the company for damages.
(d) If they have wrongfully profited by dealing with the company’s property, the directors must account to the company for such profits.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.36
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Question 158 of 567
158. Question
1 pointsQID154:Millionaire Securities has recently been convicted of certain acts of market misconduct. Mr. Ip, the director of Millionaire Securities, was unaware of these illegal acts but had diligently tried to oversee and regulate the company’s operations. Under these circumstances, is Mr. Ip guilty?
Correct
The court may give relief to a director or directors if they have, in causing the breach, been shown to have acted honestly and reasonably.
Incorrect
The court may give relief to a director or directors if they have, in causing the breach, been shown to have acted honestly and reasonably.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.38
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Question 159 of 567
159. Question
1 pointsQID1106:If a director (or his connected entity) can reasonably foresee direct or indirect interest in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must:
I. For transaction or arrangements that has been entered, he must declare the nature and extent of that interest to other directors.
II. For transaction or arrangements that has been entered, he must declare the nature and extent of that interest to the members.
III. For transaction or arrangements being proposed, he must declare the nature and extent of that interest to other directors.
IV. For transaction or arrangements being proposed, he must declare the nature and extent of that interest to the members.”Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 160 of 567
160. Question
1 pointsQID155:If a director Mr. Ko discovers any conflict of interest with personal benefits in a contract related to the company’s business, he should:
I. Declare the nature and extent of the interest within a reasonable and practicable time, after the contract has been entered into.
II. No declaration is required if the arranged contract is not made in Hong Kong.
III. Declare the nature and extent of the conflict of interest before the contract is entered into.
IV. No declaration is required if the contract is not entered into.Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction, arrangement or contract that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction, arrangement or contract for a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction, arrangement or contract that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction, arrangement or contract for a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 161 of 567
161. Question
1 pointsQID1605:Mr. Liu is the only shareholder of Vitamilk and the director of Millionaire Financial Investment. Another director of Millionaire Financial Investment suggested to acquire some of Vitamilk real estates at the board of directors meeting. Does Mr. Liu have to declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest?
Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 162 of 567
162. Question
1 pointsQID795:Mr. Ko is a director of a phone book printing company -Kaohsiung Printing. Mr Ko and Mr Wan jointly own British Construction Bank and are both directors of British Construction Bank. Kaohsiung Printing is going to print a lot of phone books and calendars for British Construction Bank as souvenirs for customers. Should Mr. Ko disclose his interest in Kaohsiung Printing to the board of directors of British Construction Bank?
Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 163 of 567
163. Question
1 pointsQID1108:Yellow River Trading is prepared to acquire a well know local website – Opennoodles.com. The director of Yellow River Trading, Mr. Wan, is the spouse of the owner of Opennoodles.com. Mr. Wan should:
I. Disclose his interest in the general meeting.
II. Take no action because it is his spouse’s interests that are involved in the deal
III. Ensure that the deal is proper, fair and in the interest of Yellow River Trading.
IV. Resign immediately.Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 164 of 567
164. Question
1 pointsQID1107:If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare the nature and extent of that interest:
I. Before the transaction and arrangement has been made, for a proposed transaction or arrangement
II. After the transaction and arrangement has been made, for a proposed transaction or arrangement.
III. As soon as he can reasonably foresee such conflict of interest.
IV. As soon as the annual audit requires him to do so.Correct
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Incorrect
If a director (or his connected entity) is directly or indirectly interested in a transaction, arrangement or contract, or a proposed transaction, arrangement or contract with the company that is significant in relation to the company’s business, he must declare to other directors the nature and extent of that interest (if it is material):
(a) as soon as reasonably practicable for a transaction or arrangement that has been entered; or
(b) before the company enters into the transaction or arrangement for a proposed transaction or arrangement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.39
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Question 165 of 567
165. Question
1 pointsQID2812:Which of the following statements about the Companies Ordinance is incorrect?
Correct
There is no minimum authorised share capital requirement for a company.
Incorrect
There is no minimum authorised share capital requirement for a company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.4
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Question 166 of 567
166. Question
1 pointsQID1074:Under the Companies Ordinance, which of the following are correct categorization of companies?
I. Private Companies
II. Public Companies
III. Listed Companies
IV. Guarantee CompaniesCorrect
Under the CO, every Hong Kong company falls into one of three categories: private companies, public companies and guarantee companies.
Incorrect
Under the CO, every Hong Kong company falls into one of three categories: private companies, public companies and guarantee companies.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.4
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Question 167 of 567
167. Question
1 pointsQID778:In Hong Kong, registered companies can be classified into which of the following categories?
I. Private Company
II. Public Company
III. Non-Profit Company
IV. Guarantee CompanyCorrect
Under the NCO, a new category of company is added and now every Hong Kong company falls into one of three categories: private companies, public companies and guarantee companies.
Incorrect
Under the NCO, a new category of company is added and now every Hong Kong company falls into one of three categories: private companies, public companies and guarantee companies.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.4
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Question 168 of 567
168. Question
1 pointsQID1111:Which of the following descriptions about directors’ remuneration are correct?
I. If the director is also having administrative roles, he does not need to have a separate service with the company. All directors’ fees should include all of his services.
II. The articles of association have designated the powers of determining such remuneration.
III. The articles of association states that director remuneration should be determined by the members in the general meeting.
IV. Directors remuneration usually covers directors’ fees.Correct
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Incorrect
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 169 of 567
169. Question
1 pointsQID157:In general, remuneration of which of the following individuals is determined by the company in general meeting?
Correct
The remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting.
Incorrect
The remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 170 of 567
170. Question
1 pointsQID158:According to the provisions in the model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice, how should the remuneration of directors be determined?
Correct
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees.
Incorrect
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 171 of 567
171. Question
1 pointsQID1109:Who determines the directors’ remuneration?
Correct
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting.
Incorrect
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 172 of 567
172. Question
1 pointsQID156:Which of the following descriptions regarding the remuneration of directors is correct?
Correct
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Incorrect
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 173 of 567
173. Question
1 pointsQID1110:Which of the following are correct descriptions of directors’ remuneration?
I. Authority for payment is provided in the articles
II. If a director holds some other position, such as Managing Director or an executive director, he can have a service contract parallel to his director’s remuneration.
III. The remuneration must include a set of stock options.
IV. The director of a company should treat his directorship as his sole profession.Correct
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Incorrect
Authority for payment is provided in the company’s articles. The model articles of association in the Companies (Model Articles) Notice provide that the remuneration of directors is determined by the company in general meeting. This usually covers directors’ fees. If a director holds some other position, such as managing director or executive director, he can have a service contract.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.40
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Question 174 of 567
174. Question
1 pointsQID1178:Mr. David Wan and his spouse are investing in real estate under the name of Yangtze River Investment and he is trying to apply for a loan for assignment. Mr. Wan and his spouse are the only directors and shareholders of Yangtze River Investment. Mr. Wan is also a director of a well-known electronics trading company, Yellow River Trading. To apply for the loan, Mr. Wan can:
I. Apply for a personal loan by assigning Yellow River Trading as the Guarantor.
II. Apply for a personal loan by assigning the subsidiaries of Yellow River Trading as the Guarantor.
III. Apply for a loan from Yellow River Trading.
IV. Apply for a personal loan using his director remuneration from Yellow River Trading as collateral.Correct
A company cannot directly or indirectly:
(a) make a loan to a director of the company or a body corporate controlled by such a director; or
(b) enter into a guarantee or provide security for such a loan
without the approval of its members.Incorrect
A company cannot directly or indirectly:
(a) make a loan to a director of the company or a body corporate controlled by such a director; or
(b) enter into a guarantee or provide security for such a loan
without the approval of its members.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.41
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Question 175 of 567
175. Question
1 pointsQID1112:Which of the following are exceptions to prohibitions on loans to a director?
I. A de minimum threshold of 5% of the net assets of the company before a transaction is subject to the restriction.
II. Expenditure in connection with defending any proceeding or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct provided that the directors has to repay the company if he is found guilty or to have committed the misconduct.
III. Expenses that are incurred by the director in the course of personal business.
IV. If the director is the sole owner of the company and he agrees to such arrangements.Correct
There are exceptions, such as the following:
(a) a de minimum threshold of 5% of the net assets of the company before a transaction is subject to the restriction; and
(b) expenditure in connection with defending any proceeding or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct provided that the directors has to repay the company if he is found guilty or to have committed the misconduct.Incorrect
There are exceptions, such as the following:
(a) a de minimum threshold of 5% of the net assets of the company before a transaction is subject to the restriction; and
(b) expenditure in connection with defending any proceeding or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct provided that the directors has to repay the company if he is found guilty or to have committed the misconduct.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.44
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Question 176 of 567
176. Question
1 pointsQID161:Under normal circumstances, a company cannot directly or indirectly make a loan or guarantee to a director of its holding company or a body corporate controlled by such a director. However, which of the following are exceptions?
I. Making a loan of value not exceeding 5% of the company’s net assets.
II. The loan is made with the approval of the members of the company.
III. Expenditure on defending any proceeding, or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct of a director if such expenditure has to be repaid by the director to the company when he is convicted in the proceeding or has committed misconduct.
IV. The loan is made with the approval of the SFC.Correct
There are exceptions, such as the following:
(a) making a loan of value not exceeding 5% of the company’s net assets; and
(b) expenditure on defending any proceeding, or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct of a director if such expenditure has to be repaid by the director to the company when he is convicted in the proceeding or has committed the misconduct. Similarly, a company cannot directly or indirectly make a loan or guarantee to a director of its holding company or a body corporate controlled by such a director without the approvals
of its members and the holding companies’ members.Incorrect
There are exceptions, such as the following:
(a) making a loan of value not exceeding 5% of the company’s net assets; and
(b) expenditure on defending any proceeding, or investigation or regulatory action for misconduct of a director if such expenditure has to be repaid by the director to the company when he is convicted in the proceeding or has committed the misconduct. Similarly, a company cannot directly or indirectly make a loan or guarantee to a director of its holding company or a body corporate controlled by such a director without the approvals
of its members and the holding companies’ members.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.44
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Question 177 of 567
177. Question
1 pointsQID162:Which of the following entities can appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the
affairs of a company if the court declares that an investigation should be carried out?Correct
The Financial Secretary is required to appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the affairs of a company if the court declares that an investigation should be carried out (s. 841, NCO).
Incorrect
The Financial Secretary is required to appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the affairs of a company if the court declares that an investigation should be carried out (s. 841, NCO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.46
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Question 178 of 567
178. Question
1 pointsQID1113:If the court declares that an investigation on a company’s affairs should be carried out, which of the following organization should appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the company?
Correct
The Financial Secretary is required to appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the affairs of a company if the court declares that an investigation should be carried out (s. 841, NCO).
Incorrect
The Financial Secretary is required to appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the affairs of a company if the court declares that an investigation should be carried out (s. 841, NCO).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.46
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Question 179 of 567
179. Question
1 pointsQID1114:The Financial Secretary is required to appoint inspectors under which of the following circumstances?
I. An application is made by the specified number of members.
II. The company passed a special resolution requesting such inspections.
III. He suspects fraud in the operations or formation of the company, or oppressive conduct, or an intent to defraud creditors.
IV. He suspects the persons concerned with the formation or management of the company have been guilty of fraud or other misconduct.Correct
The Financial Secretary may also appoint inspectors if:
(a) an application is made by the specified number of members;
(b) the company passes a special resolution requesting such appointment;
(c.) he suspects fraud in the business or formation of the company, or oppressive conduct, or an intent to defraud creditors; or
(d) he suspects the persons concerned with the formation or management of the company to have been guilty of fraud or other misconduct (ss. 840 to 841, NCO).Incorrect
The Financial Secretary may also appoint inspectors if:
(a) an application is made by the specified number of members;
(b) the company passes a special resolution requesting such appointment;
(c.) he suspects fraud in the business or formation of the company, or oppressive conduct, or an intent to defraud creditors; or
(d) he suspects the persons concerned with the formation or management of the company to have been guilty of fraud or other misconduct (ss. 840 to 841, NCO).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.47
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Question 180 of 567
180. Question
1 pointsQID2763:According to the Companies Ordinance, when can the Financial Secretary appoint an inspector to conduct an investigation into a company?
I. The company passes an ordinary resolution
II. The company passes a special resolution
III. Application by more than the nominated number of members
IV. The Financial Secretary considers that the company is involved in fraud or unfairly treating ordinary membersCorrect
Circumstances under which the Financial Secretary may appoint an inspector to conduct an investigation into a company under the Companies Ordinance include:
I. The company passes a special resolution
II. Application by more than the nominated number of members (100 or 10%)
III. The Financial Secretary considers that the company is involved in fraud or unfairly treating ordinary membersIncorrect
Circumstances under which the Financial Secretary may appoint an inspector to conduct an investigation into a company under the Companies Ordinance include:
I. The company passes a special resolution
II. Application by more than the nominated number of members (100 or 10%)
III. The Financial Secretary considers that the company is involved in fraud or unfairly treating ordinary membersHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.47
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Question 181 of 567
181. Question
1 pointsQID2673:The SFC are not authorised to use its power to
Correct
Only courst can windup companies.
Incorrect
Only courst can windup companies.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.49
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Question 182 of 567
182. Question
1 pointsQID1117:Which of the following descriptions about compulsory liquidation is correct?
I. This is a compulsory winding-up ordered by the court.
II. The liquidator is appointed by the court and acts under its control.
III. The liquidator is appointed through a shareholders’ meeting and acts under the control of the directors.
IV. Liquidation is passed by a special resolution.Correct
This is a compulsory winding-up ordered by the court, and the liquidator is appointed by the court and acts under its control.
Incorrect
This is a compulsory winding-up ordered by the court, and the liquidator is appointed by the court and acts under its control.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.49
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Question 183 of 567
183. Question
1 pointsQID775:Which of the following are characteristics of a private company?
I. Restrictions on the rights to transfer it shares.
II. No more than 50 share holders.
III. May not offer shares to the public.
IV. Can be bought and sold OTC on the market.Correct
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
(c.) may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Incorrect
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
(c.) may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.5
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Question 184 of 567
184. Question
1 pointsQID777:Which of the following restrictions about a private company is incorrect?
Correct
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.
A private company doesn’t have to be guarantee companies.Incorrect
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.
A private company doesn’t have to be guarantee companies.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.5
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Question 185 of 567
185. Question
1 pointsQID136:Which of the following description about private company is correct?
I. Must have more than 50 members
II. May not offer shares to the public
III. restricts the right to transfer its share
IV. is not limited by guaranteeCorrect
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares; members and continue to be members respectively);
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Incorrect
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares; members and continue to be members respectively);
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.5
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Question 186 of 567
186. Question
1 pointsQID776:A private company is a company that:
I. Has no restrictions in rights to transfer its shares.
II. May not have more than 50 members.
III. May not offer shares to the public.
IV. Is not limited by guarantee.Correct
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Incorrect
A private company is a company that:
(a) restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) may not have more than 50 members (excluding present and past employees who are members and continue to be members respectively);
© may not offer shares (or debentures) to the public; and
(d) is not limited by guarantee.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.5
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Question 187 of 567
187. Question
1 pointsQID1118:Which of the following is NOT a possible reason for compulsory liquidation?
Correct
A company may be wound up by the court if:
(e) the event occurs on the occurrence of which the memorandum or articles of association provides that the company is to be dissolved; or
(f) the court is of the opinion that it would be just and equitable to wind up the company. Examples are where:
(ii) the company was formed for a fraudulent purpose; or
(iii) the basis of mutual trust, understanding and confidence on which the company was
formed no longer exists.Incorrect
A company may be wound up by the court if:
(e) the event occurs on the occurrence of which the memorandum or articles of association provides that the company is to be dissolved; or
(f) the court is of the opinion that it would be just and equitable to wind up the company. Examples are where:
(ii) the company was formed for a fraudulent purpose; or
(iii) the basis of mutual trust, understanding and confidence on which the company was
formed no longer exists.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.50
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Question 188 of 567
188. Question
1 pointsQID2826:Which of the following is less likely to be the main cause of compulsory winding up?
Correct
Unless the company has been out of business for more than a year at all, it is relatively unlikely that a company with a small amount of business remaining will be the primary reason for winding up.
Incorrect
Unless the company has been out of business for more than a year at all, it is relatively unlikely that a company with a small amount of business remaining will be the primary reason for winding up.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.50
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Question 189 of 567
189. Question
1 pointsQID1116:Which of the following is a reason for compulsory liquidation?
Correct
A company may be wound up by the court if:
(a) it has by special resolution resolved that it shall be wound up by the court;
(b) it does not commence its business within a year from its incorporation; or has suspended its business for a whole year;
(c.) it has no members;
(d) it is unable to pay its debts;
(e) the event occurs on the occurrence of which the articles of association provide that the company is to be dissolved; or
(f) the court is of the opinion that it would be just and equitable to wind up the company.Incorrect
A company may be wound up by the court if:
(a) it has by special resolution resolved that it shall be wound up by the court;
(b) it does not commence its business within a year from its incorporation; or has suspended its business for a whole year;
(c.) it has no members;
(d) it is unable to pay its debts;
(e) the event occurs on the occurrence of which the articles of association provide that the company is to be dissolved; or
(f) the court is of the opinion that it would be just and equitable to wind up the company.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.50
-
Question 190 of 567
190. Question
1 pointsQID1120:Petitioner(s) of compulsory liquidation may NOT be:
Correct
The petitioners may be:
(a) the company;
(b) a creditor;
(d) the Financial Secretary, if he thinks it desirable in the public interest.Incorrect
The petitioners may be:
(a) the company;
(b) a creditor;
(d) the Financial Secretary, if he thinks it desirable in the public interest.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.51
-
Question 191 of 567
191. Question
1 pointsQID164:Which of the following cannot petition the court for a company’s winding-up?
Correct
The petitioners may be:
(a) the company;
(b) a creditor;
(c) a contributory (i.e. every person liable to contribute to the assets of a company in the event of its being wound up);
(d) the Financial Secretary, if he thinks it desirable in the public interest;
(e) the Registrar of Companies, if the company has breached provisions of the CO or is being carried on for an unlawful purpose;
(f) the Official Receiver, where there is already a voluntary winding up (s. 179, CWUMPO); and
(g) the SFC, if it appears desirable in the public interest (SFO gives authority to the SFC).Incorrect
The petitioners may be:
(a) the company;
(b) a creditor;
(c) a contributory (i.e. every person liable to contribute to the assets of a company in the event of its being wound up);
(d) the Financial Secretary, if he thinks it desirable in the public interest;
(e) the Registrar of Companies, if the company has breached provisions of the CO or is being carried on for an unlawful purpose;
(f) the Official Receiver, where there is already a voluntary winding up (s. 179, CWUMPO); and
(g) the SFC, if it appears desirable in the public interest (SFO gives authority to the SFC).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.51
-
Question 192 of 567
192. Question
1 pointsQID1119:Petitioners of compulsory liquidation may be:
I. The Official Receiver.
II. The SFC, in lieu of public interest.
III. The Chief Executive.
IV. The Registrar of Companies.Correct
The petitioners may be:
(e) the Registrar of Companies, if the company has breached provisions of the CO or is being carried on for an unlawful purpose;
(f) the Official Receiver, where there is already a voluntary winding up (s. 179, CWUMPO); and
(g) the SFC, if it appears desirable in the public interest (SFO gives authority to the SFC).Incorrect
The petitioners may be:
(e) the Registrar of Companies, if the company has breached provisions of the CO or is being carried on for an unlawful purpose;
(f) the Official Receiver, where there is already a voluntary winding up (s. 179, CWUMPO); and
(g) the SFC, if it appears desirable in the public interest (SFO gives authority to the SFC).Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.51
-
Question 193 of 567
193. Question
1 pointsQID1121:In the case of a compulsory liquidation, the liquidator should be appointed by:
Correct
The court may appoint a liquidator.
Incorrect
The court may appoint a liquidator.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.52
-
Question 194 of 567
194. Question
1 pointsQID1123:Which of the following can start a Voluntary liquidation?
I. Members
II. Debtors
III. Creditors
IV. Chairman of the BoardCorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
Incorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.53
-
Question 195 of 567
195. Question
1 pointsQID1124:Voluntary liquidation may be started by which of the following?
I. Shareholders
II. Creditors
III. Financial Secretary
IV. The Chief ExecutiveCorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
Incorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.53
-
Question 196 of 567
196. Question
1 pointsQID165:According the CO, which of the following can initiate a voluntary liquidation?
I. Directors
II. Creditors
III. Members
IV. Financial SecretaryCorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors. A voluntary winding-up is started if the directors of a company or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors deliver a winding-up statement that the company should be wound up after passing a resolution to that effect at a board meeting.
Incorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors. A voluntary winding-up is started if the directors of a company or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors deliver a winding-up statement that the company should be wound up after passing a resolution to that effect at a board meeting.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.54
-
Question 197 of 567
197. Question
1 pointsQID1122:Voluntary liquidation can be initiated by which of the following parties?
I. Directors
II. Members
III. Creditors
IV. CourtCorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
A voluntary winding-up is started:
(a) when the period fixed for the company’s duration as stated in its articles of association comes to an end;
(b) by the passing of a special resolution for winding up; or
(c) if the directors of a company or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors deliver a winding-up statement under s. 228A, CWUMPO
that the company should be wound up after passing a resolution to that effect at a board meeting. However, no later than 28 days after the delivery of any winding-up statement to the Registrar of Companies to commence the winding-up, a meeting of the company must have been summoned. Also, a provisional liquidator must have been appointed since the commencement of the winding-up. In the case of a private company having only one
director, the sole director may make the winding-up statement.Incorrect
A voluntary winding-up may be started by members or creditors.
A voluntary winding-up is started:
(a) when the period fixed for the company’s duration as stated in its articles of association comes to an end;
(b) by the passing of a special resolution for winding up; or
(c) if the directors of a company or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors deliver a winding-up statement under s. 228A, CWUMPO
that the company should be wound up after passing a resolution to that effect at a board meeting. However, no later than 28 days after the delivery of any winding-up statement to the Registrar of Companies to commence the winding-up, a meeting of the company must have been summoned. Also, a provisional liquidator must have been appointed since the commencement of the winding-up. In the case of a private company having only one
director, the sole director may make the winding-up statement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.54
-
Question 198 of 567
198. Question
1 pointsQID1125:Which of the following is/are valid reason(s) for voluntary liquidation?
I. The period of the company’s planned existence as stated in its articles of association comes to an end.
II. A special resolution has been passed to wind up the company.
III. A passing of ordinary resolution that it is advisable to wind up the company, as it cannot continue due to its liabilities.
IV. The directors of a company or, in a case of a company having more than 2 directors, the majority of the directors deliver a winding-up statement under section 228A that the company should be wound up after passing a resolution to that effect at a board meeting.Correct
A voluntary winding-up is started:
(a) when the period fixed for the company’s duration as stated in its articles of association
comes to an end;
(b) by the passing of a special resolution for winding up; or
(c) if the directors of a company or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors deliver a winding-up statement under s. 228A, CWUMPO that the company should be wound up after passing a resolution to that effect at a board meeting. However, prior to no later than 28 days after the delivery of any winding-up statement to the Registrar of Companies to commence the winding-up, a meeting of the company must have been summoned and a provisional liquidator must have been appointed. In the case of a private company having only one director, the sole director may make the winding-up statement.Incorrect
A voluntary winding-up is started:
(a) when the period fixed for the company’s duration as stated in its articles of association
comes to an end;
(b) by the passing of a special resolution for winding up; or
(c) if the directors of a company or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors deliver a winding-up statement under s. 228A, CWUMPO that the company should be wound up after passing a resolution to that effect at a board meeting. However, prior to no later than 28 days after the delivery of any winding-up statement to the Registrar of Companies to commence the winding-up, a meeting of the company must have been summoned and a provisional liquidator must have been appointed. In the case of a private company having only one director, the sole director may make the winding-up statement.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.54
-
Question 199 of 567
199. Question
1 pointsQID2720:The document proving the company’s ability to pay its debts during the member’s (solvent) voluntary winding-up process is?
Correct
The document certifying the company’s ability to pay its debts during the members’ (solvent) voluntary winding-up is a certificate of solvency.
Incorrect
The document certifying the company’s ability to pay its debts during the members’ (solvent) voluntary winding-up is a certificate of solvency.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.55
-
Question 200 of 567
200. Question
1 pointsQID1129:If the directors believe that a company can repay its debt and obligations according to the certificate of solvency, within how long should the company repay all its outstanding obligations?
Correct
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Incorrect
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.55
-
Question 201 of 567
201. Question
1 pointsQID1128:Which of the following are prerequisites to the issuance of Certificate of Solvency?
I. Agreed upon by a simple majority of directors.
II. Directors have made a full inquiry into the affairs of the company.
III. Directors have formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 1 month from the commencement of the winding up as specified in the certificate of solvency.
IV. Directors have formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Correct
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(a) made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company; and
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Incorrect
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(a) made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company; and
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.55
-
Question 202 of 567
202. Question
1 pointsQID1127:Voluntary liquidation can take place if the directors of a company or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors, can issue which of the following documents?
Correct
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency”.
Incorrect
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency”.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.55
-
Question 203 of 567
203. Question
1 pointsQID1126:Which of the following are the necessary prerequisites for a member’s voluntary winding-up to be undertaken?
I. The majority of the directors has issued a “certificate of solvency”.
II. The directors have made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company.
III. The directors have formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.
IV. The company has not been able to make a profit, or has not commenced business for the past year.Correct
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(a) made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company; and
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Incorrect
Members’ voluntary winding up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(a) made a full enquiry into the affairs of the company; and
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.55
-
Question 204 of 567
204. Question
1 pointsQID1132:The certificate of solvency should be issued within how long preceding the winding-up resolution?
Correct
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Incorrect
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.57
-
Question 205 of 567
205. Question
1 pointsQID166:Which of the following statements about the “certificate of solvency” is correct?
I. It must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution to winding-up.
II. It must be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration.
III. The directors opine in the “certificate of solvency” that the company will be able to settle its debts in full within 12 months.
IV. If, after issuing the “certificate of solvency”, the company fails to settle its debts in full, the directors may bear criminal liability and be responsible for the shortfallCorrect
A member’s voluntary winding-up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two
directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the five weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered, and must include a statement of the company’s assets and liabilities at the latest practicable date.Incorrect
A member’s voluntary winding-up may be undertaken if the directors or, in the case of a company having more than two
directors, the majority of the directors issue a “certificate of solvency” to the effect that they have:
(b) formed the opinion that the company will be able to pay its debts within 12 months from the commencement of the winding-up as specified in the certificate of solvency.
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the five weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered, and must include a statement of the company’s assets and liabilities at the latest practicable date.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.57
-
Question 206 of 567
206. Question
1 pointsQID1130:The certificate of solvency should be delivered to:
Correct
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Incorrect
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.57
-
Question 207 of 567
207. Question
1 pointsQID1131:The issuance of the “Certificate of Solvency” should be done:
Correct
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Incorrect
The certificate of solvency must be issued within the 5 weeks preceding the resolution and be delivered to the Registrar of Companies for registration not later than when the copy of the winding-up resolution is delivered.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.57
-
Question 208 of 567
208. Question
1 pointsQID1133:The liquidator and committee of inspection of a creditors’ voluntary winding up may be appointed by:
Correct
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Incorrect
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.58
-
Question 209 of 567
209. Question
1 pointsQID167: If a members’ voluntary winding-up is not feasible, a creditors’ voluntary winding-up will take place. Which of the following entities will supervise this winding-up process?
Correct
Where a resolution for Creditors’ voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of seven days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Incorrect
Where a resolution for Creditors’ voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of seven days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.58
-
Question 210 of 567
210. Question
1 pointsQID1134:If the creditors decide to summon a meeting for the day when the resolution to wind up is proposed or for the next day, the company must arrange advertisements to be run in the Gazette and newspapers. This form of liquidation is likely to be:
Correct
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Incorrect
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.58
-
Question 211 of 567
211. Question
1 pointsQID1135:If the creditors decide to summon a meeting for the day when the resolution to wind up is proposed or for the next day, what kind of documents will be presented to the meeting?
I. Articles of Association
II. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs
III. List of Proof of Debt provided by Creditors
IV. Balance Sheet of the companyCorrect
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Incorrect
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.58
-
Question 212 of 567
212. Question
1 pointsQID1136:Which one of the following are accurate representations of creditors’ voluntary winding up?
I. Creditors’ voluntary winding up may be a result of failure in compulsory liquidation.
II. The company arranges a meeting of the creditors to be summoned for the day when the resolution to wind up is proposed or for the next day.
III. Advertisements will have to be run in the Gazette and newspapers.
IV. A statement of assets and liabilities, and a list of creditors and amounts due, will be presented to the meeting at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed.Correct
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Incorrect
Where a resolution for voluntary winding-up has been proposed, the company must arrange a meeting of the creditors to be held within 14 days thereafter subject to a minimum notice period of 7 days. Advertisements must be run in the Gazette and newspapers. A statement of the position of the company’s affairs will be presented to the meeting, at which a liquidator and a committee of inspection will be appointed to supervise the process.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.58
-
Question 213 of 567
213. Question
1 pointsQID1137:Which of the following is not an example of making a contract?
Correct
A contract is an agreement between two or more persons creating obligations that are enforceable or otherwise recognisable under law, for example:
(a) the purchase or sale of a security or futures contract;
(b) the acceptance by an investor of an initial public offer of securities made by an issuer;
(c.) an undertaking to manage a mutual fund.Incorrect
A contract is an agreement between two or more persons creating obligations that are enforceable or otherwise recognisable under law, for example:
(a) the purchase or sale of a security or futures contract;
(b) the acceptance by an investor of an initial public offer of securities made by an issuer;
(c.) an undertaking to manage a mutual fund.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.59
-
Question 214 of 567
214. Question
1 pointsQID130:Which of the following scenarios does not constitute a contract?
Correct
A contract is an agreement between two or more persons creating obligations that are enforceable or otherwise recognisable under law, for example:
(a.) the purchase or sale of a security or futures contract;
(b.) the acceptance by an investor of an initial public offer of securities made by an issuer;
(c.) an undertaking to manage a mutual fund; and
(d.) the purchase of a leveraged foreign exchange contract.
Case D doesn’t comply with these requirements.Incorrect
A contract is an agreement between two or more persons creating obligations that are enforceable or otherwise recognisable under law, for example:
(a.) the purchase or sale of a security or futures contract;
(b.) the acceptance by an investor of an initial public offer of securities made by an issuer;
(c.) an undertaking to manage a mutual fund; and
(d.) the purchase of a leveraged foreign exchange contract.
Case D doesn’t comply with these requirements.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.59
-
Question 215 of 567
215. Question
1 pointsQID1052:A public company is one that:
I. Is not a private company.
II. Is not a guarantee company.
III. Must be a listed company.
IV. May not be a listed company.Correct
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company.
Incorrect
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 216 of 567
216. Question
1 pointsQID135:Which of the following statements correctly describe public company under the new company ordinance?
I. It is a company that is not a private company.
II. It is a company that is not a guarantee company.
III. It must have more than 50 members.
IV. It restricts the right to transfer its shares.Correct
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company. It also has more than 50 members, contrary to a private company.
Incorrect
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company. It also has more than 50 members, contrary to a private company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
-
Question 217 of 567
217. Question
1 pointsQID1051:Which of the following descriptions about a public company is correct?
Correct
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company.
Incorrect
A public company is one that is not a private company, i.e. does not meet the requirements for a private company stated above, and is not a guarantee company.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.6
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Question 218 of 567
218. Question
1 pointsQID1138:Which of the following is NOT an element of a legal contract?
Correct
The elements of a legally binding contract are the following:
(a) an intention to create legal obligations;
(c.) there is valuable consideration, which can include an agreement not to sue under the contract; a contract under deed does not need consideration;
(d) the parties must have legal capacity, i.e. they must be at least 18 years of age and have no mental impairment; thus, if a securities dealer enters into a contract with a minor, the dealer may be at risk if the minor disclaims his commitmentsIncorrect
The elements of a legally binding contract are the following:
(a) an intention to create legal obligations;
(c.) there is valuable consideration, which can include an agreement not to sue under the contract; a contract under deed does not need consideration;
(d) the parties must have legal capacity, i.e. they must be at least 18 years of age and have no mental impairment; thus, if a securities dealer enters into a contract with a minor, the dealer may be at risk if the minor disclaims his commitmentsHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.60
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Question 219 of 567
219. Question
1 pointsQID1139:Which of the following conditions will make the contract void?
I. One party was forced into a contract under pressure.
II. A contract has illegal elements.
III. One or both parties are underage or mentally ill.
IV. The contract would result in financial damages to one party.Correct
The elements of a legally binding contract are the following:
(d) the parties must have legal capacity, i.e. they must be at least 18 years of age and have no mental impairment; thus, if a securities dealer enters into a contract with a minor, the dealer may be at risk if the minor disclaims his commitments
(e) a contract may be unenforceable if it has an illegal element, and thus an intermediary may face legal risk; and
(f) the parties must have given their consent to the contract without any form of pressure; if a party was forced to enter into the contract under pressure, the contract will be void.Incorrect
The elements of a legally binding contract are the following:
(d) the parties must have legal capacity, i.e. they must be at least 18 years of age and have no mental impairment; thus, if a securities dealer enters into a contract with a minor, the dealer may be at risk if the minor disclaims his commitments
(e) a contract may be unenforceable if it has an illegal element, and thus an intermediary may face legal risk; and
(f) the parties must have given their consent to the contract without any form of pressure; if a party was forced to enter into the contract under pressure, the contract will be void.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.60
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Question 220 of 567
220. Question
1 pointsQID1140:Which of the following descriptions about Terms of a contract are correct?
I. Can be expressly agreed or implied.
II. Contracts must be a form of warranty.
III. A warranty is a term of a contract which is of considerable importance such that a breach of a condition might lead to repudiation by the innocent party or a claim for damage.
IV. There can be conditions precedent (which must be met) or conditions subsequent which, if they fail, may lead to repudiation of the contract.Correct
The terms of the contract are important:
(a) They can be expressly agreed or implied (the terms may be implied by court or by common law).
(b) They can be conditions or warranties; a condition is a term of a contract which is of considerable importance such that a breach of a condition might lead to repudiation by the innocent party or a claim for damages; a warranty is a term of lesser importance such that a breach of a warranty may only lead to a claim for damages by an injured party.
(c.) There can be conditions precedent (which must be met) or conditions subsequent which, if they fail, may lead to repudiation of the contract.Incorrect
The terms of the contract are important:
(a) They can be expressly agreed or implied (the terms may be implied by court or by common law).
(b) They can be conditions or warranties; a condition is a term of a contract which is of considerable importance such that a breach of a condition might lead to repudiation by the innocent party or a claim for damages; a warranty is a term of lesser importance such that a breach of a warranty may only lead to a claim for damages by an injured party.
(c.) There can be conditions precedent (which must be met) or conditions subsequent which, if they fail, may lead to repudiation of the contract.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.61
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Question 221 of 567
221. Question
1 pointsQID1143:Which of the following statements correctly describes fiduciary relationships?
I. A fiduciary relationship must be either business or monetary interest to both parties.
II. A fiduciary is a person who should be serviced with duties of good faith, trust, confidence, honesty and care by another person.
III. All fiduciary relationships are agencies.
IV. All agencies are fiduciary relationships.Correct
Agency is a fiduciary relationship created by express or implied contract or by law.
Incorrect
Agency is a fiduciary relationship created by express or implied contract or by law.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.62
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Question 222 of 567
222. Question
1 pointsQID907:Is the principal liable for the acts of wrongdoing of his/her/its agent?
Correct
The principal liable for the acts of wrongdoing of his/her/its agent.
Incorrect
The principal liable for the acts of wrongdoing of his/her/its agent.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.64
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Question 223 of 567
223. Question
1 pointsQID1141:Which of the following descriptions about agency laws is correct?
Correct
A principal is liable for the acts of his agent as, for example, a firm is liable if an account executive it employs and has held out to be acting for the firm cheats a client.
Incorrect
A principal is liable for the acts of his agent as, for example, a firm is liable if an account executive it employs and has held out to be acting for the firm cheats a client.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.64
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Question 224 of 567
224. Question
1 pointsQID2578:Which of the following best explains the basis of fiduciary relationship between a stockbroker and a client who signed a client agreement?
Correct
A fiduciary relationship means when the fiduciary, here this means the stockbroker, has a duty to act for the best benefit of the other person, meaning the client in this case. The written agreement is only a record of the relationship.
Incorrect
A fiduciary relationship means when the fiduciary, here this means the stockbroker, has a duty to act for the best benefit of the other person, meaning the client in this case. The written agreement is only a record of the relationship.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.65
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Question 225 of 567
225. Question
1 pointsQID1142:Agency laws can be applied to which of the following cases?
I. A stock broker and his client.
II. A trustee and a beneficiary.
III. An auditor and a company.
IV. Solicitors and his clients.Correct
Agency is a fiduciary relationship created by express or implied contract or by law.
A fiduciary is a person who owes another person duties of good faith, trust, confidence, honesty and care. A fiduciary relationship is one in which one person has a duty to act for the benefit of the other on matters within the scope of their relationship. Examples of fiduciary relationships are those of stockbroker and client, principal and agent, solicitor and client, and trustee and beneficiary.Incorrect
Agency is a fiduciary relationship created by express or implied contract or by law.
A fiduciary is a person who owes another person duties of good faith, trust, confidence, honesty and care. A fiduciary relationship is one in which one person has a duty to act for the benefit of the other on matters within the scope of their relationship. Examples of fiduciary relationships are those of stockbroker and client, principal and agent, solicitor and client, and trustee and beneficiary.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.65
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Question 226 of 567
226. Question
1 pointsQID1659:Which of the followings is an example of tort?
Correct
When parties who have no contractual relationship are in a situation where one party suffers loss or damage as a result of the act of the other, a wrong or tort may have occurred, and under civil law a liability may have arisen.
Therefore, tort is a loss that is not based on a contractual relationship.A tort are losses that incur without a contractual relationship in place. The careless mistake is not a part of the contract and thus is a tort.
Incorrect
When parties who have no contractual relationship are in a situation where one party suffers loss or damage as a result of the act of the other, a wrong or tort may have occurred, and under civil law a liability may have arisen.
Therefore, tort is a loss that is not based on a contractual relationship.A tort are losses that incur without a contractual relationship in place. The careless mistake is not a part of the contract and thus is a tort.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.66
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Question 227 of 567
227. Question
1 pointsQID1144:Which of the following descriptions about law of tort are correct?
I. Law of tort is used in civil law cases.
II. Law of tort are based on ancient roman laws.
III. When parties who have no contractual relationship are in a situation where one party suffers loss or damage as a result of the act of the other, a wrong or tort may have occurred and under civil law a liability may have arisen.
IV. The tort of negligence is a tort committed as a result of a failure to observe the standard of care expected under the law in a particular case.Correct
When parties who have no contractual relationship are in a situation where one party suffers loss or damage as a result of the act of the other, a wrong or tort may have occurred, and under civil law a liability may have arisen. There are various branches of the law of tort, of which the tort of negligence has the most direct application to securities and futures business. The tort of negligence is one committed as a result of a failure to observe the standard of care expected under law in a particular case.
Incorrect
When parties who have no contractual relationship are in a situation where one party suffers loss or damage as a result of the act of the other, a wrong or tort may have occurred, and under civil law a liability may have arisen. There are various branches of the law of tort, of which the tort of negligence has the most direct application to securities and futures business. The tort of negligence is one committed as a result of a failure to observe the standard of care expected under law in a particular case.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.66
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Question 228 of 567
228. Question
1 pointsQID1145:Which of the following statements correctly describe the employment laws?
I. An employer must provide his employee with remuneration, indemnity for expenses, losses and liabilities incurred while performing his duties.
II. An employee must demonstrate skills and competence, faithful service, obedience and confidentiality.
III. A director service is considered as an employment relationship by the company ordinance.
IV. If the two parties fail to observe these basic elements in the relationship, there can be a breach of the law as well as of the contractual relationship between them.Correct
Under common law, an employer must provide his employee with remuneration, indemnity for expenses, losses and liabilities incurred while performing his duties, and a safe working
environment.
Also, under common law, an employee must demonstrate skills and competence, faithful service, obedience and confidentiality.
If the two parties fail to observe these basic elements in the relationship, there can be a breach of the law as well as of the contractual relationship between them.Incorrect
Under common law, an employer must provide his employee with remuneration, indemnity for expenses, losses and liabilities incurred while performing his duties, and a safe working
environment.
Also, under common law, an employee must demonstrate skills and competence, faithful service, obedience and confidentiality.
If the two parties fail to observe these basic elements in the relationship, there can be a breach of the law as well as of the contractual relationship between them.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.68
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Question 229 of 567
229. Question
1 pointsQID1043:Which of the following is a correct description of a guarantee company?
Correct
A guarantee company is one that:
(a) does not have a share capital; and
(b) the liability of its members is limited by the company’s articles to the amount that the members undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up.Incorrect
A guarantee company is one that:
(a) does not have a share capital; and
(b) the liability of its members is limited by the company’s articles to the amount that the members undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.7
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Question 230 of 567
230. Question
1 pointsQID1044:A guarantee company is one that:
I. does not have a share capital.
II. is not a private company.
III. the liability of its members is limited by the company’s articles to the amount that the members undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up.
IV. does not have a director.Correct
A guarantee company is one that:
(a) does not have a share capital; and
(b) the liability of its members is limited by the company’s articles to the amount that the members undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up.Incorrect
A guarantee company is one that:
(a) does not have a share capital; and
(b) the liability of its members is limited by the company’s articles to the amount that the members undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.7
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Question 231 of 567
231. Question
1 pointsQID502:According to the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance, personal data refers to:
Correct
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Incorrect
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.71
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Question 232 of 567
232. Question
1 pointsQID805:Which of the following are classified as personal data under the PDPO?
Correct
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Incorrect
“Personal data” means any data relating directly or indirectly to a living individual, from which it is practicable for the identity of the individual to be directly or indirectly ascertained (and are in a form in which access or processing is practicable).
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.71
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Question 233 of 567
233. Question
1 pointsQID501:Which of the follow ordinance/codes/rules protect the privacy of individuals in relation to their personal data?
Correct
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data.
Incorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.71
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Question 234 of 567
234. Question
1 pointsQID1147:Which of the following is responsible for the enforcement of Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance?
Correct
The Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data is an independent public officer appointed to enforce and promote compliance with the PDPO.
Incorrect
The Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data is an independent public officer appointed to enforce and promote compliance with the PDPO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.71
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Question 235 of 567
235. Question
1 pointsQID2827:Registration and Electoral Office lost a notebook computer containing voters’ information. This is more likely to violate
Correct
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy of Personal Data and Retention Period
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataThe loss of a notebook computer containing personal data likely indicates a failure to secure personal data, which violated principle IV – security of personal data, a requirement to prevent unauthorised or accidental access, processing, erasure, loss, or use of personal data.
Incorrect
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy of Personal Data and Retention Period
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataThe loss of a notebook computer containing personal data likely indicates a failure to secure personal data, which violated principle IV – security of personal data, a requirement to prevent unauthorised or accidental access, processing, erasure, loss, or use of personal data.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.71
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Question 236 of 567
236. Question
1 pointsQID808:The PDPO is applicable to which of the following individuals?
I. The user of personal data
II. The collector of personal data
III. The holder of personal data
IV. The processor of personal dataCorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data. It applies to any data user who, in relation to personal data, means a person who alone or jointly, or in common with other persons, controls the collection, holding, processing or use of the data.
Incorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (“PDPO”) was established to protect the privacy of individuals in relation to personal data. It applies to any data user who, in relation to personal data, means a person who alone or jointly, or in common with other persons, controls the collection, holding, processing or use of the data.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.71
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Question 237 of 567
237. Question
1 pointsQID2394:People who enforce the Privacy Ordinance are:
Correct
People who enforce the Privacy Ordinance are the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.
Incorrect
People who enforce the Privacy Ordinance are the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.71
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Question 238 of 567
238. Question
1 pointsQID1149:The data protection principles include:
I. information to be generally available to the public.
II. use of personal data.
III. purpose and manner of collection of personal data.
IV. accuracy and duration of retention of personal data.Correct
Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
Principle 2 – accuracy and duration of retention of personal data
Principle 3 – use of personal data
Principle 5 is “information to be generally available”, but not ” information to be generally available to the public”.Incorrect
Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
Principle 2 – accuracy and duration of retention of personal data
Principle 3 – use of personal data
Principle 5 is “information to be generally available”, but not ” information to be generally available to the public”.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 239 of 567
239. Question
1 pointsQID505:British Construction Bank is an authorised financial institution. Amid the downfall of the Hong Kong banking sector, it has decided to promote its personal loan service by acquiring a list of clients and contacts from its wholly owned subsidiary British Construction Securities, a licensed corporation. Should British Construction Securities provide such information to British Construction Bank?
Correct
Where the data is collected from the data subject, he should be informed, at the prescribed times, of the purpose for which the data is to be used, the classes of persons to whom the data may be transferred and of his rights to access and to request the correction of the data. Also, personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for a new purpose.
Incorrect
Where the data is collected from the data subject, he should be informed, at the prescribed times, of the purpose for which the data is to be used, the classes of persons to whom the data may be transferred and of his rights to access and to request the correction of the data. Also, personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for a new purpose.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 240 of 567
240. Question
1 pointsQID1146:Under the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance, the subject is entitled to which of the following rights?
I. The subject shall be notified about the purpose of collection of personal data.
II. The subject’s personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for any purpose other than that for which it was collected or a directly related purpose
III. The data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject are held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object.
IV. The subject’s personal data shall not be collected unless lawfully and fairly collected for a lawful purpose directly related to a function or activity of the data user, the collection is necessary for or directly related to that purpose and the data is not excessive for the purpose.Correct
(a) Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
(i) Personal data shall not be collected unless for a lawful purpose directly related to a function or activity of the data user, and unless the collection is necessary for or directly related to that purpose and the data is not excessive for the purpose.
(ii) Where the data is collected from the data subject, he should be informed, at the prescribed times, of the purpose for which the data is to be used, the classes of persons to whom the data may be transferred and of his rights to access and to request the correction of the data.
(c) Principle 3 – use of personal data
Personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for a new purpose.
(f) Principle 6 – access to personal data
A data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject is held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data, and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object to the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.Incorrect
(a) Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
(i) Personal data shall not be collected unless for a lawful purpose directly related to a function or activity of the data user, and unless the collection is necessary for or directly related to that purpose and the data is not excessive for the purpose.
(ii) Where the data is collected from the data subject, he should be informed, at the prescribed times, of the purpose for which the data is to be used, the classes of persons to whom the data may be transferred and of his rights to access and to request the correction of the data.
(c) Principle 3 – use of personal data
Personal data should not, without the consent of the data subject, be used for a new purpose.
(f) Principle 6 – access to personal data
A data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject is held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data, and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object to the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 241 of 567
241. Question
1 pointsQID503:Which of the following is NOT one of the 6 principles set in the
Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance?Correct
Option C, Manner of saving personal data, is not a principle stated in the Schedule 1 of the PDPO.
Incorrect
Option C, Manner of saving personal data, is not a principle stated in the Schedule 1 of the PDPO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 242 of 567
242. Question
1 pointsQID504:What of the following is not a principle of the PDPO?
Correct
Option C, Functionality, is not a principle stated in the Schedule 1 of the PDPO.
Incorrect
Option C, Functionality, is not a principle stated in the Schedule 1 of the PDPO.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 243 of 567
243. Question
1 pointsQID2395:Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Privacy Ordinance?
Correct
A data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject is held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable
fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data, and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object to the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.
Therefore, securities companies are obliged to provide customers with copies of their personal data, but not necessarily free of charge.Incorrect
A data subject shall be entitled to ascertain whether data of which he is the subject is held, request and receive access to his personal data within a reasonable time at a reasonable
fee and in an intelligible form, and to request corrections to the data, and to be given reasons for any refusals in relation to the above and to object to the Privacy Commissioner for Personal Data.
Therefore, securities companies are obliged to provide customers with copies of their personal data, but not necessarily free of charge.Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 244 of 567
244. Question
1 pointsQID1148:Which of the following is NOT a data protection principle according to the PDPO?
Correct
Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
Principle 2 – accuracy and duration of retention of personal data
Principle 3 – use of personal data
Principle 4 – security of personal data
Principle 5 – information to be generally available
Principle 6 – access to personal dataIncorrect
Principle 1 – purpose and manner of collection of personal data
Principle 2 – accuracy and duration of retention of personal data
Principle 3 – use of personal data
Principle 4 – security of personal data
Principle 5 – information to be generally available
Principle 6 – access to personal dataHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 245 of 567
245. Question
1 pointsQID2748:The data protection principles set out in the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) do not include
Correct
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy and duration of retention
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataIncorrect
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy and duration of retention
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
-
Question 246 of 567
246. Question
1 pointsQID2838:The data protection principles set out in the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) do not include
Correct
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy of Personal Data and Retention Period
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataIncorrect
The data protection principles set out in the PDPO include:
I. Purpose and manner of collection of personal data
II. Accuracy of Personal Data and Retention Period
III. Use of Personal Data
IV. Security of personal data
V. Information to be available in general
VI. Access to personal dataHint
Reference Chapter:1.3.72
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Question 247 of 567
247. Question
1 pointsQID1045:A listed company is one that:
Correct
A listed company is one that has any of its shares listed on a recognized stock market.
Incorrect
A listed company is one that has any of its shares listed on a recognized stock market.
Hint
Reference Chapter:1.3.8
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Question 248 of 567
248. Question
1 pointsQID1049:The articles of association of a company is:
Correct
The articles of association of a company is considered to be the single constitutional document of the company and form an agreement between the company and its members. The articles of association prescribe regulations for the internal management and operation of the company.
Incorrect
The ar